Title: Questions saved from deleted categories
Course: Playpen: Melissa Aitkin

Occasionally, typically due to old software bugs, questions can remain in the database even though the corresponding question category has been deleted. Of course, this should not happen, it has happened in the past on this site. This category has been created automatically, and the orphaned questions moved here so that you can manage them. Note that any images or media files used by these questions have probably been lost.

Feedback shared by this category's questions, if partly right: 1
Feedback shared by this category's questions, if wrong: Please talk to the Subject Coordinator or a Deputy Coordinator about this issue. Once we have clarified any concerns you have, you can then go back in and review the information and change your choice.

Q: An outstanding cheque in the bank reconciliation process refers to:
- a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.
- one of the bank reconciliation steps has not yet been completed and consequently has not been checked by someone with appropriate authority.
- a very good 'quality' cheque.
- a cheque that has 'bounced' from the issuer's bank because there was insufficient funds to honour it.
A: a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 January 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the accumulated depreciation for this asset on December 31, 2005?
- $14 800
- $16 000
- $6 400
- $8 000
- None of the above.
A: None of the above.

Q: Which Microscope component houses a lens system but is not involved in magnification of a specimen?
- Condenser
- Eyepiece
- Objective
- Stage
A: Condenser

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- If required, enter information about the location in the first box. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Download and install software to a computer.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- You have to show your ticket to the inspector. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Use the internet to find information. (This is a skill.)
- The website of a government department. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Click on the link. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding which government department deals with migration issues. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Use the internet to find information.

Q: What is a fox?
A: dog

What is a ligand?

Q: A feature of congestive cardiac failure is chest pain.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Use the APA-FT database for this question.

 (Path Library Homepage -> Databases -> Sport, Tourism and Hospitality Databases -> APA-FT)

You need to find Australian articles that have something to do with volunteers and sport. Search for volunteers and sport. The results list has
- More than 11 records
- Between 6 and 10 records
- Between 1 and 5 records
- 0 records
A: Between 1 and 5 records

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for this incomplete statement:

A plane which separates the body into unequal right and left parts is called a:
- median plane
- transverse plane
- midsagittal plane
- coronal plane
- parasagittal plane
A: parasagittal plane

Q: You will be provided with access to images of human cadaver material as a student enrolled in HBS1HBB at La Trobe University. These images will be avilable in the library via a DVD describing the anatomy of the back, or via the Insight program which shows images of sections of cadaver material.  These images are of cadaver material held at La Trobe University and are provided for private study purposes only.  Reproduction or transmission of these images in any form breaches your obligations under the Human Tissue Act (1982).

You have also been provided with access to potted cadaver specimens in the Anatomy Resource Room (HS2 106). Photographing these specimens also breaches your obligations under the Human Tissue Act.

Select A to show that you have read this statement and that you agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above.

If you do not agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above then you must select B.  In this case the Subject Coordinator or a Deputy Subject Coordinator will contact you to discuss this issue.
- I agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above. (During the semester please remember your obligations under the Human Tissue Act - no photography and no reproduction of the anatomical images on the image databank (Insight).)
- I do not agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above. (The Subject Coordinator or a Deputy Subject Coordinator will be contacting you regarding your obligations under the Human Tissue Act as a student enrolled in HBS1HBB.)
A: I agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above.

Q: For each of the questions or incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given may be correct.

Hyaline cartilage at a typical synovial joint:

W. provides a smooth, slippery surface for easy movement.

X. is enclosed within the joint capsule.

Y. covers the articulating bone surfaces.

Z. is, itself, covered by synovial membrane.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for this question.

Which of the following structures lies in the midsagittal plane?
- eye
- ear
- nipple
- chin
- cheek
A: chin

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

During the falling (repolarization) phase of the action potential:

W. voltage gated sodium channels are fully open.

X. voltage gated potassium channels are open.

Y. sodium ions move into the cell.

Z. potassium ions move out of the cell.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the statement.

A plane which separates the body into an anterior and a posterior part is called a:
- lateral plane
- sagittal plane
- horizontal plane
- coronal plane
- transverse plane
A: coronal plane

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

When standing in the anatomical position:
- the knee joint is superficial to the toes.
- the thumb is medial to the little finger.
- the patella is proximal to the hip joint.
- the heart is deep to the sternum.
- the hip joint is abducted.
A: the heart is deep to the sternum.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

When standing in the anatomical position:
- the nipples are superior and medial to the chin
- the knee is inferior and lateral to the fingers
- the brain is lateral to the ears
- the nose is medial and inferior to the eyes
- the sternum is deep to the lungs
A: the nose is medial and inferior to the eyes

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Blocking the voltage-gated calcium channels located at the axon terminal of the motor neuron might result in:
- an increase in neurotransmitter release.
- little change to normal synaptic transmission.
- a decrease in neurotransmitter release.
- increased stimulation of the muscle fibre.
- increased acetylcholinesterase activity.
A: a decrease in neurotransmitter release.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Glial cells that make the myelin sheath around neurons in the CNS are called:
- microglia
- schwann cells
- oligodendrocytes
- astrocytes
- neurons
A: oligodendrocytes

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Glial cells that make the myelin sheath around neurons in the PNS are called:
- schwann cells
- microglia
- oligodendrocytes
- astrocytes
- neurons
A: schwann cells

Q: Refer to the diagrams below. For the incomplete statement, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Muscles active at the knee joint as the figure moves from standing (diagram 1) to squatting (diagram 2), include a:
[Image]
- dynamic concentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- static (isometric) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- dynamic eccentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- a dynamic concentric (isotonic) contraction of the hamstrings
- static (isometric) contraction of the hamstrings
A: dynamic eccentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The end of a long bone (e.g., the head of the femur):
- commences ossification prior to birth.
- is joined to the shaft of the bone by hyaline cartilage in a child.
- is composed mainly of compact bone in the adult.
- ossifies mainly by intramembranous ossification.
- would be visible on an x-ray of a newborn child.
A: is joined to the shaft of the bone by hyaline cartilage in a child.

Consider a post-ganglionic sympathetic fibre which would innervate the heart to cause the increase in heart rate seen when the hikers observed the snake during their walk.

From the list in question 1, name the location of the cell body of this post-ganglionic sympathetic fibre.

List, in order, the structures seen on this diagram that the post-ganglionic fibre would travel through as it went towards the heart.
Feedback: Location of post-ganglionic sympathetic neuronal cell body: Structures shown on the diagram that the GVE fibre would travel through from the location you listed above to get to the heart:

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

The cell body is labelled:
A: b

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below.

The dendrite is labelled:
A: a

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A descending tract in the spinal cord:

W) forms part of a motor pathway

X) forms part of a sensory pathway

Y) originates from the primary motor area

Z) can be found in the dorsal column
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures is hyaline cartilage?
A: d

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Breathing rate and depth is normally controlled by a negative feedback mechanism that is most sensitive to changes in the ................in systemic arterial blood:

W.  partial pressure of oxygen (PO_2).

X.  bicarbonate ion (HCO_3) concentration.

Y.  percentage of haemoglobin saturated with oxygen.

Z.  partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO_2).
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: When certain customers made cash payments to reduce their accounts receivable, the bookkeeper embezzled the cash and wrote off the accounts as uncollectible. Which control procedure would most likely prevent this irregularity?
- segregation of duties
- accounting records
- accounting system
- access controls
A: segregation of duties

Q: Match each correct term with the statement below.
- threat | Threat
- systems reliability | Systems reliability
- Procedure to ensure that employees process only valid transactions within the scope of their authority. | Transaction authorization
- A control activity involving the critical oversight of employees. | Supervision
- Separation of employee duties to minimize incompatible functions. | Segregation of duties
- security | Security
- The identification, analysis, and management of risks relevant to financial reporting. | Risk assessment
- risk | Risk
- Passive techniques designed to reduce the frequency of occurrence of undesirable events. | Preventive controls
- The process by which the quality of internal control design and operation can be assessed. | Monitoring
- Performance fraud that often uses deceptive practices to inflate earnings or to forestall the recognition of either insolvency or a decline in earnings. | Management fraud
- Policies a firm employs to safeguard the firm's assets, ensure accurate and reliable accounting records and information, promote efficiency, and measure compliance with established policies. | Internal control system
- Absence or weakness of a control. | Exposure
- Principles of conduct that individuals use in making choices in guiding their behavior in situations that involve the concepts of right and wrong. | Ethics
- Performance fraud by non-management employees generally designed to directly convert cash or other assets to the employees' personal benefit. | Employee fraud
- Devices, techniques, and procedures designed to identify and expose undesirable events that elude preventive controls. | Detective controls
- Actions taken to reverse the effects of errors detected in the previous step. | Corrective controls
- The foundation of internal control. | Control environment
- Policies and procedures used to ensure that appropriate actions are taken to deal with the organization's risks. | Control activities
- confidentiality | Confidentiality
- availablity | Availability
- authorization | Authorization
- privacy | Privacy
- application control | Application control
- Controls that ensure that only authorized personnel have access to the firm's assets. | Access controls

Q: Which ethical principle states that the benefit from a decision must outweigh the risks, and that there is no alternative decision that provides the same or greater benefit with less risk?
- minimize risk
- justice
- informed consent
- proportionality
A: proportionality

Q: Which of the following indicates a strong internal control environment?
- there is no segregation of duties between organization functions
- there are questions about the integrity of management
- adverse business conditions exist in the industry
- the internal audit group reports to the audit committee of the board of directors
A: the internal audit group reports to the audit committee of the board of directors

Q: According to SAS 78, an effective accounting system performs all of the following except
- identifies and records all valid financial transactions
- records financial transactions in the appropriate accounting period
- separates the duties of data entry and report generation
- records all financial transactions promptly
A: separates the duties of data entry and report generation

Q: Which of the following is the best reason to separate duties in a manual system?
- to ensure that supervision is not required
- to prevent the record keeper from authorizing transactions
- to avoid collusion between the programmer and the computer operator
- to enable the firm to function more efficiently
A: to prevent the record keeper from authorizing transactions

Q: Segregation of duties in the computer-based information system includes
- separating the programmer from the computer operator
- preventing management override
- separating the inventory process from the billing process
- performing independent verifications by the computer operator
A: separating the programmer from the computer operator

Q: Which of the following is not an internal control procedure?
- authorization
- management’s operating style
- independent verification
- accounting records
A: management’s operating style

Q: The decision to extend credit beyond the normal credit limit is an example of
- segregation of functions
- independent verification
- authorization
- supervision
A: authorization

Q: When duties cannot be segregated, the most important internal control procedure is
- supervision
- independent verification
- access controls
- accounting records
A: supervision

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

[Image]

The axon is labelled :
A: d / d.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A feature of acclimatisation to high altitude is:
- renal compensation for the changes in acid-base homeostasis which accompany hyperventilation.
- increased ventilation.
- thirst.
- feelings of tiredness.
- inherited changes in thoracic shape and volume.
A: renal compensation for the changes in acid-base homeostasis which accompany hyperventilation.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Pulmonary ventilation increases during aerobic exercise due to the:
- decreasing partial pressure of oxygen in plasma.
- decreasing partial pressure of carbon dioxide in plasma.
- increasing concentrations of lactic acid in plasma.
- decreasing concentrations of glucose in plasma.
- anticipation of exercise.
A: anticipation of exercise.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The end of a long bone (e.g., the head of the femur):
- usually commences ossification prior to birth.
- is usually joined to the shaft of the bone by hyaline cartilage in a child.
- is composed mainly of compact bone in the adult.
- ossifies mainly by intramembranous ossification.
- is covered by fibrocartilage.
A: is usually joined to the shaft of the bone by hyaline cartilage in a child.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The sensation of warmth is detected by:
- chemoreceptors
- mechanoreceptors
- photoreceptors
- nociceptors
- thermoreceptors
A: thermoreceptors

MEAA

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

General somatic efferent neurons would:
- transmit pain sensation from visceral organs
- transmit temperature sensation from skin
- transmit stretch sensation from the stomach
- transmit an impulse that would cause the smooth muscle of the stomach to contract
- transmit movement commands to the skeletal muscles in the upper limb
A: transmit movement commands to the skeletal muscles in the upper limb

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Bundles of axons that leave the spinal cord are part of a:
- nerve
- tract
- neuron
- sensory organ
- ganglia
A: nerve

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The flexor reflex (= withdrawal reflex):
- prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension
- prevents a muscle from overstretching
- moves a limb away from a painful stimulus
- makes adjustments in other parts of the body in response to a particular stimulus
- is an example of a monosynaptic reflex
A: moves a limb away from a painful stimulus

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

General somatic afferent neurons would:
- transmit pain sensation from visceral organs
- transmit temperature sensation from skin
- transmit stretch sensation from the stomach
- transmit an impluse that would cause the smooth muscle of the stomach to contract
- transmit movement commands to the skeletal muscles in the upper limb
A: transmit temperature sensation from skin

Q: How did Franco often legitimise his actions during the Civil War?
- By highlighting the threat from Hitler
- By portraying the west as enemies
- By portraying himself as Spain’s defender against communism
A: By portraying himself as Spain’s defender against communism

- Churchill and Truman?
- Hitler and Mussolini?
- Stalin and Trotsky?
A: Hitler and Mussolini?

- By highlighting the threat from Hitler
- By portraying the west as enemies
- By portraying himself as Spain’s defender against communism
A: By portraying himself as Spain’s defender against communism

Q: Who supported Franco during the Civil War?
- Churchill and Truman?
- Hitler and Mussolini?
- Stalin and Trotsky?
A: Hitler and Mussolini?

Q: Enter Full Name:

Q: Enter Student ID:

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures is a thickened band of dense fibrous connective tissue?
A: b

Q: Internal auditing is:
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
A: like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.

Q: Revenues are:
- increases in net assets from selling ordinary shares.
- increases in net assets from occasional sales of equipment.
- increases in net assets from selling a product.
- cash receipts.
A: increases in net assets from selling a product.

Q: What is the 'key' to the entire operating budget?
- The production/purchases budget.
- The budgeted balance sheet.
- The budgeted income statement.
- The forecast of operating activity.
A: The forecast of operating activity.

Q: Contributed capital represents:
- net assets of the entity at the date of the statement.
- market value of the entity's ordinary shares.
- the amount invested in the entity by the owners.
- earnings retained for use in the business.
A: the amount invested in the entity by the owners.

Q: Internal auditing is:
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
A: like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.

Q: What is your student number?

Q: Match Halves
- Q 3 | Q 3
- Q 2 | A 2
- Q 1 | A 1

Q: Influenza A vaccine is given every five years
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Hepatitis A is of particular concern regarding needle-stick injury
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Hepatitis C is of particular concern regarding needle-stick injury
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Varicella Zoster is of particular concern regarding needle-stick injury
- true
- false
A: false

Q: The ability to identify objects placed in the hand is labelled...
- kinaesthesia
- stereognosis
- athetosis
- hemiballismus
A: stereognosis

Q: What is the first sensation modality you would test?
- light touch
- pressure
- pin prick
- tactile localisation
A: light touch

Q: What movement response would you expect in the presence of a normal Babinski reflex?
- toe extension
- toe flexion
- ankle dorsiflexion
- ankle plantarflexion
A: toe flexion

Q: 1+1=
- 4
- 3
- 2
- 1
A: 2

Q: 2+2=
- 4
- 3
- 2
- 1
A: 4

Instruction: ...
Question: ....

Q: Use the APA-FT database for this question. (Path Library Homepage -> Databases -> A -> APA-FT)

I need to find Australian articles that have something to do with working conditions and hotels. Search for working conditions and hotels. The results list has
- None of the above
- 11-20 records
- 0-10 records
- 21 -40 records
A: 21 -40 records

- dfghj
- gvchg
A: dfghj / gvchg

Principle: "The same muscle may act as a prime mover (= agonist) or an antagonist or a synergist or a fixator under different circumstances depending upon the movement to be achieved."

Describe how the principle written above applies to the muscle you have named in question 3 above.

Q: Match the molecules or ions to an action they will perform/initiate at a neuromuscular junction.
- acetylcholinesterase molecules | stop the muscle fibre contraction in the absence of additional nerve impulses.
- potassium ions | diffuse out of the cell to cause repolarization of the sarcolemma
- sodium ions | enter the muscle fibre through voltage-gated channels during depolarization
- acetylcholine molecules | are released into the synaptic cleft when an action potential reaches the axon terminal

Q: Principle "The name of a muscle reflects its structure and or functions (e.g. shape, size, orientation, location, attachments, action).

 Using the ideas in this principle, match the words taken from the names of muscles to their meanings.
- sartorius | tailor
- rectus | straight
- deltoid | triangular
- latissimus | wide, broad
- quadriceps | four heads
- pectoralis | breast

What is meant by the term "motor unit"?

Explain why a muscle controlling flexion of the thumb has small motor units whereas a muscle controlling flexion of the hip has large motor units.

Q: The following relates to the movement at joint labelled 2 on the diagram. The action occuring at this joint in moving from Diagram B to Diagram A is called [...]. The movement is occurring in a [...] plane. The muscle group most likely to be active during this movement is [...]. During this movement the length of the named muscle will be [...]; therefore this type of contraction is called [...] contraction. This is [...] chain movement.
A: flexion; parasagittal / sagittal; quadriceps femoris; increasing; an eccentric / eccentric; closed / a closed

Q: The photos below show a person seated in a chair(diagram A) and then standing up (diagram B). Name, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1 to 5 in the boxes provided. Use the information below to help you name each structure/region.

1. names of the bones in this limb segment

2. functional classification of synovial joint

3. name of synovial joint

4. body cavity in this region

5. body cavity in this region
1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]
[Image]
A: tibia fibula; hinge; hip; thoracic; abdominal

Q: The force exerted by a contracting muscle on an object is known as [...] [...]. Skeletal muscles are almost always slightly contracted even when in a relaxed state, this is referred to as [...] [...].
A: muscle; tension; muscle; tone

Q: The following question relates to the movement at the joint labelled 2 in the diagram above. The movement that has occurred at this joint when the person in Diagram A moves to the position in Diagram B is called [...]. The muscle group most likely to be active during this movement is [...]. During this movement the length of the muscle will be [...]; therefore the type of contraction that is occurring in the named muscle group is [...] contraction.
A: extension; quadriceps femoris; decreasing; concentric / a concentric

Justify your answer to the True/False question above about the graded potential.

Q: Cell bodies of postganglionic parasympathetic fibres are found located near the spinal cord.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic fibres are found in spinal levels T1 - L2.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Match the pathways shown below with the type of information that will travel in that pathway.
- dorsal column pathway | discriminative touch
- spinothalamic pathway | pain

Q: Match the peripheral nervous structure with a nerve fibre type found within that structure.
- a vascular branch of the femoral nerve (the fibre type carrying impluses towards the spinal cord) | general visceral afferent
- white rami communicantes | general visceral efferent
- abducens nerve | general somatic efferent
- olfactory nerve | special sensory afferent
- a cutaneous branch of the femoral nerve (the fibre type carrying impulses to the spinal cord) | general somatic afferent

Q: General somatic efferent fibres will release acetylcholine at their synapses with skeletal muscle fibres.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Preganglionic parasympathetic fibres will release acetylcholine at their synapses with postganglionic parasympathetic fibres.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors both bind adrenaline which can have either a stimulatory or inhibitory effect on the effector organ.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Postganglionic sympathetic fibres will release adrenaline at their synapse with the effector organ.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Indicate the structures a general somatic efferent fibre will travel through from the spinal cord to the femoral nerve in order to innervate the quadriceps femoris muscle.

Its cell body will lie in the [...] (2 words). It will leave the spinal cord via the [...] (2 words). It will travel with other general somatic efferent fibres, general somatic afferent fibres and general visceral efferent fibres in a [...] (2 words). It will pass through the [...] primary ramus and then through its [...] division to the femoral nerve. It will then travel along a [...]branch of the femoral nerve to innervate the qudriceps muscle.
A: anterior horn / ventral horn; ventral root / anterior root; spinal nerve; anterior / ventral; posterior; muscular

Examine the pathway drawn on the diagram. What area of the body is receiving the stimulus? Briefly explain how you determined this.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- assessment criteria, references, referees, resume, cv. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A job interview. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Present information about yourself at a job interview. (This is a skill.)
- Understanding the structure and purpose of a job interview. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- I'm thinking of changing jobs. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Present information about yourself at a job interview.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- increase, decrease, improve, worsen (These are vocabulary items.)
- Giving advice. (This is a language function.)
- A popular children's story or a fable. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Knowing when to pay a compliment. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- I really appreciate your helping me with this. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: I really appreciate your helping me with this.

Q: Newton's three famous laws of motion include these concepts (select three):
- Velocity
- Speed
- Mass
- Vector
- Energy
- Gravity
A: Velocity; Speed; Vector
Feedback: Speed, Velocity, and Vector are the concepts Newton used in his three laws of motion.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Reading a floor plan (This is a skill.)
- Complaining about poor service. (This is a language function.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- I used to get up early (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Complaining about poor service.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- You’ve missed the deadline therefore we cannot accept your submission. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Write an academic essay.

Q: Which of the following is text or discourse type?
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: A text message.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Bring to the boil. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Instructions on how to use a microwave oven. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Knowledge about customs around serving and consumption of alcohol. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Knowledge about customs around serving and consumption of alcohol.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- I’ve never driven a left-hand drive car. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Using a bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
- An adventure story. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Before leaving the house, Kim rang her parents. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Using a bilingual dictionary.

Q: For each of the following dates, match the event or person associated with it.
- 1947 | Gandhi's civil disobedience movement leads to an independent India
- 1066 | Norman Conquest of Britain
- 1100s | Angkor Wat is built
- 1215 | Magna Carta signed
- 1347 | Bubonic Plague spreads in Europe
- 1455 | Gutenberg's movable-type printing press produces the Bible
- 1517 | Martin Luther initiates the Reformation
- 1664 | Newton's theory of universal gravitation
- 1764 | Mozart (aged 8) writes first symphony
- 1867 | Japan ends 675-year shogun rule

Q: Which of the following plays can be considered comedies?
- Romeo and Juliet [Image] ([Image: tulips photo]the actual feedback)
- taming of the Shrew [Image: tulips photo] (Well done)
- Macbeth (not funny - marks deducted)
- A comedy of errors (good)
A: taming of the Shrew [Image: tulips photo]; A comedy of errors
Feedback: I hope you enjoyed the plays.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- I phoned her. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Using a mobile phone. (This is a skill.)
- A manual for a mobile phone. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- settings, app’s, network, wireless. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Awareness of costs associated with use of mobile phones. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Awareness of costs associated with use of mobile phones.

Q: Sally is a 20 year old university student who weighs 55 kg. She participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. She completed the 2nd stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 130 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Sally’s predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Sally’s fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: Superior / 47.2; Superior / 47.2

Q: The increase in mean arterial blood pressure that occurs during dynamic incremental exercise is due to increases in both diastolic and systolic blood pressure.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list (This is a skill.)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- I am writing to inform you about changes to the program. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Persuading someone to do something. (This is a language function)
A: I am writing to inform you about changes to the program.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- I used to get up early (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Complaining about poor service. (This is a language function.)
- Reading a floor plan (This is a skill.)
A: Complaining about poor service.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Thanks very much / Thanks a lot. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Knowing whether it is appropriate to call someone by their first name or by their family name plus Mr, Ms, Dr etc. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Giving directions to a location. (This is a language function.)
- Being able to write from left to right (This is a skill.)
A: Thanks very much / Thanks a lot.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Using an electronic bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
- Past continuous verbs (This is a grammatical structure)
- Expressing opinions (This is a language function.)
- Awareness of what kind of relationships and perceptions that people hold between the people from the south of Ireland and the north of Ireland. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
- An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes. (This is a text type)
A: An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
A: Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- blazer, tie, jewellery, make up, v-neck jumper (These are vocabulary items)
- Describing someone's appearance (This is a language function)
- The range of attitudes towards school uniforms (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
- The film 'Rain Man' (This is a text type.)
- Modal structures in the present – can/can’t, must/mustn’t, should/shouldn’t, have to/don’t have to, is/are allowed (These are grammatical structures)
A: The film 'Rain Man'

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: A recipe.

Q: Which of the following is text or discourse type?
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: A text message.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- It is clearly argued that... (This is a grammatical structure)
- A persuasive essay (This is a text or discourse type)
- Arguing for particular course of action (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- The expectation that writers will tell their readers where they got their information from. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge.)
A: A persuasive essay

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Asking for assistance (This is a language function.)
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- A report about the repairs that are needed to house. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Train tickets can be bought at a newsagent (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: Minimum payment due: $25

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- The expectation that writers will tell their readers where they got their information from. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge.)
- It is clearly argued that... (This is a grammatical structure)
- A persuasive essay (This is a text or discourse type)
- Arguing for particular course of action (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: A persuasive essay

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
- If required, enter information about the location in the first box. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Understanding the need to back up computer files.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
- He's a hard nut to crack. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A poster advertising a community event (This is a text or discourse type)
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- Linking consonants produces a new sound: e.g. Could___you? We get a dz sound when these words are said together. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Offering help

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- The importance of excursion in Australian school programs (This is a skill.)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Please advise.... (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
A: Requesting information

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- He's off his head. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A bus timetable (This is a text or discourse type)
- Buying a train ticket (This is a language function.)
- The diphthong sound in the words: boy, toy oil, etc. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Don't forget to ring me. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Don't forget to ring me.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- I’m having my hair cut tomorrow (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Sometimes the final consonant in a word is deleted when 3 or more consonants are pronounced together. E.g. Sorry, I didn’t get that. She phoned me and told me to come. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Apologising for arriving late (This is a language function.)
- The use of words like ‘please’ and ‘thank you’. Some adult ESL speakers believe that Australians overuse these and say that it makes them sound obsequious, weak or insincere. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: Apologising for arriving late

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
- If required, enter information about the location in the first box. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Understanding the need to back up computer files.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- I’d rather watch a movie than go to the party. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Awareness of the history of European settlement in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A posting in a blog about places to go to eat in Melbourne. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- I really don’t like the way that program is organised. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Use a keyboard. (This is a skill.)
A: Use a keyboard.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Use a keyboard. (This is a skill.)
- Awareness of the history of European settlement in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- I really don’t like the way that program is organised. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A posting in a blog about places to go to eat in Melbourne. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- I’d rather watch a movie than go to the party. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Use a keyboard.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Please advise.... (This is a grammatical structure)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- The importance of excursion in Australian school programs (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge.)
A: A letter from a school to parents

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- Submit your essay to the assignment dropbox. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Using intonation when disagreeing that indicates politeness (This is related to pronunciation)
- diagnosis, treatment (These are vocabulary items.)
- A consultation with a doctor (This is a text type)
- I'm not very comfortable with that / I'd really rather not have to do that / Is there an alternative to that? (These are grammatical structures)
- Understanding that it is OK to question a doctor's advice. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
A: A consultation with a doctor

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- It’s neither easy nor difficult. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Road signs. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list. (This is a skill.)
- There will be a bus to take you to the venue departing from the front of the conference centre. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Sensitivity to different religious observances. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Look up words in an alphabetically organised list.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
- You're getting ahead of yourself. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A poster advertising a community event (This is a text or discourse type)
- I'm playing tennis with Georgie on Saturday. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Expaining how to use cash register (This is a language function.)
A: I'm playing tennis with Georgie on Saturday.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Read a weather chart.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
A: Send a text message.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
A: Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Read a weather chart.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Sensitivity to different religious observances. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- It’s neither easy nor difficult. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Road signs. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list. (This is a skill.)
- There will be a bus to take you to the venue departing from the front of the conference centre. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Look up words in an alphabetically organised list.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A telephone conversation between friends (This is a text or discourse type)
- Chatting about your weekend (This is a language function.)
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please?

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Identifying symbols (No, this is a skill.)
- It's dead easy. (No, this is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Radio talkback (No this is a text or discourse type)
- Making small talk (Yes, this is a language function.)
- Linking words E.g. He’s_eaten a lot_of junk food today. (No, this is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Making small talk

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A telephone conversation between friends (This is a text or discourse type)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Providing information

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
A: A weather report.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
A: A recipe.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Click on the link. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A table of contents. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Use a table of contents. (This is a skill.)
- They’re intelligent but lazy. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understand the difference between a table of contents and an index. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understand the difference between a table of contents and an index.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Sensitivity to different religious observances. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Today’s class is cancelled. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Classroom notice. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list. (This is a skill.)
- there’ll, she’ll, we’ll. (These are vocabulary items. The pronunciation of each of these might also be the focus of some teaching or practice.)
A: Sensitivity to different religious observances.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Ordering food at a café or restaurant. (This is a language function.)
- A menu. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Reading a menu. (This is a skill.)
- Place your orders at the counter. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- settings, app’s, network, wireless. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Using a mobile phone. (This is a skill.)
- I phoned her. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Awareness of costs associated with use of mobile phones. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A manual for a mobile phone. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Awareness of costs associated with use of mobile phones.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Knowing which side of the road to drive on. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- congestion, detour, merge, overtake. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Road signs. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Read and interpret road signs. (This is a skill.)
- Give way to pedestrians. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Knowing which side of the road to drive on.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Don't forget to ring me. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- He's off his head. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A bus timetable (This is a text or discourse type)
- Buying a train ticket (This is a language function.)
- The diphthong sound in the words: boy, toy oil, etc. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Don't forget to ring me.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
- If required, enter information about the location in the first box. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Download and install software to a computer.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Create a word document on a computer (This is a skill.)
- In the long run. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A menu (This is a text or discourse type)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Requesting information

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I used to get up early (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A spoken interaction between an employee of a telphone company and and a customer. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Interrupting a conversation. (This is a language function.)
- Typing (This is a skill.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: I used to get up early

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- You're getting ahead of yourself. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A poster advertising a community event (This is a text or discourse type)
- Expaining how to use cash register (This is a language function.)
- I'm playing tennis with Georgie on Saturday. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
A: I'm playing tennis with Georgie on Saturday.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- I’m having my hair cut tomorrow (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The use of words like ‘please’ and ‘thank you’. Some adult ESL speakers believe that Australians overuse these and say that it makes them sound obsequious, weak or insincere. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Apologising for arriving late (This is a language function.)
- Sometimes the final consonant in a word is deleted when 3 or more consonants are pronounced together. E.g. Sorry, I didn’t get that. She phoned me and told me to come. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Apologising for arriving late

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- I really appreciate your helping me with this. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A job interview. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Asking for clarification. (This is a language function.)
- Holding a pen (This is a skill.)
- Knowing when to pay a compliment. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: Asking for clarification.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Thanks very much / Thanks a lot. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Using the topic of the weather as small talk. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Opening a book from right to left (This is a skill.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Recounting an event. (This is a language function.)
A: Recounting an event.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- please, thank you (These are vocabulary items.)
- Advising someone about a healthy lifestyle. (This is a language function.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Sometimes the final consonant in a word is deleted when 3 or more consonants are pronounced together. E.g. Sorry, I didn’t get that. She phoned me and told me to come. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- I’m having my hair cut tomorrow (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: I’m having my hair cut tomorrow

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Chatting about recent events (This is a language function.)
- Intonation and stress when giving opinions to be more polite (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Knowing when it is OK to interrupt someone when they are speaking. (This is sujbect matter / cultural knowledge)
- A casual conversation between two people (This is a text type)
- Negation of adjectives (This is a grammatical structure)
A: A casual conversation between two people

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Using an electronic bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
- Awareness of what kind of relationships and perceptions that people hold between the people from the south of Ireland and the north of Ireland. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
- Past continuous verbs (This is a grammatical structure)
- Expressing opinions (This is a language function.)
- An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes. (This is a text type)
A: An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Submit your essay to the assignment dropbox. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Create a word document on a computer (This is a skill.)
- A menu (This is a text or discourse type)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- In the long run. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
A: Requesting information

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- I really appreciate your helping me with this. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Knowing when to pay a compliment. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A job interview. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Asking for clarification. (This is a language function.)
- Holding a pen (This is a skill.)
A: Asking for clarification.

Q: Which of the following is text or discourse type?
- Being aware of the laws around smoking in public places. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Smoking is allowed (This is a grammatical structure)
- Obtaining information on recent social issues from news articles. (This is a language function)
- ban, allowed, permitted, illegal (These are vocabulary items)
- A anti-smoking brochure (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: A anti-smoking brochure

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I really appreciate your helping me with this. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Knowing when to pay a compliment. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A popular children's story or a fable. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Giving advice. (This is a language function.)
- increase, decrease, improve, worsen (These are vocabulary items.)
A: I really appreciate your helping me with this.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I’m having my hair cut tomorrow (This is a grammatical structure.)
- please, thank you (These are vocabulary items.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Advising someone about a healthy lifestyle. (This is a language function.)
- Sometimes the final consonant in a word is deleted when 3 or more consonants are pronounced together. E.g. Sorry, I didn’t get that. She phoned me and told me to come. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: I’m having my hair cut tomorrow

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Understanding the structure and purpose of a job interview. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- assessment criteria, references, referees, resume, cv. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A job interview. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Present information about yourself at a job interview. (This is a skill.)
- I'm thinking of changing jobs. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Present information about yourself at a job interview.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Using intonation when disagreeing that indicates politeness (This is related to pronunciation)
- A consultation with a doctor (This is a text type)
- diagnosis, treatment (These are vocabulary items.)
- I'm not very comfortable with that / I'd really rather not have to do that / Is there an alternative to that? (These are grammatical structures)
- Understanding that it is OK to question a doctor's advice. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
A: A consultation with a doctor

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I really appreciate your helping me with this. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Knowing when to pay a compliment. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A popular children's story or a fable. (This is a text or discourse type)
- increase, decrease, improve, worsen (These are vocabulary items.)
- Giving advice. (This is a language function.)
A: I really appreciate your helping me with this.

Q: Which of the following is text or discourse type?
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
A: A text message.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- A milk bar doesn’t serve alcohol (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- An email to a work colleague (This is a text or discourse type)
A: Providing information

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Using a bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
- An adventure story. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- I’ve never driven a left-hand drive car. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Before leaving the house, Kim rang her parents. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Using a bilingual dictionary.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- settings, app’s, network, wireless. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A manual for a mobile phone. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- I phoned her. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Using a mobile phone. (This is a skill.)
- Awareness of costs associated with use of mobile phones. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Awareness of costs associated with use of mobile phones.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- The importance of excursion in Australian school programs (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge.)
- Please advise.... (This is a grammatical structure)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: A letter from a school to parents

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- I used to get up early (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Complaining about poor service. (This is a language function.)
- Reading a floor plan (This is a skill.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: Complaining about poor service.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Click on the link. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The website of a government department. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Use the internet to find information. (This is a skill.)
- You have to show your ticket to the inspector. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding which government department deals with migration issues. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Use the internet to find information.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Thanks very much / Thanks a lot. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Using the topic of the weather as small talk. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Recounting an event. (This is a language function.)
- Opening a book from right to left (This is a skill.)
A: Recounting an event.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Ordering food at a café or restaurant. (This is a language function.)
- A menu. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Place your orders at the counter. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Reading a menu. (This is a skill.)
A: Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- You’ve missed the deadline therefore we cannot accept your submission. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Write an academic essay.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
- An email to a work colleague (This is a text or discourse type)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- A milk bar doesn’t serve alcohol (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: Providing information

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Before leaving the house, Kim rang her parents. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- I’ve never driven a left-hand drive car. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Using a bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
- An adventure story. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Using a bilingual dictionary.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A telephone conversation between friends (This is a text or discourse type)
- Chatting about your weekend (This is a language function.)
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please?

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Click on the link. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The website of a government department. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Use the internet to find information. (This is a skill.)
- Understanding which government department deals with migration issues. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- You have to show your ticket to the inspector. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Use the internet to find information.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Chatting about recent events (This is a language function.)
- Knowing when it is OK to interrupt someone when they are speaking. (This is sujbect matter / cultural knowledge)
- A casual conversation between two people (This is a text type)
- Negation of adjectives (This is a grammatical structure)
- Intonation and stress when giving opinions to be more polite (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: A casual conversation between two people

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Instructions on how to use a microwave oven. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Bring to the boil. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Knowledge about customs around serving and consumption of alcohol. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Knowledge about customs around serving and consumption of alcohol.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- The importance of excursion in Australian school programs (This is a skill.)
- Please advise.... (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
A: Requesting information

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Train tickets can be bought at a newsagent (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A report about the repairs that are needed to house. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Asking for assistance (This is a language function.)
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Minimum payment due: $25

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- often, sometimes, rarely (These are vocabulary items.)
- I'm looking forward to my holidays (This is a grammatical structure)
- A magazine advice column. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
A: I'm looking forward to my holidays

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
A: Send a text message.

Q: Which of the following is text or discourse type?
- Being aware of the laws around smoking in public places. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Smoking is allowed (This is a grammatical structure)
- A anti-smoking brochure (This is a text or discourse type.)
- ban, allowed, permitted, illegal (These are vocabulary items)
- Obtaining information on recent social issues from news articles. (This is a language function)
A: A anti-smoking brochure

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Knowledge about customs around serving and consumption of alcohol. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Instructions on how to use a microwave oven. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Bring to the boil. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Knowledge about customs around serving and consumption of alcohol.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Understand the difference between a table of contents and an index. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Use a table of contents. (This is a skill.)
- They’re intelligent but lazy. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A table of contents. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Click on the link. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Understand the difference between a table of contents and an index.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
A: A weather report.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- I'm looking forward to my holidays (This is a grammatical structure)
- A magazine advice column. (This is a text or discourse type)
- often, sometimes, rarely (These are vocabulary items.)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
A: I'm looking forward to my holidays

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Understanding which government department deals with migration issues. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Click on the link. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The website of a government department. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Use the internet to find information. (This is a skill.)
- You have to show your ticket to the inspector. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Use the internet to find information.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Thanks very much / Thanks a lot. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Giving directions to a location. (This is a language function.)
- Being able to write from left to right (This is a skill.)
- Knowing whether it is appropriate to call someone by their first name or by their family name plus Mr, Ms, Dr etc. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: Thanks very much / Thanks a lot.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Asking for assistance (This is a language function.)
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Train tickets can be bought at a newsagent (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A report about the repairs that are needed to house. (This is a text or discourse type)
A: Minimum payment due: $25

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- A table of contents. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Use a table of contents. (This is a skill.)
- Click on the link. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- They’re intelligent but lazy. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understand the difference between a table of contents and an index. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understand the difference between a table of contents and an index.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
A: A weather report.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
- An email to a work colleague (This is a text or discourse type)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
- A milk bar doesn’t serve alcohol (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Providing information

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- It's dead easy. (No, this is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A conversation between two friends (No this is a text or discourse type)
- Making small talk (Yes, this is a language function.)
- Linking words E.g. He’s_eaten a lot_of junk food today. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Identifying signs and symbols (No, this is a skill.)
A: Making small talk

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients.

Q: Which of the following is text or discourse type?
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Let’s make it Saturday. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
A: A text message.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Ordering food at a café or restaurant. (This is a language function.)
- Reading a menu. (This is a skill.)
- Place your orders at the counter. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A menu. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Read a weather chart.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- There will be a bus to take you to the venue departing from the front of the conference centre. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Sensitivity to different religious observances. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list. (This is a skill.)
- It’s neither easy nor difficult. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Road signs. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Look up words in an alphabetically organised list.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Awareness of costs associated with use of mobile phones. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- settings, app’s, network, wireless. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Using a mobile phone. (This is a skill.)
- A manual for a mobile phone. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- I phoned her. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Awareness of costs associated with use of mobile phones.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Instructions on how to use a microwave oven. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Bring to the boil. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Awareness of different dietary requirements of people from different cultures. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Awareness of different dietary requirements of people from different cultures.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Using a bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
- An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes. (This is a text type)
- Expressing opinions (This is a language function.)
- Past continuous verbs (This is a grammatical structure)
- Awareness of what kind of relationships and perceptions that people hold between the people from the south of Ireland and the north of Ireland. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
A: An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes.

Q: Which of the following is text or discourse type?
- Obtaining information on recent social issues from news articles. (This is a language function)
- Being aware of the laws around smoking in public places. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Smoking is allowed (This is a grammatical structure)
- A anti-smoking brochure (This is a text or discourse type.)
- ban, allowed, permitted, illegal (These are vocabulary items)
A: A anti-smoking brochure

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Don't forget to ring me. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- He's off his head. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Buying a train ticket (This is a language function.)
- A bus timetable (This is a text or discourse type)
- The diphthong sound in the words: boy, toy oil, etc. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Don't forget to ring me.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: A recipe.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Before leaving the house, Kim rang her parents. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- An adventure story. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Using a bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- I’ve never driven a left-hand drive car. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Using a bilingual dictionary.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Understanding the structure and purpose of a job interview. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- assessment criteria, references, referees, resume, cv. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A job interview. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- I'm thinking of changing jobs. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Present information about yourself at a job interview. (This is a skill.)
A: Present information about yourself at a job interview.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- The importance of excursion in Australian school programs (This is cultural knowledge .)
- Please advise.... (This is a grammatical structure)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Asking for permission (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Asking for permission

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Create a word document on a computer (This is a skill.)
- In the long run. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A menu (This is a text or discourse type)
- Expressing doubt (This is a language function.)
- Producing words with adequate length in the vowel sounds (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Expressing doubt

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Send a text message.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- You’ve missed the deadline therefore we cannot accept your submission. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Write an academic essay.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
- Enter your personal details information in the first field then save. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Download and install software to a computer.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Awareness of the history of European settlement in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- I really don’t like the way that program is organised. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A posting in a blog about places to go to eat in Melbourne. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- I’d rather watch a movie than go to the party. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Use a keyboard. (This is a skill.)
A: Use a keyboard.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Using intonation when disagreeing that indicates politeness (This is related to pronunciation)
- diagnosis, treatment (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding that it is OK to question a doctor's advice. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
- A consultation with a doctor (This is a text type)
- I'm not very comfortable with that / I'd really rather not have to do that / Is there an alternative to that? (These are grammatical structures)
A: A consultation with a doctor

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- A casual conversation between two people (This is a text type)
- Negation of adjectives (This is a grammatical structure)
- Chatting about recent events (This is a language function.)
- Intonation and stress when giving opinions to be more polite (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Knowing when it is OK to interrupt someone when they are speaking. (This is sujbect matter / cultural knowledge)
A: A casual conversation between two people

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- Submit your essay to the assignment dropbox. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- He's a hard nut to crack. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A leaflet advertising short courses (This is a text or discourse type)
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- Linking consonants produces a new sound: e.g. Could___you? We get a dz sound when these words are said together. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
A: Offering help

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I used to get up early (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Interrupting a conversation. (This is a language function.)
- Typing (This is a skill.)
- A spoken interaction between an employee of a telphone company and and a customer. (This is a text or discourse type)
A: I used to get up early

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I'm looking forward to my holidays (This is a grammatical structure)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
- often, sometimes, rarely (These are vocabulary items.)
- A magazine advice column. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
A: I'm looking forward to my holidays

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
- You're getting ahead of yourself. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A poster advertising a community event (This is a text or discourse type)
- Expaining how to use cash register (This is a language function.)
- I'm playing tennis with Georgie on Saturday. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: I'm playing tennis with Georgie on Saturday.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A telephone conversation with a service provider (This is a text or discourse type)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Could you tell me how to get to X, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Providing information

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- I used to get up early (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Complaining about poor service. (This is a language function.)
- Reading a floor plan (This is a skill.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: Complaining about poor service.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A telephone conversation between friends (This is a text or discourse type)
- Chatting about your weekend (This is a language function.)
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please?

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Persuading someone to do something. (This is a language function)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- I am writing to let you know .... (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list (This is a skill.)
A: I am writing to let you know ....

Select a national sport league. Provide an example of each of the P.E.S.T. (political, economic, social-cultural, technological) external forces and describe the impact each of these has upon your chosen league.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia.

Porter's Five Forces analysis argues that the threat of a new entrant into the marketplace can impact an organisation's profit potential. By using one of the examples discussed in the lecture, explain why this is the case.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
- A telephone conversation between friends (This is a text or discourse type)
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Providing information

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Linking words E.g. He’s_eaten a lot_of junk food today. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Making small talk (Yes, this is a language function.)
- A conversation between two friends (No this is a text or discourse type)
- It's dead easy. (No, this is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Identifying signs and symbols (No, this is a skill.)
A: Making small talk

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Being able to write from left to right (This is a skill.)
- Giving directions to a location. (This is a language function.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Knowing whether it is appropriate to call someone by their first name or by their family name plus Mr, Ms, Dr etc. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Thanks very much / Thanks a lot. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Thanks very much / Thanks a lot.

In 2006, Reebok launched a new line of Weebok products, its children’s fashion footwear collection. According to the company’s press release, the new line is “guaranteed to put a spring in kids steps, Weebok is centered around simply letting ‘kids be kids’.”

Reebok clearly considers this market to be worth the investment; however, what questions would their competitors need to ask to determine that children would be an appropriate market to target?

Q: The highest maximal oxygen consumption possible for a given individual is usually measured during a maximal arm ergometer test.
- true
- false
A: false

Which consumers do you believe NASCAR was ultimately trying to capture?

Q: Which of the following is text or discourse type?
- ban, allowed, permitted, illegal (These are vocabulary items)
- Obtaining information on recent social issues from news articles. (This is a language function)
- A anti-smoking brochure (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Smoking is allowed (This is a grammatical structure)
- Being aware of the laws around smoking in public places. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: A anti-smoking brochure

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- I’d rather watch a movie than go to the party. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Use a keyboard. (This is a skill.)
- A posting in a blog about places to go to eat in Melbourne. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- I really don’t like the way that program is organised. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Awareness of the history of European settlement in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Use a keyboard.

Q: Select the correct statement
- All of the content in ABI/Inform Global and Expanded Academic ASAP is available in full text
- Much of the content in ABI/Inform Global and Expanded Academic ASAP is available in full text
A: Much of the content in ABI/Inform Global and Expanded Academic ASAP is available in full text

Q: Expanded Academic ASAP contains a limit option that will restrict your results to articles from peer reviewed publications only.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Opportunity costs:
- Are the combined benefits of all alternatives other than the one selected
- Are the costs associated with the selected alternative
- Are the foregone benefits of the next best alternative
- Are irrelevant
A: Are the foregone benefits of the next best alternative

Q: Standard costs are used in which of the following phases of the management process?
- None of the above
- organising
- control
- planning
A: control; planning

Q: The issuance of common stock in exchange for a patent would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Noncash investing and financing activities
- Financing activities
- Operating activities
- Investing activities
A: Financing activities

Q: Financial statement users express financial statement data in _______________format to _____________the making of __________________judgements and decisions.
- ratio, facilitate, informed.
- financial, impede, investment.
- percentage, elicit, administrative.
- trend, encourage, management's.
A: ratio, facilitate, informed.

Q: Once standard costs for products or services have been developed:
- performance reports must be issued if the standards are to be useful
- they need not be revised unless the product or service is modified
- they can be used for more than planning and control purposes
- they must be updated monthly to be useful
A: they can be used for more than planning and control purposes

Q: Short-term decision making differs from long-term decision making because:
- Short-term decision making assumes the accounting data is fixed
- Short-term decision making assumes selling prices are fixed
- Short-term decision making assumes that variable costs are fixed
- Short-term decision making assumes capacity is fixed
A: Short-term decision making assumes capacity is fixed

Q: Why is it important that users know which accounting method (eg FIFO versus weighted average cost for inventory) has been used in the financial statements being analysed?
- because this will enable the reader to make more money on the investment.
- because this helps to eliminate distortions caused by sales mix changes.
- because the results depend on the type of inventory used in the business.
- because alternative accounting methods affect financial data differently.
A: because alternative accounting methods affect financial data differently.

Q: The concept of a standard cost used for planning and control purposes is most like a:
- measure of historical performance.
- measure of maximum efficiency.
- unit budget
- measure of ideal performance
A: unit budget

Q: The change in total revenue, if one alternative is implemented instead of another is referred to as:
- Incremental revenue
- Operating revenue
- Sales revenue
- Joint revenue
A: Incremental revenue

Q: A potential creditor's judgment about granting credit would be most influenced by the potential customer's:
- practice with respect to taking cash discounts offered by current suppliers.
- trend of acid-test ratio over the past three years.
- most recent acid-test ratio.
- current ratio at the end of the prior fiscal year.
A: practice with respect to taking cash discounts offered by current suppliers.

Q: Contribution Margin is defined as:
- Sales less variable cost and mixed cost
- Sales less fixed cost
- Selling price less operating expenses
- Selling price less variable cost
A: Selling price less variable cost

Q: _____________costs remain constant as activity changes; _________________costs change in ____________________as activity changes.
- variable, fixed, assumptions.
- fixed, variable, total.
- semi-variable, fixed, total.
- variable, fixed, total.
A: fixed, variable, total.

Q: Which of the following generates the contribution margin?
- Fixed cost per unit - Selling price per unit
- Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit
- Selling price per unit - fixed cost per unit
- Variable cost per unit - fixed cost per unit
A: Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit

Q: Asset turnover calculations:
- should be evaluated by observing the turnover trend over a period of time.
- communicate information about how promptly the entity pays its bills.
- are made by dividing sales for the year by the asset balance at the end of the year.
- are made by dividing the average asset balance during the year by the sales for the year.
A: should be evaluated by observing the turnover trend over a period of time.

Q: The 'preferred dividend coverage' ratio is:
- None of the above.
- the percentage change in dividends this year compared to last year.
- margin of safety of the preference dividend.
- net profit divided by preferred dividend required
A: net profit divided by preferred dividend required

Q: H Ltd's records show that on average in any particular month, cash sales represent 30% of monthly sales and credit sales represent the remaining 70% of monthly sales.

The records also show that 60% of credit sales are received in the first month following the sale, 38% of credit sales are received in the second month following the sale and 2% are written off as uncollectible. From the date of sale, 100% of monthly cash sales will be:
- will not be collected.
- collected within 2 months.
- collected within 1 month.
- collected immediately.
A: collected immediately.

Q: During 2008, cash payments for wages totaled $954,500, while wages payable decreased by $67,800. Wages expense reported on the income statement equaled:
- $1,090,100
- $1,022,300
- $886,700
- $818,900
A: $886,700

Q: The purchasing agent of an organisation acquired some raw materials at a bargain price, even

though she knew that their quality was lower than that of the materials usually used. This

action resulted in a favourable raw materials purchase price variance that might very well

have been more than offset by:
- an unfavourable direct labour rate variance
- an unfavourable variable overhead spending variance
- a favourable direct labour efficiency variance
- an unfavourable raw materials usage variance
A: an unfavourable raw materials usage variance

Q: The point where the total revenue line intersects the total cost line is called the:
- Y axis intercept
- X axis intercept
- Breakeven point
- Origin
A: Breakeven point

Q: An individual interested in making a judgment about the profitability of a company should:
- review the trend of working capital for several years.
- compare the company's ROA for the most recent year with the industry average ROA for the most recent year.
- review the trend of the company's ROA for several years.
- calculate the company's ROA for the most recent year.
A: review the trend of the company's ROA for several years.

Q: The rule for making sound economic decisions is that one should choose the alternative with the
- Highest revenue
- Lowest sunk costs
- Lowest opportunity cost
- Highest contribution margin
A: Highest contribution margin

Q: ______________costs are costs that have been incurred and cannot be _____________by some ____________action.
- sunk, reversed, future.
- sunk, reversed, past.
- prime, un-primed, past.
- opportunity, followed, future.
A: sunk, reversed, future.

Q: Which of the following is/are an example(s) of a measure of leverage?
- All of the above.
- debt/equity ratio
- debt payout ratio
- debt yield
A: debt/equity ratio

Q: An interested investor would most likely compare a firm's 'dividend yield' to which of the following items to determine the extent to which their investment objectives were being met?
- the yield available on alternative investments with comparable risk.
- the firm's prospects of continuing to have enough earnings to cover interest expense, even if the firm suffers a decline in demand.
- the dividend payout ratio.
- EBIT.
A: the yield available on alternative investments with comparable risk.

Q: An entity's current ratio will be influenced by:
- writing off an overdue account receivable against the allowance for uncollectible accounts.
- issuance of a share dividend.
- the depreciation method used.
- the inventory cost flow assumption used.
A: the inventory cost flow assumption used.

Q: The purpose of a common size statement is:
- All of the above.
- to express balance sheet and income statement in a percentage format.
- to compare the operating results of a company over a number years.
- to evaluate the operating results of a company over a number years.
A: All of the above.

Q: A common size income statement:
- is useful in estimating the impact of inflation.
- makes comparisons between years more difficult.
- expresses items as a percentage of revenues.
- uses the same dollar amount of revenues for each year.
A: expresses items as a percentage of revenues.

Q: In the __________________a firm's _________________constraints may force a decision about which product(s) should be ____________________next.
- entity, insurance, sold.
- factory, contribution margin, fixed.
- long-term, capacity, sold.
- short-term, capacity, produced.
A: short-term, capacity, produced.

Q: While it is true that the lower the volume of inventory that is maintained relative to sales the greater the return on sales will be, maintaining the inventory volume too low may result in:
- the liquidity of the firm being affected in a negative manner.
- more cash needing to be borrowed for prompt payment of liabilities.
- the comparability between companies being affected adversely.
- lost sales and/or customers.
A: lost sales and/or customers.

Q: Which of the following is the last budgeted financial statement to be prepared?
- It doesn't matter which one is prepared last.
- cash budget
- budgeted balance sheet
- budgeted income statement
A: budgeted balance sheet

Q: The production budget uses all of the following EXCEPT:
- the cash receipts budget.
- the sales forecast.
- the inventory policy.
- the beginning inventory quantity.
A: the cash receipts budget.

Q: Leverage is:
- All of the above.
- use of debt to finance the assets of an entity.
- also known as gearing.
- financial leverage measure.
A: All of the above.

Q: When a corporation has both ordinary shares and preference shares outstanding:
- dividends on preference shares are paid only if dividends are to be paid on the ordinary shares.
- preference shareholders receive the same dividend per share as ordinary shareholders.
- dividends on preference shares must be paid before dividends on ordinary shares can be paid.
- dividends on preference shares are paid only if the company has current earnings.
A: dividends on preference shares must be paid before dividends on ordinary shares can be paid.

Q: Break even point is where total sales revenue is equal to:
- total fixed and variable costs and profits.
- total fixed and variable costs.
- total variable costs.
- total fixed costs.
A: total fixed and variable costs.

Q: Cash flows resulting from a company's normal earnings process are reported on the statement of cash flows in the:
- Noncash investing and financing activities section
- Investing activities section
- Financing activities section
- Operating activities section
A: Operating activities section

Q: The beginning balance in accounts receivable is $8,000. Sales during the period equaled $15,000. The ending balance in accounts receivable equals $2,000. What was the cash received from customers?
- $21,000
- $15,000
- $8,000
- $7,000
A: $21,000

Q: Standards are likely to be most useful when expressed in:
- dollars per unit of input to the manufacturing process
- terms easily related to by the individual whose performance is being evaluated
- total costs for the accounting period for the department being evaluated
- quantities per unit of output from the process being evaluated
A: terms easily related to by the individual whose performance is being evaluated

Q: Fixed costs classified according to the time frame perspective are known as:
- product costs and period costs
- committed costs and discretionary costs
- constant and inconsistent costs
- direct costs and indirect costs
A: committed costs and discretionary costs

Q: The budgeting process most likely to create an attitude supportive of achieving the

organisation's goals is the:
- participative approach.
- zero based approach.
- top-down approach.
- proportionate increase approach.
A: participative approach.

Q: Cash flows from operating activities include
- All of the above
- Cash receipts from issuing common stock
- Cash receipts from the sale of operating assets
- Cash receipts and collections from sales of products
A: Cash receipts and collections from sales of products

Q: If accounts receivable increased during the period, cash received from customers would be equal to
- Unable to determine from the information given
- Sales minus the increase in accounts receivable
- Sales plus the increase in accounts receivable
- The change in accounts receivable
A: Sales minus the increase in accounts receivable

Q: The salary of an executive who decides to quit her job and return to school full time is a [Image: no]:
- Incremental revenue
- Opportunity cost
- Incremental cost
- Sunk cost
A: Opportunity cost

Q: Sales totaled $385,000, net accounts receivable had a beginning and ending balance of $39,000 and $45,500, respectively and customer deposits had a beginning and ending balance of $21,000 and $32,500, respectively. Cash collections from customers were:
- $403,000
- $390,000
- $385,000
- $367,000
A: $390,000

Q: A comparison between a company and its industry based on a single observation may not be very meaningful because:
- consistency in financial reporting and in defining the ratio is crucial.
- internal consistency will permit useful comparisons.
- the company may use an alternative financial accounting method that is different from that used by the rest of the industry.
- most industry and trade associations publish industry averages based on aggregated data from industry members.
A: the company may use an alternative financial accounting method that is different from that used by the rest of the industry.

Q: The principal objective of a performance report is to:
- highlight budgets that have been incorrectly established
- provide a basis for rewarding effective managers
- direct blame to those managers who did not meet goals
- highlight activities that need management attention
A: highlight activities that need management attention

Q: The conversion of preferred stock into common stock would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Noncash investing and financing activities
- Financing activities
- Operating activities
- Investing activities
A: Noncash investing and financing activities

Q: When a total fixed cost is expressed on a 'per unit' basis it:
- doesn't alter.
- changes inversely.
- becomes semi-variable in nature.
- remains fixed.
A: changes inversely.

Q: Another term for the price/earnings ratio is:
- earnings multiple.
- profit ratio.
- sales multiple.
- cost ratio.
A: earnings multiple.

Q: A performance report for direct labour shows a variance between the budget and actual

amounts. This difference is a:
- budget variance
- direct labour rate variance
- direct labour spending variance
- direct labour efficiency variance
A: budget variance

Q: Which one of the following is not a leverage measure?
- current ratio
- debt/equity ratio
- equity ratio
- debt ratio
A: current ratio

Q: Which of the following is a correct statement?
- Inventory turnover focuses on the efficiency of the firm's inventory management practices.
- All of the above.
- Inventory turnover reflects management's ability to control inventories relative to sales.
- Accounts receivable reflects the efficiency of the firm's collection policies relative to its credit terms.
A: All of the above.

Q: True Fruit, Inc. sells frozen raspberry fruit bars for $2.50 each. The variable cost per bar is $1.35. Total fixed costs are $25,645. The breakeven point in units is:
- 25,260
- 22,300
- 18,996
- 10,258
A: 22,300

Q: Nowlin & Rudder is a manufacturer of sports equipment. It has been approached by a large European retailer about the possibility of producing a special order of tennis rackets. Under which of the following conditions should Nowlin & Rudder accept this offer?
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the incremental cost of the special order
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the total variable cost of the special order
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the fixed cost related to of the special order
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order
A: The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the incremental cost of the special order

Q: Which following statement is not one of the three elements of the definition of income?
- if the cash is not expected to be received within a year, the revenue is usually measured by the present value of the amount expected to be received.
- the final outcome must include an increase in equity.
- the form of the transaction is an increase in assets or a decrease in liabilities.
- there must be a change in the resources of the business.
A: if the cash is not expected to be received within a year, the revenue is usually measured by the present value of the amount expected to be received.

Q: If it is to be most useful for control purposes, what variance should be reported to the

supervisor responsible for the number of pounds of corn syrup used in the manufacture of a

candy bar?
- Raw material usage variance, expressed in total pounds for the month.
- Raw material usage variance, expressed in total pounds for the week
- Raw material usage variance, expressed as a total cost for the month
- Raw material price variance, expressed in cents per pound.
A: Raw material usage variance, expressed in total pounds for the week

Q: A favourable materials quantity variance would occur if:
- actual pounds of materials used was greater than the standard pounds allowed
- actual labour hours used was greater than the standard labour hours allowed
- actual pounds of materials used was less than the standard pounds allowed
- more material is purchased than is used.
A: actual pounds of materials used was less than the standard pounds allowed

Q: The three categories of cash flows to be reported in the cash flow statement are:
- receipts, investing, financing.
- investing, financing, operating.
- income, investing, financing.
- operating, investing, dividends.
A: investing, financing, operating.

Q: Cameron Company is considering discontinuing production of one of its products and buying the product instead. Which of the following would not be relevant to this decision?
- Sales price
- Product quality
- Incremental costs
- Opportunity costs
A: Sales price

Q: When a business such as a magazine publisher receives a cash payment at the beginning of a subscription period, the cash is initially recognised as:
- a liability.
- a cash flow.
- revenue.
- income.
A: a liability.

Q: When analyzing the incremental costs used to help make a short-term operating decision:
- Incremental revenues are irrelevant
- Both fixed costs and variable costs are relevant
- Variable costs are irrelevant
- Fixed costs are irrelevant
A: Fixed costs are irrelevant

Q: The cash budget is especially important to a firm when:
- it has a relatively large amount of operating cash.
- it may have to negotiate a short-term bank loan.
- the P/E ratio has been trending downwards.
- there is not a lot of confidence in the sales forecast.
A: it may have to negotiate a short-term bank loan.

Q: Payments to employees would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Noncash investing and financing activities
- Financing activities
- Operating activities
- Investing activities
A: Operating activities

Q: For performance reports to be most effective for management by exception, they should:
- show all of the costs associated with the responsibility centre being reported about
- be issued as soon after the activity or period covered as possible
- be held until the financial statements for the month have been issued.
- be issued at the same time for all responsibility centres
A: be issued as soon after the activity or period covered as possible

Q: Move's travel budget for October was $720, based on her plan to drive 3 000 miles at a cost

of $0.24 per mile. During October, she actually drove 2 800 miles at a total cost of $700. A

flexed budget performance report would show a variance of:
- $30 U
- $28 U
- $20 F
- $50 F
A: $28 U

Q: Payment of cash for interest is considered which of the following in the statement of cash flows?
- Investing
- Financing
- Operating
- B and C
A: Operating

Q: To assess a company's ability to meet its obligations and pay dividends, the _________ activities section would be analyzed.
- Both a and b are correct
- Operating
- Financing
- Investing
A: Operating

Q: Which of the following would not be an investing activity?
- Collection of interest on held-to-maturity securities
- Disposal of plant assets
- Making and collecting loans
- Purchase of available for-sale-securities
A: Collection of interest on held-to-maturity securities

Q: The breakeven point is the point at which:
- The total cost line intersects the X axis
- The total revenue line intersects the Y axis
- Total fixed costs equal total variable costs
- Total contribution margin equals total fixed costs
A: Total contribution margin equals total fixed costs

Q: Working capital can be described as:
- a more conservative short-term measure of liquidity.
- the excess of a firm's current assets over its current liabilities.
- the amount of capital employed by a firm's management in using the resources of the firm.
- the excess of a firm's current liabilities over its assets.
A: the excess of a firm's current assets over its current liabilities.

Q: Inventory turnover is:
- None of the above.
- A and B.
- Sales divided by average inventory.
- cost of goods sold divided by average inventory.
A: A and B.

Q: Allegro Corporation had total profit of $90,000. Its breakeven point is 15,000 units and its contribution margin was $25 per unit. How many units did Allegro sell?
- Unable to determine from the information given
- 19,000
- 18,600
- 3,600
A: 18,600

Q: The kind of standard that is most useful for planning and control is:
- a past experience standard
- a negotiated standard
- an attainable standard.
- an ideal, or engineered, standard
A: an attainable standard.

Q: Book value per share of ordinary shares of a manufacturing company:
- is the same as the total balance sheet asset value per share of ordinary shares.
- reflects the fair market value of the company's shares.
- is calculated by dividing market value per share by earnings per share.
- is not a very useful measure most of the time.
A: is not a very useful measure most of the time.

Q: Cash received on interest earned on an investment bonds is reported included in the
- Investing and operating section
- Investing section
- Operating section
- Financing section
A: Operating section

Q: The beginning balance in accounts receivable is $8,000. Sales during the period equaled $15,000. What was the cash received from customers?
- None of the above
- $15,000
- $8,000
- $7,000
A: None of the above

Q: Bug-Ez Corporation manufactures one product, Itch-A-Way, which, when applied to a bug bite, soothes the itch. The unit contribution margin for Itch-A-Way is $4.20, while total fixed costs amount to $537,000. Given a selling price of $8.25 per unit and a target profit of $147,000, Bug-Ez must have total sales of:
- $1,343,578
- $683,999
- $709,334
- $1,054,821
A: $1,343,578

Q: Which of the following is incorrect about common size statements?
- Each owners' equity item is expressed as a percentage of total owners' equity.
- Each item of an income statement is expressed as percentage of gross profit.
- Each liability is expressed as a percentage of total liabilities.
- Each asset is expressed as a percentage of total assets.
A: Each item of an income statement is expressed as percentage of gross profit.

Q: The efficiency of asset management can be measured by:
- All of the above.
- inventory turnover.
- number of days' sales in inventory.
- number of days' sales in accounts receivable.
A: All of the above.

Q: Why is it not appropriate to use total assets as reported in a single year-end balance sheet in the denominator of both the return on assets and return on equity ratios?
- because the matching principle is not applied to ratios undergoing financial analysis by seasoned analysts.
- because this relates to the efficiency with which assets were used rather than their effectiveness.
- because profit was earned during the entire financial year so it should be related to the assets that were used during the (same) entire year.
- because the trend of ratios over a period of time is preferable to a single ratio at a single point in time.
A: because profit was earned during the entire financial year so it should be related to the assets that were used during the (same) entire year.

Q: The price/earnings ratio:
- is a measure of the relative expensiveness of a firm's ordinary shares.
- is calculated by dividing the earnings multiple by net profit.
- can be used to determine the cash dividend to be received during the year.
- does not usually change by more than 1.0 (e.g. 8.2 to 9.2) during the year.
A: is a measure of the relative expensiveness of a firm's ordinary shares.

Q: The key data element on which the entire budget is based is the:
- balance sheet forecast.
- cash budget.
- income statement budget.
- sales/revenue forecast.
A: sales/revenue forecast.

Q: Which of the following is a correct statement?
- Standard costs are not used in firms that perform repetitive processes.
- Budgets can stand-alone and should not be used in conjunction with a performance reporting system.
- Budgets can be prepared for a single period or for several periods.
- A discretionary cost cannot be adjusted in the short-run.
A: Budgets can be prepared for a single period or for several periods.

Q: Collections from customers would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Noncash investing and financing activities
- Financing activities
- Investing activities
- Operating activities
A: Operating activities

Q: Which of the following is the formula for the contribution margin ratio?
- Fixed cost per unit/selling price per unit
- Variable cost per unit/selling price per unit
- Selling price per unit - fixed cost per unit/selling price per unit
- Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit/selling price per unit
A: Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit/selling price per unit

Q: Which of the following is incorrect?
- The price/earnings ratio is market price of an ordinary share divided by earnings per share.
- None of the above.
- Dividend payout ratio is annual dividend per share divided by earnings per share.
- Dividend yield is market price per share divided by annual dividend per share.
A: Dividend yield is market price per share divided by annual dividend per share.

Q: Income includes ___________________, a ______________________flow concept, and _______________________, a ______________________flow concept.
- revenue, cash, profit, gross.
- profit, cash, revenue, net.
- revenue, gross, gains, net.
- revenue, net, gains, gross.
A: revenue, gross, gains, net.

Q: Cash inflow from the sale of Land would be reported in which of the following in the statement of cash flows?
- Both A and C
- Financing
- Investing
- Operating
A: Investing

Q: When a firm has financial leverage:
- the firm will always have a higher ROE than it would without leverage.
- risk is greater than if there isn't any leverage.
- ROA will usually be less than it would be without leverage.
- ROA will be greater than ROE.
A: risk is greater than if there isn't any leverage.

Q: The performance report usually reports variances which arise between activities that perform differently from expectations as:
- favourable or unfavourable.
- short-term or long-term.
- advantageous or disadvantageous.
- mitigating or augmented.
A: favourable or unfavourable.

Q: Ruddy company's breakeven point is $200,000 sales with a contribution margin ratio of 40%. How much are the company's fixed costs?
- $333,333 (rounded).
- $80,000.
- $200,000.
- $500,000.
A: $80,000.

Q: What should the decision rule be to determine what budget variances to investigate?
- Investigate all variances
- Investigate if the variance is significant.
- Investigate favourable variances only.
- Investigate unfavourable variances only.
A: Investigate if the variance is significant.

Q: Which of the following costs are included in the cost classification that is based on the time

frame perspective?
- committed cost and discretionary cost
- product cost and period cost
- direct cost and indirect cost
- variable cost and fixed cost
A: committed cost and discretionary cost

Q: All of the following represent sections of the statement of cash flows except:
- Controlling activities
- Operating activities
- Financing activities
- Investing activities
A: Controlling activities

Q: One simplifying cost-volume-profit _______________is that the cost behaviour pattern is _______________within the _____________, not __________________.
- fact, relevant, range, irrelevant.
- fact, curvilinear, relevant range, linear.
- assumption, drawn, graph, outside.
- assumption, linear, relevant range, curvilinear.
A: assumption, linear, relevant range, curvilinear.

Q: To assess a company's ability to generate positive future cash flows, the _________ activities section would be analyzed.
- Noncash investing and financing
- Operating
- Investing
- Financing
A: Operating

Q: The ________________is a measure of the amount of each dollar of sales that is available to cover operating ________________________ and ______________________, after covering the _____________________.
- profit, expenses, gross profit, cost of goods sold.
- profit, cost of goods sold, expenses, gross profit.
- cost of goods sold, profit, expenses, gross profit.
- gross profit, expenses, profit, cost of goods sold.
A: gross profit, expenses, profit, cost of goods sold.

Q: Leverage ratios focus on which aspect of an entity:
- its efficient use of assets.
- its use of debt.
- its profitability.
- its liquidity.
A: its use of debt.

Q: In Australia, the operating activities section of the cash flow statement must be reconciled to net profit according to which method?
- direct.
- operating.
- cash.
- indirect.
A: direct.

Q: Financial leverage:
- is a concept that does not apply to individuals.
- usually has no bearing on the risk associated with a company.
- arises because most borrowed funds have a variable interest rate.
- arises because most borrowed funds have a fixed interest rate.
A: arises because most borrowed funds have a fixed interest rate.

Q: If management wanted to increase the financial leverage of its firm, it would:
- try to increase its ROA by increasing asset turnover.
- raise additional capital by selling fixed interest rate long-term bonds.
- use excess cash to purchase preferred shares for the treasury.
- raise additional capital by selling ordinary shares.
A: raise additional capital by selling fixed interest rate long-term bonds.

Q: Cash payments made to acquire equipment would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Noncash investing and financing activities
- Financing activities
- Operating activities
- Investing activities
A: Investing activities

Q: When an income statement shows data for segments of the organisation, and data for each

segment is added together to get totals for the whole organisation:
- all expenses should be allocated to the segments.
- direct fixed expenses should be subtracted as one amount in the 'total' column
- only direct revenues and direct expenses should be assigned to segments
- common fixed expenses should be allocated to the segments.
A: only direct revenues and direct expenses should be assigned to segments

Q: Plant and equipment and turnover:
- None of the above.
- is calculated by dividing market value per share by earnings per share
- is average plant and equipment, divided by sales.
- is sales divided by average plant and equipment.
A: is sales divided by average plant and equipment.

Q: All of the following are primary purposes of the statement of cash flows except:
- To assess both the cash and noncash aspects of the entity's investing and financing transactions during the period
- To assess the reasons for differences between income and associated cash receipts and payments
- To assess management's success in limiting the income taxes paid to the federal government
- To assess the entity's ability to generate positive future net cash flows
A: To assess management's success in limiting the income taxes paid to the federal government

Q: The operating budget includes:
- All of the above
- the balance sheet budget
- the income statement budget
- the cash budget.
A: All of the above

Q: The change in total cost, if one alternative is implemented instead of another is referred to as:
- Joint cost
- Changing cost
- Opportunity cost
- Incremental cost
A: Incremental cost

Q: Cash paid for interest on a note payable would be found in the ______ section of the cash flow statement.
- Both A and B
- Operating
- Financing
- Investing
A: Operating

Q: One of the ___________________of a ___________________inventory system is its ability to determine _______________when the item is ___________________.
- advantages, periodic, cost of goods sold, purchased.
- advantages, periodic, cost of goods sold, sold.
- advantages, perpetual, cost of goods sold, sold.
- advantages, perpetual, cost of goods sold, purchased.
A: advantages, perpetual, cost of goods sold, sold.

Q: The best reason for flexing a budget is to:
- recognise the cost behaviour pattern of budgeted amounts
- adjust actual results so they are closer to budgeted amounts
- revise a budget at the beginning of a period.
- permit a more accurate determination of variances.
A: permit a more accurate determination of variances.

Q: Management's use of resources can best be evaluated by focusing on measures of:
- book value.
- leverage.
- activity.
- liquidity.
A: activity.

Q: The most significant non-cash ____________________item is usually the _______________of the ____________________and the ______________________expenses.
- income statement, total, depreciation, amortisation.
- income statement, subtraction, bad debts, doubtful debts.
- cash flow statement, multiplication, accrued, deferred.
- balance sheet, division, depreciation, amortisation.
A: income statement, total, depreciation, amortisation.

Q: If accounts payable increased, cash paid for inventory would be equal to
- Purchases plus the accounts payable increase
- Purchases minus the accounts payable increase
- Ending inventory plus the accounts payable increase
- Ending inventory minus the accounts payable increase
A: Purchases minus the accounts payable increase

Q: Operating expenses are best budgeted on the basis of knowledge about:
- current period budget amounts.
- prior period actual expenses.
- relevant range.
- cost behaviour patterns.
A: cost behaviour patterns.

Q: Which of the following is not a category of financial statement ratios?
- prospectus
- profitability
- liquidity
- financial leverage
A: prospectus

Q: True Fruit, Inc. sells frozen raspberry fruit bars for $2.50 each. The variable cost per bar is $1.35. Total fixed costs are $25,645. The contribution margin ratio is:
- 0.46
- 0.22
- 0.54
- 0.19
A: 0.46

Q: If a short-term bank loan were repaid just before the balance sheet date which of the following would change:
- the quick ratio.
- the current ratio.
- the acid test.
- working capital.
A: working capital.

Q: Why is 'earnings before interest and tax' (EBIT) used in the return on assets calculation in preference to profit after tax?
- because EBIT provides the total return to all providers of finance without the complication of tax and can be shown as 'Profit from continuing operations' on the income statement.
- because to exclude additional items such as depreciation and amortisation would be inconsistent.
- because profit was earned during the entire financial year not at a single point in time.
- because EBIT provides the link between the income statement and the balance sheet.
A: because EBIT provides the total return to all providers of finance without the complication of tax and can be shown as 'Profit from continuing operations' on the income statement.

Q: Cash payments for dividends would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Financing activities
- Operating activities
- Noncash investing and financing activities
- Investing activities
A: Financing activities

Q: Which of the following is correct?
- All of the above.
- The equity ratio is equity divided by total liabilities and owners' equity.
- The debt/equity ratio is total liabilities divided by total owners' equity.
- The debt ratio is liabilities divided by total liabilities and owners' equity.
A: All of the above.

Q: A leverage buyout is when:
- one firm pays cash for the shares of a takeover firm's shares.
- a firms goes heavily into debt in order to obtain the funds to purchase the shares of the public shareholders.
- one firm trades its shares for the shares of another firm.
- one firm issues shares to take over another firm.
A: a firms goes heavily into debt in order to obtain the funds to purchase the shares of the public shareholders.

Q: Which one of the following is not a discretionary cost?
- internships for university students
- photocopier upgrades
- salaries of senior management
- company's netball team
A: salaries of senior management

Q: Times interest earned is:
- earnings before interest and taxes divided by interest expense.
- earnings after interest and taxes divided by interest expense.
- a measure of the firm's ability to earn enough to cover its annual interest requirements.
- A and C.
A: A and C.

Q: Cash collections from customers during 2008 were $468,500, while net accounts receivable decreased $14,250. Sales reported on the income statement were:
- $497,000
- $482,750
- $454,250
- $440,000
A: $454,250

Q: The term transfer price refers to:
- The price at which a product or service is sold by a segment to an outside party
- The price at which a product or service is sold by one segment to another related segment
- The price at which a product or service is sold to a government entity.
- None of the above
A: The price at which a product or service is sold by one segment to another related segment

Q: Which of the following group of users would be more likely to have a specific interest in a firm's 'times interest earned ratio'?
- holders of the firm's long-term debt.
- ordinary shareholders.
- non-management shareholders.
- financial market analysts.
A: holders of the firm's long-term debt.

Q: A higher P/E ratio means that:
- investors are wary of the shares.
- the shares are relatively expensive.
- the shares are more reasonably priced.
- earnings are expected to decrease.
A: the shares are relatively expensive.

Q: Cash flows for financing activities do not include
- Receipt of dividends
- Payment of dividends
- Proceeds from issuing bonds
- Proceeds from issuing shares
A: Receipt of dividends

Q: Cash flows for investing activities include payments
- For interest
- To employees
- For dividends
- To purchase operating assets
A: To purchase operating assets

Q: Short-term operating decisions:
- Are usually routine decisions which are not unique to any particular situation
- Arise during the evaluating phase of the management cycle
- Arise during the planning phase of the management cycle
- Assume current capacity is fixed
A: Assume current capacity is fixed

Q: The inventory turnover calculation:
- is an alternative way of expressing the number of days' sales in inventory.
- requires knowledge of the inventory cost flow assumption being used.
- is wrong unless sales is used in the numerator.
- is wrong unless cost of goods sold is used in the numerator.
A: is an alternative way of expressing the number of days' sales in inventory.

Q: Developing a standard cost for a product or service will usually involve:
- concentrating on historical costs and performance levels
- the same kind of communication involved in the overall budgeting process.
- focusing only on variable costs.
- efforts of cost accounting personnel only.
A: the same kind of communication involved in the overall budgeting process.

Q: Which one of the following is not a liquidity measure?
- working capital
- asset turnover
- quick ratio
- current ratio
A: asset turnover

Q: Selling price less variable costs equals:
- Contribution margin
- Gross margin
- Markup
- Net income
A: Contribution margin

Q: The contribution margin ratio is calculated as:
- Contribution margin per unit/selling price per unit
- Total fixed cost/contribution margin per unit
- Selling price per unit/variable cost per unit
- Variable cost per unit/fixed cost per unit
A: Contribution margin per unit/selling price per unit

Q: Which of the following costs are included in the cost classification that is based on the

relationship between total cost and volume of activity?
- committed cost and discretionary cost
- product cost and period cost
- direct cost and indirect cost
- variable cost and fixed cost
A: variable cost and fixed cost

Q: When income is related to the use of assets over a period of time, such as the renting of property or the lending of money, income is recognised:
- in advance.
- at the beginning.
- at the end.
- as time passes.
A: as time passes.

Q: Standards are most appropriately used to:
- support the planning and control processes of the firm
- calculate the unit cost of a product or service.
- penalise workers and managers who do not meet them.
- reward workers and managers who meet them.
A: support the planning and control processes of the firm

Q: A principal characteristic that makes management accounting different from financial accounting is:
- the emphasis placed on the future.
- to be found in providing performance feedback
- how accountable management is if the entity under-performs compared with budget.
- identifying the entity's goals and measuring the degree to which they have been achieved.
A: the emphasis placed on the future.

Q: Expenditures associated with items already purchased, that are irrelevant to future decisions are called:
- Joint costs
- Sunk costs
- Incremental costs
- Opportunity costs
A: Sunk costs

Q: If they are to be useful to managers, variances should be reported:
- in physical terms and dollar amounts if the variance exceeds 10% of the budget
- in physical terms or dollar amounts as promptly as feasible
- in dollar amounts as soon as all costs are known
- simultaneously to all managers within a week after the end of the month
A: in physical terms or dollar amounts as promptly as feasible

Q: _________________can only be used _______________when ________________with something.
- decisions, occasionally, contrasted.
- trends, sparingly, combined.
- ratios, meaningfully, compared.
- formulas, intentionally, shared.
A: ratios, meaningfully, compared.

Q: Budgets are prepared in the following order:
- Budgeted income statement, sales forecast, purchases, operating expense, cash, budgeted balance sheet.
- Sales forecast, purchases, operating expense, budgeted income statement, cash, budgeted balance sheet
- Budgeted income statement, cash, budgeted balance sheet, sales forecast, purchases, operating expense
- Budgeted income statement, budgeted balance sheet, sales forecast, purchases, operating expense, cash
A: Sales forecast, purchases, operating expense, budgeted income statement, cash, budgeted balance sheet

Q: The dividend payout ratio describes:
- the proportion of earnings paid as dividends.
- dividends as a percentage of the price/earnings ratio.
- the percentage change in dividends this year compared to last year.
- the relationship of dividends per share to market price per share.
A: the proportion of earnings paid as dividends.

Q: Fly-By-Night Toy Co. sells its product for $10 each. Variable costs for last year are $6.50 per unit; fixed costs are $126,000 and sales amounted to 40,000 units. If fixed costs rise by 10%, selling price rises by 10% too but sales units remain at 40,000 items, calculate how much the company's new profit figure per year would become:
- $41,400.
- $95,954 (rounded).
- $1,400.
- $54,000.
A: $41,400.

Q: Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
- the operating (master) budget is the operating plan expressed in financial terms and is comprised of a number of other detailed budgets.
- the cost of goods sold budget summarises changes in the finished goods inventory account for a manufacturing firm.
- the sales forecast is the least challenging part of the budget to develop accurately.
- the key to every budget is the forecast of 'activity' that is expected during the budget period.
A: the sales forecast is the least challenging part of the budget to develop accurately.

Q: The comparison of activity measures of different companies is complicated by the fact that:
- the number of ordinary shares issued may be significantly different.
- only one of the companies may have preference shares outstanding.
- dollar amounts of assets may be significantly different.
- different inventory cost-flow assumptions may be used.
A: different inventory cost-flow assumptions may be used.

Q: Regardless of the inventory cost flow assumption used, inventories on the balance sheet are stated at:
- the lower of cost or market.
- replacement cost.
- realisable value.
- original cost.
A: the lower of cost or market.

Q: Long-lived, intangible assets such as leasehold improvements, patents and copyrights are all subject to:
- consolidation.
- depletion.
- amortisation.
- depreciation.
A: amortisation.

Q: Financial accounting is:
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
A: the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.

Q: The principle of full disclosure pertains to:
- the entity fully disclosing all necessary information to prevent a reasonably astute user of financial statements from being misled.
- the entity fully disclosing all necessary information to prevent all users of financial statements from being misled.
- the entity fully disclosing all proprietary information.
- the entity fully disclosing all client data.
A: the entity fully disclosing all necessary information to prevent a reasonably astute user of financial statements from being misled.

Q: Additional Contributed capital represents:
- the summation of the total amount invested by the owners and the par or stated value of the shares.
- distributions of earnings that have not been made to the owners.
- distributions of earnings that have been made to the owners.
- the difference between the total amounts invested by the owners and the par or stated value of the shares.
A: the difference between the total amounts invested by the owners and the par or stated value of the shares.

Q: If, in undertaking a bank reconciliation for an entity a bank error is discovered in the bank statement, the appropriate thing to do is:
- notify the bank and wait for the next period's bank statement to arrive to see if the error has been corrected, in which case there will be no need to adjust for the error.
- don't notify the bank unless it is a 'material' amount, as the reconciliation process will still work because both the entity and the bank's records will be out of balance equally by the amount of the error.
- notify the bank and check to ensure the bank has followed through and fixed the error, but continue to complete the reconciliation procedure allowing for the bank error.
- notify the bank and wait for the next period's bank statement to arrive to see if the error has been corrected, and then reconcile both sets of records for both accounting periods.
A: notify the bank and check to ensure the bank has followed through and fixed the error, but continue to complete the reconciliation procedure allowing for the bank error.

Q: The allowance for doubtful debts account is a ____________asset because it is reported as a _____________to the related asset in the ______________________________.
- non-current, deduction, balance sheet.
- current, contribution, income statement.
- contra, deduction, balance sheet.
- contra, contribution, income statement.
A: contra, deduction, balance sheet.

Q: The effect of an adjustment is:
- to record transactions not previously recorded.
- to close the books.
- to increase the accuracy of the financial statements.
- to correct an entry that was not in balance.
A: to increase the accuracy of the financial statements.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding loans receivables (N/R)?
- A loan is a less formal document than an account receivable.
- A loan is a more formal document than an account receivable.
- A N/R is always a current asset.
- A N/R is always a long-term asset.
A: A loan is a more formal document than an account receivable.

Q: Which of the following is not a principal form of business organisation?
- Sole proprietorship
- Corporation
- Limited unregistered business
- Partnership
A: Limited unregistered business

Q: Sage Inc. has 20 employees who each earn $100 per day and are paid every Thursday. The end of the accounting period is on a Wednesday. How much in wages should the firm accrue at the end of the period?
- $6 000
- $0
- $1 000
- $2 000
A: $6 000

Q: The cost of property, plant and equipment is transferred to ____________________over time through accounting ______________________.
- profit and loss, credits.
- expense, depreciation.
- depreciation, amortisation.
- amortisation, expenses.
A: expense, depreciation.

Q: The carrying value of a depreciable asset is:
- the difference between the asset's cost and depreciation expense.
- the difference between the asset's cost and accumulated depreciation.
- the amount for which the asset should be insured.
- the fair market value of the asset.
A: the difference between the asset's cost and accumulated depreciation.

Q: An informed user of accounting and financial data:
- means knowing how to use those data as information.
- is one who is qualified to use accounting and financial data.
- means knowing how to use that information as data.
- knows what financial and accounting data to make use of for commercial purposes.
A: means knowing how to use those data as information.

Q: The definition of current assets:
- applies to merchandisers as opposed to service providers.
- includes cash and other assets that are currently in the records, but not assets purchased in the future.
- includes inventory that is likely to be converted to cash or consumed within one year or within an operating cycle of the entity.
- includes inventory that is likely to be converted to cash or consumed within one year.
A: includes inventory that is likely to be converted to cash or consumed within one year or within an operating cycle of the entity.

Q: Auditing is:
- about developing specialty skills such as expertise in international tax law issues.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
A: the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).

Q: Leasehold is an example of which of the following types of assets?
- intangible asset
- goodwill
- property, plant & equipment
- current asset
A: intangible asset

Q: For which of the following reconciling items would an adjusting entry be necessary?
- a bank service charge
- an outstanding cheque
- an error by the bank
- a deposit in transit
A: a bank service charge

Q: In the horizontal model, the amount of expense is shown as _________ because expense reduces _________, which reduces _________.
- minus, net profit, owners' equity
- minus, owners' equity, net profit
- plus, owners' equity, net profit
- plus, net profit, owners' equity
A: minus, net profit, owners' equity

Q: Any ____________on the disposal of a depreciable asset is, in effect, a __________________of the total ______________________expense that has been ________________________over the life of the asset.

A. costs, reduction, original, recorded.
- gain/loss, correction, depreciation, recorded.
- damage, cost, expected, missed.
- correction, record, gain/loss, controlled.
- costs, reduction, original, recorded.
A: gain/loss, correction, depreciation, recorded.

Q: A firm receives $100, owed by its client for work performed in an earlier accounting period. The effect of this transaction will be to:
- decrease Accounts Payable by $100 and increase Cash by $100.
- increase Cash by $100 and decrease Accounts Receivable by $100.
- decrease Accounts Payable by $100 and decrease Cash by $100.
- decrease Cash by $10.
A: increase Cash by $100 and decrease Accounts Receivable by $100.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of an inventory account a manufacturing company might use?
- Raw materials inventory
- Inventory
- Finished goods inventory
- Work in process inventory
A: Inventory

Q: An organisation's system of internal control is designed primarily to:
- provide an operating framework for all employees as they work to achieve the organisation's goals.
- increase efficiency by letting one employee handle all aspects of a transaction from beginning to end.
- ensure that the organisation's balance sheet will always balance.
- ensure that no employees steal the organisation's property.
A: provide an operating framework for all employees as they work to achieve the organisation's goals.

Q: Current Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and auditing standards require the financial statements of an entity for the reporting period to include:
- earnings and gross receipts of cash for the period.
- current market values of all assets at the end of the period.
- financial position at the end of the period.
- projected earnings for the subsequent period.
A: financial position at the end of the period.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a transaction to be recorded in the accounting records of

an entity?
- Receipt of services from a 'quick-print' shop in exchange for the promise to provide advertising design services of equivalent value.
- Receipt of a plaque recognising the firm's encouragement of employee participation in the United Way fund drive.
- Sale of product to customers.
- Investment of cash by the owners.
A: Receipt of a plaque recognising the firm's encouragement of employee participation in the United Way fund drive.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 July 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-declining balance method.

What is the firm's gain or loss if the machinery is sold for $11 000 on 31 June 2006?
- Loss of $4 000
- Loss of $3 080
- Gain of $4 000
- Gain of $600
A: Loss of $3 080

Q: The Interest Receivable account for February showed transactions totalling $8 500 and an adjustment of $11 200. Which of the following is true?
- The balance in the interest receivable account decreased $2 700.
- The adjustment was probably for cash receipts of interest receivable accrued in prior months.
- The transactions were probably entered on the credit side of the account.
- The transactions probably resulted from accruing interest income earned.
A: The transactions were probably entered on the credit side of the account.

Q: Accounting transactions can be described as:
- economic exchanges between entities.
- the legal codification of a contract.
- the means of communication between and entity and outsiders.
- the end product of the financial accounting process.
A: economic exchanges between entities.

Q: Although approximate market value would be more relevant than original cost of non-current assets for decision-makers, original cost is defended due to its:
- pragmatism, irregularity and decision-making ability.
- variability, effectiveness and appropriateness.
- reliability, consistency and conservatism.
- subjective nature and practical application.
A: reliability, consistency and conservatism.

Q: The Statement of Cash Flows:
- shows the dividends that will be paid in the future.
- shows the change in the market value of the entity's ordinary shares during the period.
- is an optional financial statement.
- shows how cash changed during the period.
A: shows how cash changed during the period.

Q: Depreciation, in accounting, is a process that results in:
- spreading the cost of an asset over its useful life to the entity.
- an accurate measurement of the economic usefulness of an asset.
- accumulating cash for the replacement of the asset.
- depreciable assets being reported in the balance sheet at their fair market value.
A: spreading the cost of an asset over its useful life to the entity.

Q: The principal reason for converting a customer's account receivable to a loan receivable is:
- the customer is more likely to continue purchasing the company's products.
- the receivable is less likely to have to be written off as uncollectible.
- the loan receivable earns interest and the account receivable does not.
- working capital is immediately increased.
A: the loan receivable earns interest and the account receivable does not.

Q: Accounting standards have evolved as:
- a set of rules and regulations which display 'exactness' for the accounting domain.
- a set of standards with the objective of keeping the business entity's standards high.
- the result of an open or consultative procedure, known as 'due process'.
- the result of a process of being developed or set in a 'vacuum'.
A: the result of an open or consultative procedure, known as 'due process'.

Q: Which of the following inventory accounting systems has been made much more feasible as a result of computer systems developments?
- Just-in-time
- Perpetual
- Physical
- Periodic
A: Perpetual

Q: When an accelerated depreciation method is used to calculate depreciation expense:
- depreciation expense will be less in the early years of the asset's life than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- the accumulated depreciation account balance will increase by a larger amount in the last half of an asset's life than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- the net book value of the asset at the end of its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- the net book value of the asset halfway through its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.
A: the net book value of the asset halfway through its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.

Q: Which of the following is the correct balance sheet presentation for current assets?
- Cash equivalents, cash, other current assets, accounts receivable.
- Marketable securities, cash, loans receivable, prepaid expenses.
- Accounts receivable, inventories, prepaid expenses, other current assets.
- Cash, inventories, account receivables, prepaid expenses.
A: Accounts receivable, inventories, prepaid expenses, other current assets.

Q: The accrual of interest on short-term marketable securities results in:
- an increase in current liabilities and an increase in net profit.
- an increase in non-current assets and an increase in liabilities.
- an increase in current assets and an increase in net profit.
- an increase in current assets and a decrease in net profit.
A: an increase in current assets and an increase in net profit.

Q: The accounting concept or principle applied when the cost of short-term marketable securities is adjusted to market value is:
- consistency.
- matching revenue and expense.
- objectivity.
- original cost.
A: matching revenue and expense.

Q: A cash equivalent is a current asset that:
- is readily convertible into cash with a substantial risk.
- is readily convertible into cash with a minimal risk.
- will be converted to cash within one month.
- will be converted to cash within one year.
A: is readily convertible into cash with a minimal risk.

Q: If an organisation has an obligation to pay $5 000 to a supplier two years from now, the

present value of the obligation:
- could be calculated using an annuity factor from the present value tables.
- is $5 000.
- is less than $5 000.
- is more than $5 000.
A: is less than $5 000.

Q: It is not unusual for a company to use different depreciation methods for book and tax purposes. When this happens, the firm usually:
- is trying to minimise its book income.
- is trying to maximise its taxable income.
- uses an accelerated depreciation method for tax purposes.
- uses an accelerated depreciation method for book purposes.
A: uses an accelerated depreciation method for tax purposes.

Q: When a firm sells its land, the:
- difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the income statement of the period.
- difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the balance sheet.
- cost of the land will be reported in the income statement of the period.
- selling price of the land will be reported in the income statement of the period.
A: difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the income statement of the period.

Q: At the beginning of the year, paid-in capital was $82 and retained earnings were $47. During the year, the owners invested $24 and dividends of $6 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the end of the year were $52.

Net profit for the year was:
- $15
- $11
- $10
- $20
A: $11

Q: Retained Earnings represents:
- par value of ordinary shares outstanding.
- cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.
- cash that is available for dividends.
- the amount invested in the entity by the owners.
A: cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.

Q: Theoretically, if particular maintenance expenditure is expected to ___________the useful life of a non-current asset beyond that used in the original ____________calculation, the expenditure could be _______________.
- extend, depreciation, capitalised.
- depreciate, cost, accumulated.
- capitalise, depreciation, prolonged.
- shorten, purchase, expensed.
A: extend, depreciation, capitalised.

Q: Goodwill is an intangible asset. If a company is purchased at $100 000 and its fair market value is

$40 000 and it has loans payable of $20 000, the effect of this transaction on

financial statements is to:
- decrease liabilities by $20 000, increase assets by $100 000, decrease assets by $80 000
- decrease liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, decrease assets by $80 000
- decrease liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, increase assets by $80 000
- increase liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, increase assets by $80 000
A: increase liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, increase assets by $80 000

Q: An expanded version of the accounting equation could be:
- A = L + Contributed Capital - Rev + Exp
- A + Exp = L + Beginning Contributed Capital + Rev
- A - L = Contributed Capital - Rev - Exp
- A + Rev = L + OE - Exp
A: A + Exp = L + Beginning Contributed Capital + Rev

Q: The key to using the horizontal method is to keep the _________ in _________.

i. income statement

ii. balance sheet

iii. financial statements

iv. balance
- ii, iv
- i, iv
- ii, iii
- i, ii
A: ii, iv

Q: In the horizontal model, effect of revenues, expenses and dividends respectively:
- None of the above.
- decreases owners' equity, increases owners' equity, increases retained earnings.
- decreases owners' equity, increases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.
- increases owners' equity, decreases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.
A: increases owners' equity, decreases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.

Q: Which of the following statements best describes the process of accounting for depreciation?
- A process for recognising the cost of an asset that should be matched against revenue earned as a result of using the asset.
- A process for recognising all of the cost associated with using an asset in a revenue generating activity.
- A process for setting aside cash so funds will be available to replace the asset.
- A process that attempts to recognise loss in economic value over a period of time.
A: A process for recognising the cost of an asset that should be matched against revenue earned as a result of using the asset.

Q: The time frame associated with a balance sheet is:
- a function of the information included in it.
- a single date in the future.
- a one-year past period of time.
- a point in time in the past.
A: a point in time in the past.

Q: Transactions are summarised in _____________and accounts are further _________in the financial _________.
- contracts, recognised, transactions.
- transactions, disclosed, contracts.
- statements, summarised, accounts.
- accounts, summarised, statements.
A: accounts, summarised, statements.

Q: With respect to the write-off of an uncollectible account receivable against the allowance for bad debts, a sound system of internal control would require:
- the write-off to be made within six months after the date of sale.
- a lawsuit to be initiated to recover the uncollectible amount.
- an investigation of why credit was extended to this customer in the first place.
- the write-off to be approved by two employees.
A: the write-off to be approved by two employees.

Q: An _________________lease is an ordinary, frequently _____________________lease for the use of an asset that does not involve any attributes of _______________________.
- finance, long-term, control.
- finance, short-term, ownership.
- operating, short-term, ownership.
- operating, long-term, control.
A: operating, short-term, ownership.

Q: At the beginning of the year, paid-in capital was $82 and retained earnings were $47. During the year, the owners invested $24 and dividends of $6 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the end of the year were $52.

Total owners' equity at the end of the year was:
- $158
- $94
- $106
- $82
A: $158

Q: The sale of inventory on account would, in the seller's records:
- increase assets and increase expenses.
- increase assets and decrease revenues.
- increase assets and increase Contributed Capital.
- increase assets and decrease liabilities.
A: increase assets and increase expenses.

Q: Which of the following statements is false?
- the bookkeeping process is part of the accounting information system planned and supervised by accountants.
- the fact that some highly publicised incidents involving allegations that accountants have violated their code of conduct is true should be used to condemn all accountants' behaviour.
- an unqualified audit opinion does not alleviate the need for readers to make their own judgments about the financial health and security of investing in the firm being audited.
- allegations that accountants have violated their code of conduct have been used to reaffirm that the public and the profession expect accountants to exhibit a very high level of ethical behaviour.
A: the fact that some highly publicised incidents involving allegations that accountants have violated their code of conduct is true should be used to condemn all accountants' behaviour.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a term that describes part of the accounting for long-lived assets?
- depreciation
- amortisation
- depletion
- accumulation
A: accumulation

Q: A perceived disadvantage of the sole trader form of business organisation is:
- the unlimited nature of the owner's personal liability.
- the lack of formal requirements needed to start operations.
- the ease with which one can commence a business.
- being one's own boss.
A: the unlimited nature of the owner's personal liability.

Q: The entry to record depreciation expense:
- decreases a long-term asset and increases a contra long-term asset.
- decreases working capital and decreases net profit.
- decreases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.
- increases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.
A: increases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.

Q: The inventory cost flow assumption describes the flow of product cost:
- into the asset (inventory) account and out to the revenue (sales) account.
- into the revenue (sales) account and out to the expense (cost of goods sold account).
- into the asset (inventory) account and out to the expense (cost of goods sold account).
- from the warehouse to the customer.
A: into the asset (inventory) account and out to the expense (cost of goods sold account).

Q: Deferred tax assets:
- are less likely to be reported than deferred tax liabilities for most firms.
- arise when the company makes a prepayment of its income taxes.
- are always classified as current assets.
- represent a reduction in the income tax liability of a future year when an expense will become deductible for income tax purposes.
A: represent a reduction in the income tax liability of a future year when an expense will become deductible for income tax purposes.

Q: The principle of consistency means that:
- there are no alternative methods of accounting for the same transaction.
- the effect of any change in an accounting method will be disclosed in the financial statements or notes thereto.
- the same accounting methods are used by all firms in an industry.
- the accounting methods used by an entity never change.
A: the effect of any change in an accounting method will be disclosed in the financial statements or notes thereto.

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed NET ASSETS of $1 025 and liabilities of $225. Owners' equity on July 31 was:
- $1 250
- $1 025
- $225
- $800
A: $1 025

Q: A firm's 'financial year' refers to:
- the annual period used for reporting to owners, the government and others.
- the minimum period of time a firm may choose to finalise its books for internal reporting purposes.
- the business cycle of the firm.
- the period the firm chooses for its international affiliations.
A: the annual period used for reporting to owners, the government and others.

Q: The income statement is linked to the _________ through the _________ component of owners' equity.

i. balance sheet

ii. revenues

iii. expenses

iv. retained profits
- i and iv
- ii and iv
- i and ii
- i and iii
A: i and iv

Q: A concept or principle that relates to transactions is:
- consistency.
- original cost.
- materiality.
- matching of revenue and expense.
A: original cost.

Q: Which of the following statements would not usually be found in the terms and/or conditions of an overdraft facility obtained by a firm from its bank?
- the facility has a predetermined maximum amount, but the firm has flexibility in the timing and amount borrowed.
- the long-term loan has a flexible repayment date and no specific interest rate.
- a maturity date specifying when the loan is to be repaid.
- the balance should fluctuate, with the balance being positive at regular intervals during the year.
A: the long-term loan has a flexible repayment date and no specific interest rate.

Q: Martin & Associates borrowed $5 000 on 1 April 2003 at 8% interest with both principal and interest due on 31 March 2004. How much should be in the firm's interest payable account at 31 December 2003?
- $333
- $0
- $400
- $300
A: $300

Q: Ordinary shares normally have the following characteristics associated with them:
- residual claim to assets and profits of company, voting rights, limited liability.
- guaranteed dividends, less risk, pre-emptive rights.
- unlimited liability, no voting rights, unlimited claims on assets.
- debt-like features, limited claims on assets, voting rights.
A: residual claim to assets and profits of company, voting rights, limited liability.

Q: The time frame associated with an income statement is:
- a function of the information included in it.
- a future period of time.
- a past period of time.
- a point in time in the past.
A: a past period of time.

Q: If there is a loss on the disposal of a depreciable asset:
- in retrospect, the depreciation expense recognised over the asset's life was too low.
- in retrospect, the life over which the asset was depreciated was too short.
- the net book value of the asset was negative.
- no cash was received in the disposal transaction.
A: in retrospect, the depreciation expense recognised over the asset's life was too low.

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Owners' equity at the end of the year totalled:
- $948
- $872
- $836
- $1 438
A: $948

Q: Many companies use accelerated depreciation for tax purposes because:
- it is used for determining net profit reported to shareholders.
- it results in lower taxable income than straight-line depreciation.
- it reflects the amount of cash used in depreciation.
- it is easier to calculate than straight-line depreciation.
A: it results in lower taxable income than straight-line depreciation.

Q: The principal reason for reconciling the cash balance per books with the balance shown

on the bank statement is to:
- determine whether or not the entity has issued a cheque.
- verify the amount of petty cash on hand.
- satisfy generally accepted accounting principles.
- determine the amount of cash in the account actually available to the entity.
A: determine the amount of cash in the account actually available to the entity.

Q: A newspaper advertisement submitted and published this week, with the agreement to pay for it next week would, in the advertiser's records:
- increase assets and decrease liabilities.
- decrease assets and increase revenue.
- increase liabilities and increase expenses.
- decrease assets and decrease expenses.
A: increase liabilities and increase expenses.

Q: A liability incurred in the form of cash has which of the following combinations of effects on the accounting equation?
- liabilities increase, owners' equity increases.
- liabilities increase, owners' equity decreases.
- cash increases, other assets decrease.
- liabilities increase, assets increase.
A: liabilities increase, assets increase.

Q: The balance in the Accrued Wages Payable account increased from $12 200 at the beginning of the month to $15 000 at the end of the month. Wages accrued during the month totalled $61 000. Which of the following is true?
- Wages expense for the month totalled $76 000.
- Wages paid during the month totalled $64 800.
- Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.
- Wages expense for the month totalled $58 200.
A: Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.

Q: Consolidated financial statements report financial position, results of operations, and cash

flows for:
- a parent corporation and its 100% owned subsidiaries only.
- two corporations that are owned by the same individual.
- a parent corporation alone.
- a parent corporation and its subsidiaries.
A: a parent corporation and its subsidiaries.

Q: The balance sheet equation can be represented by:
- Net Assets = Owners' Equity
- Assets = Equities
- A = L + OE
- All of the above.
A: All of the above.

Q: The 'income statement' (or 'statement of recognised income and expense' or 'statement of financial performance' or 'profit and loss statement') shows which of the following for the reporting period?
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
- the result for the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
A: the result for the period.

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the units-of-production method, depreciation expense for 75 moulds produced each year

will be:
- $27 100
- $15 000
- $20 000
- $34 300
A: $15 000

Q: The 'statement of changes in owner's equity' (or 'statement of changes in share capital' or 'statement of changes in retained earnings') shows which of the following?
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
- the result for the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
A: investments by and distributions to owners during the period.

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38. At the end of the year, retained earnings totalled $1 700. During the year, net profit was $250 and dividends of $120 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the beginning of the year totalled:
- $1 570
- $1 230
- $1 330
- $2 070
A: $1 570

Q: Inventory turnover is:
- None of the above.
- Sales divided by average inventory.
- cost of goods sold divided by average inventory.
- A and B.
A: A and B.

Q: The income statement shows amounts for:
- revenues, gains, losses and earnings per share.
- revenues, assets, gains and losses.
- revenues, expenses, gains and market value per share.
- revenues, expenses, losses and liabilities.
A: revenues, gains, losses and earnings per share.

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the reducing-balance depreciation method, first year depreciation will be:
- $27 100
- $15 000
- $20 000
- $27 143
A: $27 143

Q: Non-current assets are shown on the balance sheet at their original cost, or cost of acquisition. This cost is comprised of:
- the historic cost of the non-current asset with an inbuilt allowance for its current cost.
- the purchase consideration plus future but undefined costs.
- all costs including potential future costs relating to the non-current asset.
- all ordinary and necessary direct costs that the firm incurs to get the asset ready for its intended use.
A: all ordinary and necessary direct costs that the firm incurs to get the asset ready for its intended use.

Q: The 'balance sheet' (or 'statement of financial position') shows which of the following for the reporting period?
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
- the result for the period.
A: the financial position at the end of the period.

Q: The 'matching concept' requires that all _____________incurred in generating that period's revenues be _______________from those _______________earned.
- expenses, deducted, profits.
- revenues, deducted, expenses.
- business, recycled, profits.
- expenses, deducted, revenues.
A: expenses, deducted, revenues.

Q: Which of the following accounting concepts/principles is most significant in the development of a capitalisation policy?
- consistency
- original cost
- materiality
- matching of revenue and expense
A: materiality

Q: As a result of receiving $22,000 from accounts receivable, what component(s) of the accounting equation is/are affected?
- assets and owners' equity.
- owners' equity only.
- assets and liabilities.
- assets only.
A: assets only.

Q: When a firm uses the LIFO inventory cost flow assumption:
- cost of goods sold will be the same as if FIFO were used.
- better matching of revenue and expense is achieved than under FIFO.
- net income will be greater than if FIFO were used.
- cost of goods sold will be greater than if FIFO were used.
A: better matching of revenue and expense is achieved than under FIFO.

Q: When depreciation expense is recorded:
- the net effect is contained within the income statement.
- the cash flows and assets are altered by an equal amount.
- assets and owners' equity decrease by an equal amount.
- the amount of profit earned doesn't alter as it is a non-cash expense.
A: assets and owners' equity decrease by an equal amount.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 July 2003. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the firm's depreciation expense for the year ended 30 June 2004?
- $8 800
- $6 000
- $4 400
- $2 000
A: $4 400

Q: When two or more non-current assets are acquired in a single transaction, the cost of each individual asset is measured and recorded by an allocation of the basket purchase price to the individual assets acquired, based on:
- their relative appraisal values as at date of acquisition.
- the incurrence of installation and commissioning costs for each item as at date of acquisition.
- their respective estimated useful lives as at date of acquisition.
- allocating a greater proportion of cost to a depreciable asset versus a non-depreciable asset, because the depreciable asset will eventually wear out.
A: their relative appraisal values as at date of acquisition.

Q: When a firm buys land on which there is a building, and the building is torn down so that an appropriate new building can be constructed on the land:
- any of the purchase cost allocated to the old building is capitalised as part of the cost of the new building.
- the total cost of the land and old building are capitalised as land cost.
- the cost assigned to the land excludes the cost of the old building.
- any of the purchase cost allocated to the old building is reported as a loss.
A: the total cost of the land and old building are capitalised as land cost.

Q: The intangible asset 'goodwill':
- arises because the market value of a company's assets is greater than cost.
- may arise when one company purchases another company.
- all of the above are correct.
- represents the management team's assessment of its value to the company.
A: may arise when one company purchases another company.

Q: A newspaper advertisement submitted and published this week, with the agreement to pay for it next week would, in the newspaper's records:
- increase assets and increase expenses.
- increase assets and decrease liabilities.
- increase assets and increase revenues.
- have no effect on total assets.
A: increase assets and increase revenues.

Q: ________________ assets are long-lived assets that differ from _________________assets that have been purchased because they are _____________________physically __________________________.
- intangible, property and equipment, not, strong.
- property and equipment, intangible, not, weak
- intangible, property and equipment, not, identifiable.
- property and equipment, intangible, not, identifiable.
A: intangible, property and equipment, not, identifiable.

Q: ABC Ltd borrowed $10 000 from bank. The loan agreement was that the loan to be repaid with interest in 6 months. Effects on accounts are to _________ and _________.
- increase assets, decrease liabilities
- decrease assets, decrease liabilities
- decrease assets, increase liabilities
- increase assets, increase liabilities
A: increase assets, increase liabilities

Q: Using the horizontal model, the effect of accrual of interest income on financial statements is to:
- decrease interest payable, increase interest income.
- decrease interest receivable, decrease interest income.
- decrease interest receivable, increase interest income.
- increase interest receivable, increase interest income.
A: increase interest receivable, increase interest income.

Q: Which of the following is(are) a category(ies) for securities?
- available-for-sale
- held-to-maturity
- trading
- All of the above.
A: All of the above.

Q: Which of the following is true about ethics?
- an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity is prohibited from attaining the characteristic of competence also.
- an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity cannot be relied upon to produce complete and reliable information for a client for informed judgments.
- personal advantage cannot be gained from a client being audited unless it is obtained ethically and from a third party.
- confidentiality is enhanced by an accountant who refrains from disclosing outside the firm or employing organization the lack of his or her adoption of ethical standards.
A: an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity cannot be relied upon to produce complete and reliable information for a client for informed judgments.

Q: Management accounting (or cost accounting) is:
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth)
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
A: the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.

Q: The accounting process is used to provide information about an organization or 'entity' for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments. Who makes these decisions and informed judgments?
- a wide range of users of the entity including management, owners and employees, investors, creditors and various government agencies.
- only existing and potential investors, but a wide range of them.
- only 'qualified' people.
- owners of the organization/entity (including their executives and accountants, and each of their spouses and families).
A: a wide range of users of the entity including management, owners and employees, investors, creditors and various government agencies.

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed total assets of $750 and liabilities of $250.

Owners' equity at July 31 was:
- $750
- $250
- $1 000
- $500
A: $500

Q: When a firm purchases supplies for its business:
- an adjustment will probably be required as supplies are used.
- either the supplies account or the supplies expense account should be credited.
- the supplies account should always be debited.
- the supplies expense account should always be debited.
A: an adjustment will probably be required as supplies are used.

Q: Following recent international harmonisation of accounting standards, most intangibles are subject to an impairment test and the expense associated with amortisation will become known as:
- an amortised loss.
- an impairment loss.
- accumulated expense.
- depreciation expense.
A: an impairment loss.

Q: Goodwill is an asset that arises because the present value of an acquired company's estimated future earnings, discounted at the acquiring firm's ROA:
- is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.
- is LESS THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquiring company.
- is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquiring company.
- is LESS THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.
A: is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.

Q: Deposits in transit are cash which has been recorded in the __________________cash account, but which has not yet been _________________to the ______________________balance of the __________________records.
- bank's, added, bank's, entity's.
- bank's, subtracted, bank's, entity's.
- entity's, added, entity's, bank's.
- entity's, subtracted, entity's, bank's.
A: entity's, added, entity's, bank's.

Q: Dividends are ____________of earnings that have been made to ___________of an entity.
- distributions, owners.
- affiliations, resources.
- liabilities, business.
- reports, owners.
A: distributions, owners.

Q: Dividend is a distribution of _________ to the _________ of the company.

i. contributed capital

ii. earnings

iii. owners

iv. customers
- iii, iv
- i., iv
- ii, iii
- i., ii
A: ii, iii

Q: The accounting concept/principle being applied when an adjustment is made is usually:
- materiality.
- original cost.
- matching revenue and expense.
- consistency
A: matching revenue and expense.

Q: A financial year:
- must end on the last day of a month.
- must always end on the same date each year.
- is frequently selected based on the firm's operating cycle.
- is always the same as the calendar year.
A: is frequently selected based on the firm's operating cycle.

Q: At the end of the accounting period, bookkeepers usually record an _________ to certain account balances to reflect _________ accounting in the _________.
- accrual, adjustment, financial statements
- accrual, adjustment, balance sheet
- accrual, adjustment, income statement
- adjustment, accrual, financial statements
A: adjustment, accrual, financial statements

Q: The 'cash flow statement' shows which of the following for the reporting period?
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
- the result for the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
A: the cash flows during the period.

Q: The current assets of most companies are usually made up of:
- cash and assets expected to be converted to cash within a year.
- cash, marketable securities, and accounts and loans receivable.
- a very small proportion (less than 10%) of the total assets of the entity.
- assets that are currently used in the operations of the company.
A: cash and assets expected to be converted to cash within a year.

Q: The retained earnings category of owners' equity indicates:
- total profits minus contributed capital.
- the amount of cash available to the company to distribute as profits.
- the entity's cumulative earnings minus dividends paid.
- assets minus liabilities.
A: the entity's cumulative earnings minus dividends paid.

Q: The balance sheet might also be called:
- None of the above.
- Statement of Change in Financial Position.
- Statement of Financial Position.
- Statement of Assets.
A: Statement of Financial Position.

Q: When a manufacturer invests in short-term marketable securities:
- risk avoidance is of great importance.
- the market value of the securities is likely to fluctuate significantly.
- the securities are likely to have a maturity date more than a year in the future.
- the return on investment is more important than the risk involved.
A: risk avoidance is of great importance.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 January 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the accumulated depreciation for this asset on December 31, 2005?
- None of the above.
- $14 800
- $6 400
- $8 000
- $16 000
A: None of the above.

Q: The internal control process relates:
- primarily to the amount of cash available in the entity's bank account.
- fundamentally to ascertaining and maintaining the entity's profits.
- to every level of the organisation.
- mainly to safeguarding against the misuse of cash.
A: to every level of the organisation.

Q: Accounting for natural resources:
- involves 150% reducing-balance depletion calculation.
- involves estimating the quantity of the natural resource to be recovered.
- involves using the accumulated depreciation account.
- involves an exception to the matching concept.
A: involves estimating the quantity of the natural resource to be recovered.

Q: Owner's equity at ____________of year, Plus contributions of additional ___________, Plus _____________, Less ________________, Equals owners' equity at ___________________of year.
- beginning, equity, dividends, interest, end.
- end, shares, liabilities, assets, beginning.
- beginning, equity, profit, dividends, end.
- end, equity, profit, dividends, beginning.
A: beginning, equity, profit, dividends, end.

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Liabilities at the end of the year totalled:
- $910
- $836
- $490
- $528
A: $490

Q: Current liabilities are those obligations:
- that must be paid or satisfied within a year of the balance sheet date.
- designed to mitigate increases in the replacement cost of assets due to inflation.
- where credit has been obtained in the form of a loan or in the course of business.
- that attract interest for the time that they are outstanding.
A: that must be paid or satisfied within a year of the balance sheet date.

Q: Which of the following items would be recorded in the accounts as a liability?
- the intention to refurbish or conduct extensive repairs and maintenance.
- obligations of the entity to suppliers for goods and services that have been provided to the entity on credit terms.
- negotiations for the possible purchase of inventory.
- contingent losses on unsettled lawsuits against the entity where the amount cannot be reliably estimated.
A: obligations of the entity to suppliers for goods and services that have been provided to the entity on credit terms.

Q: Wisdom Co. has a loan payable to its bank. An adjustment is likely to be required on Wisdom's books at the end of every month that the loan is outstanding, to record the:
- accrued interest expense for the month.
- amount of principal payable at the maturity date of the loan.
- amount of total interest to be paid when the loan is paid off
- amount of interest paid during the month.
A: accrued interest expense for the month.

Q: Trading and Available-for-Sale securities are reported on the balance sheet at:
- market value.
- weighted average cost.
- historical cost.
- net realisable value.
A: market value.

Q: The Statement of Changes in Owners' Equity shows:
- paid-in capital and long-term debt at the end of the period.
- net profit and dividends for the period.
- revenues, expenses and liabilities for the period.
- the change in cash during a year.
A: net profit and dividends for the period.

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the straight line method, annual depreciation will be:
- None of the above.
- $10 000
- $17 142
- $13 571
A: $10 000

Q: If an organisation purchases $700 of supplies on account, with terms of 2/15, n50:
- $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $700 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
- . $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $714 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
- $698 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
- $650 must be paid within 15 days of the invoice date.
A: $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $700 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.

Q: Accrual accounting:
- cannot result in the entity having net profit unless cash is received from customers.
- means that expenses are recorded when they are paid.
- results in the balance sheet showing the fair market value of the entity's assets.
- is designed to match revenues and expenses.
A: is designed to match revenues and expenses.

Q: Adjustment for accrued wages of $100 will be:
- increase liabilities, decrease wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
- decrease liabilities, decrease wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
- decrease liabilities, increase wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
- increase liabilities, increase wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
A: increase liabilities, increase wage expense, decrease owners' equity.

Q: The purchase of inventory on account would, in the buyer's records:
- have no effect on total assets.
- increase liabilities and increase contributed capital.
- increase assets and increase liabilities.
- increase assets and increase expenses.
A: increase assets and increase liabilities.

Q: Prepaid expenses classified as current assets represent:
- expenses of the current year that have been paid in advance.
- cash that has been segregated to pay for future expenses.
- current year disbursements that will be matched against revenues of the next year.
- current year expenses that have been accrued.
A: current year disbursements that will be matched against revenues of the next year.

Q: Bad debt expense is recognised in the same accounting period as the revenue that is related to the receivable because:
- all costs incurred in the current period should be subtracted from current period revenues.
- revenues should be stated at realisable value.
- the exact amount of the losses from bad debts is known.
- the accounts receivable asset should be stated at original cost.
A: all costs incurred in the current period should be subtracted from current period revenues.

Q: The allowance for collectable accounts is a [Image: no]:
- asset.
- contra revenue.
- expense.
- contra current asset.
A: contra current asset.

Q: In the bank reconciliation process, deposits in transit indicate:
- the bank has recorded some transactions about which the entity is not yet aware.
- deposits received by the bank but not yet added to the entity's own records.
- amounts of the day's takings authorised by the accounting department to be banked that are being taken to the bank but which have not yet arrived.
- amounts of money received by the business but not yet added to the bank's records.
A: amounts of money received by the business but not yet added to the bank's records.

Q: The distinction between a current asset and other assets:
- is based on when the asset is expected to be converted to cash, or used to benefit the entity.
- is based on the ability to determine the current fair market value of the asset.
- is based on amounts that will be paid to other entities within a year.
- is based on how long the asset has been owned.
A: is based on when the asset is expected to be converted to cash, or used to benefit the entity.

Q: An entity's retained earnings refers to:
- the amount of profits and owners' equity reserved in the business.
- payment of dividends by increasing liabilities and retaining cash in the business.
- amounts contributed by owners in the form of cash.
- amounts distributed to owners in the form of dividends.
A: the amount of profits and owners' equity reserved in the business.

Q: The effect of an error resulting in an understatement of ending inventory is to:
- overstate operating expenses of the current period.
- overstate cost of goods sold of the current period
- understate cost of goods sold of the current period.
- overstate the next period's beginning inventory.
A: overstate cost of goods sold of the current period

Q: Owners' equity refers to which to the following?
- All of the above.
- Probable future sacrifices of economic benefits.
- The ownership right of the owner(s) of the entity.
- A listing of the organisation's assets and liabilities.
A: The ownership right of the owner(s) of the entity.

Q: If X Ltd owed $5,000 to Y Ltd at the same time Y Ltd owed $6,000 to X Ltd, and they agreed to 'offset' $5,000 of this amount to each other, what is the effect on the accounting equation when Y Ltd pays the additional $1,000 it owes to X Ltd?
- the accounting equation is not affected.
- there is no net effect ie. assets remain the same as receivables decrease by $1,000 and bank increases by $1,000.
- liabilities decrease by $1,000 and assets increase by $1,000.
- owners' equity and assets both increase by $1,000.
A: there is no net effect ie. assets remain the same as receivables decrease by $1,000 and bank increases by $1,000.

Q: The purpose of the income statement is to show the:
- market value per share at the date of the statement.
- change in the fair market value of the assets from the prior income statement.
- net profit or net loss for the period covered by the statement
- revenues collected during the period covered by the statement.
A: net profit or net loss for the period covered by the statement

Q: Depreciation is:
- a method of measuring the 'wearing out' of a non-current asset's value over its lifetime in keeping with the application of the matching concept.
- a means of allocating the cost of a non-current asset over a number of accounting reporting periods as an application of the matching concept.
- an attempt to recognise differences between the original cost and replacement cost.
- an attempt to recognise a loss in market value of a non-current asset.
A: a means of allocating the cost of a non-current asset over a number of accounting reporting periods as an application of the matching concept.

Q: Adjustment for accrued wages of $100 will be:
- None of the above.
- decrease in liabilities and decrease in wage expense.
- decrease in liabilities and increase in wage expense.
- increase in liabilities and increase in wage expense.
A: increase in liabilities and increase in wage expense.

Q: With respect to transactions, objectivity refers to:
- having a person not involved in the transaction determine the amount involved.
- having a given transaction recorded consistently in all situations.
- using judgment to determine the amounts involved.
- knowing the objective of the transaction before recording it.
A: having a person not involved in the transaction determine the amount involved.

Q: The principal challenge to calculating depletion is estimating:
- the quantity of material to be recovered.
- the demand for the product.
- the salvage value of the exploration equipment.
- the cost of the asset.
A: the quantity of material to be recovered.

Q: The two broad categories of depreciation calculation methods are known as:
- straight-line and accelerated depreciation.
- reducing-balance and units-of-production.
- accelerated depreciation and units-of-production.
- straight-line and reducing-balance.
A: straight-line and accelerated depreciation.

Q: When a machine with a net book value of $5 000 is sold for $4 000:
- current assets increase, equipment (net) increases, and net profit increases.
- current assets increase, equipment (net) increases, and net profit decreases.
- current assets increase, equipment (net) decreases, and net profit decreases.
- current assets increase, equipment (net) decreases, and net profit increases.
A: current assets increase, equipment (net) decreases, and net profit decreases.

Q: Accounting information is useful because:
- it helps accountants separate their debits from their credits.
- it makes boring data into interesting data.
- it provides information for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments.
- . it facilitates the transformation of previously unimportant information into important factual data for accounting purposes.
A: it provides information for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments.

Q: The balance sheet presentation of accounts receivable net of the allowance for doubtful accounts has the effect of stating accounts receivable at:
- lower of cost or market
- net realisable value.
- original cost.
- market value.
A: net realisable value.

Q: The reason for recording a prepaid expense as a current asset is:
- to avoid recognising an expense so net profit will be higher for the current accounting period.
- that the expense has been incurred but not yet paid.
- that the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.
- that the prepaid item will be returned for a cash refund.
A: that the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.

Q: Financial statements are comprised of:
- income statement, balance sheet, statement of changes in owner's equity, cash flow statement.
- cash flow statement, auditor's statement, income statement, balance sheet.
- income statement, balance sheet, statement of changes in owner's equity, cash flow statement, auditor's statement.
- income statement, funds statement, balance sheet, statement of changes in owner's equity, cash flow statement.
A: income statement, balance sheet, statement of changes in owner's equity, cash flow statement.

Q: CPA Australia and The Institute of Chartered Accountants have adopted a joint code of professional ethics that requires their members to have and maintain various characteristics. Such characteristics are:
- objectivity, integrity, complexity, professionalism, competence.
- integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, independence and competence.
- objectivity, optimum capacity, political judgment, subjective independence, investor credibility.
- integrity, sustainability, political expediency, assertive behaviour, objective business acumen.
A: integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, independence and competence.

Q: Dividends that have been declared but not paid as at balance sheet date have which of the following combination of effects on the records of the entity?
- a reduction of retained earnings and an expense.
- a reduction of retained earnings and a current liability.
- an expense and a contra asset.
- an expense and a current liability.
A: a reduction of retained earnings and a current liability.

Q: An outstanding cheque in the bank reconciliation process refers to:
- a cheque that has 'bounced' from the issuer's bank because there was insufficient funds to honour it.
- a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.
- one of the bank reconciliation steps has not yet been completed and consequently has not been checked by someone with appropriate authority.
- a very good 'quality' cheque.
A: a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.

Q: Which of the following is true?

i. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions occur.

ii. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions affect financial statements.

iii. Transaction analysis can be done prior to the preparation for end of financial year statements.

iv. Transaction analysis helps in knowing whether an analysis makes sense.
- ii, iii and iv
- i, ii, iii and iv
- i, ii and iii
- i and ii
A: ii, iii and iv

Q: ABC Ltd bought a machine on 1 July 2003 at $100 000. Estimated useful life of the machine is 20 years and its estimated salvage value is $5 000. Using straight-line

depreciation, its annual depreciation expense will be:
- $5 750
- $4 000
- $4 750
- $5 000
A: $4 750

Q: An accounts receivable results from the sale of:
- The firm's ordinary shares.
- Goods and services to customers for cash.
- Goods and services to customers on account
- Property, plant and equipment for cash
A: Goods and services to customers on account

Q: Which of the following accounting methods accomplishes much of the matching of revenues and expenses?
- None of the above.
- accrual accounting
- cash accounting
- match accounting
A: accrual accounting

Q: The most important factor to consider in a trade-in transaction is:
- the cash that will be paid to the seller.
- the gain or loss that will have to be recorded.
- the list price of the new asset.
- the trade-in allowance offered for the old asset.
A: the cash that will be paid to the seller.

Q: Expenses are:
- decreases in net assets resulting from usual operating activities.
- decreases in net assets from dividends to shareholders.
- decreases in net assets from uninsured accidents.
- cash disbursements.
A: decreases in net assets resulting from usual operating activities.

Q: In the most severe case of forced liquidation, the liability of ordinary shareholders, as the ultimate owners of the company and its assets, is:
- limited to the amount they have invested in the company's shares, including any amount still owing on them.
- to invest additional funds to make up the losses.
- jointly and severally liable to the extent of their personal assets.
- unlimited.
A: limited to the amount they have invested in the company's shares, including any amount still owing on them.

Q: If an entity wants to recognise the holding gains that gradually occur with a parcel of land purchased many years earlier without having to sell it the entity:
- can do nothing ie.only by selling the parcel of land will they realise any holding gains.
- can put it up for sale and then withdraw it after an offer is made to buy it.
- can revalue the land to its fair value.
- can pretend to sell the land and get the appropriate price from a real estate agent.
A: can revalue the land to its fair value.

Q: The going concern concept refers to a presumption that:
- top management of the entity will not change in the coming year.
- the entity will continue to operate in the foreseeable future.
- the entity will not be involved in a merger within a year.
- the entity will be profitable in the coming year.
A: the entity will continue to operate in the foreseeable future.

Q: When an uncollectible account receivable is written off against the allowance for bad debts:
- total current assets decrease and expenses decrease.
- total current assets are not affected.
- total current assets decrease and expenses increase.
- current assets decrease and expenses are not affected.
A: total current assets are not affected.

Q: The effect of an adjustment on the financial statements is usually to:
- match revenues and assets.
- increase the accuracy of both the balance sheet and the income statement.
- increase net profit.
- make the balance sheet balance.
A: increase the accuracy of both the balance sheet and the income statement.

Q: Which of the following are reclassification adjustments?

i. Prepaid insurance

ii. Revenues received in advance

iii. Cash received from customers after the service is performed.

iv. Cash received from customer before the product is sold
- i, ii, iii and iv
- i, ii and iv
- i, ii and iii
- i and ii
A: i, ii and iv

Q: Expenditures capitalised as long-lived assets generally include those expenditures that:
- are material and that have an economic benefit to the entity only in the current year.
- are material and that have an economic benefit to the entity that extends beyond the current year.
- are for items that have a physical life of more than a year, regardless of their cost.
- are made for normal repairs to maintain the usefulness of the asset over a number of years.
A: are material and that have an economic benefit to the entity that extends beyond the current year.

Q: The balance sheet valuation of inventories is:
- cost, regardless of the cost of replacing the inventory.
- lower of realisable value or selling price.
- lower of selling price or cost.
- lower of cost or market.
A: lower of cost or market.

Q: Outstanding cheques have been recorded as _________________in the cash balance of the

_______________________ , but which have not yet been presented to the ___________________for payment.
- reductions, entity, bank.
- additions, entity, bank.
- reductions, bank, entity.
- additions, bank, entity.
A: reductions, entity, bank.

Q: Which of the following is correct?
- A transaction can affect two or more than two accounts.
- A transaction can affect one account only.
- A transaction can affect more than two accounts.
- A transaction can affect two accounts only.
A: A transaction can affect two or more than two accounts.

Q: In a ____________statement the section titled 'cash from operating activities' is shown first, itemising the _______________consequences of the _____________.
- owners' equity, fiscal, operating.
- cash flow, cash, income.
- cash flow, fiscal, income.
- balance sheet, cash, income.
A: cash flow, cash, income.

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the five questions of an accounting process or transaction analysis?
- Does the balance sheet balance?
- Is this an accrual?
- Which accounts are affected?
- What's going on?
A: Is this an accrual?

Q: Reclassification is an _________ on the financial statements usually to _________:
- None of the above.
- adjustment, reclassify
- accruals, adjustment
- adjustment, accruals
A: adjustment, reclassify

Q: A firm receives $100, owed by its client for work performed in an earlier accounting period. The effect of this transaction will be on the:
- None of the above.
- balance sheet and income statement.
- income statement.
- balance sheet.
A: balance sheet and income statement.

Q: The accounting concept or principle applied when an allowance is provided for estimated

uncollectible accounts receivable is:
- objectivity.
- original cost.
- matching revenue and expense.
- consistency.
A: matching revenue and expense.

Q: When a firm purchases supplies for use in its business, and the cost of the supplies purchased is recorded as an asset, the following adjustment to recognise the cost of supplies used will probably be required:
- No adjustment will probably be required.
- increase supplies expense and decrease supplies.
- increase supplies and decrease supplies expense.
- increase supplies and increase accounts payable.
A: increase supplies expense and decrease supplies.

Q: Which of the following is true in relation to auditing?
- the audit result contains a 'full and concise' discussion and analysis of the annual reports of the firm being audited.
- an unqualified audit report has four (4) paragraphs, all relating to the 'true and fair view' that has been formed.
- an unqualified opinion ensures the business entity is in good financial order.
- the result of an audit is the independent (external) auditor's report.
A: the result of an audit is the independent (external) auditor's report.

Q: Owners' equity comprises:
- ordinary shares, preferences shares, foreign currency translation reserve.
- capital, retained earnings, reserves.
- revenues, expenses, profits.
- assets, liability, owners' equity.
A: capital, retained earnings, reserves.

Q: Accounts receivable are reported at:
- market value.
- weighted average cost.
- historical cost
- net realisable value.
A: net realisable value.

Q: Contributed capital represents:
- net assets of the entity at the date of the statement.
- the amount invested in the entity by the owners.
- earnings retained for use in the business.
- market value of the entity's ordinary shares.
A: the amount invested in the entity by the owners.

Q: Transactions are summarised in:
- the entity's accounts.
- the independent auditor's opinion letter.
- financial statement footnotes.
- None of the above.
A: the entity's accounts.

Q: The company form of organisation has the following as one of its many advantages:
- the cost of forming a company is greater than other forms of business organisation.
- its shareholders have limited liability.
- its income is taxed first prior to distributing income to its shareholders.
- it is heavily regulated.
A: its shareholders have limited liability.

Q: One of the most important reasons for having a system of internal control is to:
- prevent a salesperson from using a company car for personal transportation.
- ensure no employees have ever been convicted of stealing.
- improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the operations of the organisation.
- eliminate any temptations that may be presented to employees that could lead to theft from the company.
A: improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the operations of the organisation.

Q: Matching revenues and expenses refers to:
- recording revenues when a product is sold or a service is rendered.
- accurately reflecting the results of operations for a fiscal period.
- recording revenues when cash is received.
- having revenues equal expenses.
A: accurately reflecting the results of operations for a fiscal period.

Q: Internal auditing is:
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
A: like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.

Q: When a depreciable asset is sold:
- depreciation expense is adjusted so there is no gain or loss.
- a loss arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.
- a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.
- any cash received results in a gain.
A: a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.

Q: The entity for which accounting is done and financial statements are prepared:
- can be defined by the accountant.
- cannot be a combination of personal and business activities.
- must be a business enterprise.
- must be a corporation.
A: can be defined by the accountant.

Q: Accumulated depreciation on a balance sheet:
- represents the portion of the cost of an asset that has been 'used up' in the process of operating the business.
- recognises the economic loss in value of an asset because of its age or use.
- represents cash that will be used to replace worn-out equipment.
- is part of owners' equity.
A: represents the portion of the cost of an asset that has been 'used up' in the process of operating the business.

Q: The balance sheet of an entity:
- shows amounts that are not adjusted for changes in the purchasing power of the dollar.
- reports plant and equipment at its opportunity cost.
- reflects the impact of inflation on the replacement cost of the assets.
- shows the fair market value of the assets at the date of the balance sheet.
A: shows amounts that are not adjusted for changes in the purchasing power of the dollar.

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Owners' equity at the end of the year totalled:
- $1 438
- $948
- $872
- $836
A: $948

Q: Deferred tax assets:
- are less likely to be reported than deferred tax liabilities for most firms.
- arise when the company makes a prepayment of its income taxes.
- represent a reduction in the income tax liability of a future year when an expense will become deductible for income tax purposes.
- are always classified as current assets.
A: represent a reduction in the income tax liability of a future year when an expense will become deductible for income tax purposes.

Q: Dividend is a distribution of _________ to the _________ of the company.

i. contributed capital

ii. earnings

iii. owners

iv. customers
- ii, iii
- iii, iv
- i., iv
- i., ii
A: ii, iii

Q: The sale of inventory on account would, in the seller's records:
- increase assets and decrease revenues.
- increase assets and increase Contributed Capital.
- increase assets and decrease liabilities.
- increase assets and increase expenses.
A: increase assets and increase expenses.

Q: The income statement is linked to the _________ through the _________ component of owners' equity.

i. balance sheet

ii. revenues

iii. expenses

iv. retained profits
- i and iii
- i and ii
- i and iv
- ii and iv
A: i and iv

Q: ABC Ltd borrowed $10 000 from bank. The loan agreement was that the loan to be repaid with interest in 6 months. Effects on accounts are to _________ and _________.
- decrease assets, decrease liabilities
- increase assets, decrease liabilities
- decrease assets, increase liabilities
- increase assets, increase liabilities
A: increase assets, increase liabilities

Q: When a firm purchases supplies for its business:
- an adjustment will probably be required as supplies are used.
- either the supplies account or the supplies expense account should be credited.
- the supplies expense account should always be debited.
- the supplies account should always be debited.
A: an adjustment will probably be required as supplies are used.

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the straight line method, annual depreciation will be:
- $13 571
- None of the above.
- $10 000
- $17 142
A: $10 000

Q: The accounting process is used to provide information about an organization or 'entity' for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments. Who makes these decisions and informed judgments?
- owners of the organization/entity (including their executives and accountants, and each of their spouses and families).
- only existing and potential investors, but a wide range of them.
- a wide range of users of the entity including management, owners and employees, investors, creditors and various government agencies.
- only 'qualified' people.
A: a wide range of users of the entity including management, owners and employees, investors, creditors and various government agencies.

Q: Depreciation is:
- a means of allocating the cost of a non-current asset over a number of accounting reporting periods as an application of the matching concept.
- a method of measuring the 'wearing out' of a non-current asset's value over its lifetime in keeping with the application of the matching concept.
- an attempt to recognise differences between the original cost and replacement cost.
- an attempt to recognise a loss in market value of a non-current asset.
A: a means of allocating the cost of a non-current asset over a number of accounting reporting periods as an application of the matching concept.

Q: In the horizontal model, effect of revenues, expenses and dividends respectively:
- increases owners' equity, decreases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.
- None of the above.
- decreases owners' equity, increases owners' equity, increases retained earnings.
- decreases owners' equity, increases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.
A: increases owners' equity, decreases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.

Q: When a firm uses the LIFO inventory cost flow assumption:
- better matching of revenue and expense is achieved than under FIFO.
- cost of goods sold will be the same as if FIFO were used.
- net income will be greater than if FIFO were used.
- cost of goods sold will be greater than if FIFO were used.
A: better matching of revenue and expense is achieved than under FIFO.

Q: The accounting concept or principle applied when an allowance is provided for estimated

uncollectible accounts receivable is:
- original cost.
- matching revenue and expense.
- consistency.
- objectivity.
A: matching revenue and expense.

Q: Any ____________on the disposal of a depreciable asset is, in effect, a __________________of the total ______________________expense that has been ________________________over the life of the asset.

A. costs, reduction, original, recorded.
- damage, cost, expected, missed.
- correction, record, gain/loss, controlled.
- gain/loss, correction, depreciation, recorded.
- costs, reduction, original, recorded.
A: gain/loss, correction, depreciation, recorded.

Q: Outstanding cheques have been recorded as _________________in the cash balance of the

_______________________ , but which have not yet been presented to the ___________________for payment.
- reductions, entity, bank.
- additions, entity, bank.
- additions, bank, entity.
- reductions, bank, entity.
A: reductions, entity, bank.

Q: At the beginning of the year, paid-in capital was $82 and retained earnings were $47. During the year, the owners invested $24 and dividends of $6 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the end of the year were $52.

Total owners' equity at the end of the year was:
- $158
- $106
- $94
- $82
A: $158

Q: When two or more non-current assets are acquired in a single transaction, the cost of each individual asset is measured and recorded by an allocation of the basket purchase price to the individual assets acquired, based on:
- allocating a greater proportion of cost to a depreciable asset versus a non-depreciable asset, because the depreciable asset will eventually wear out.
- the incurrence of installation and commissioning costs for each item as at date of acquisition.
- their respective estimated useful lives as at date of acquisition.
- their relative appraisal values as at date of acquisition.
A: their relative appraisal values as at date of acquisition.

Q: ________________ assets are long-lived assets that differ from _________________assets that have been purchased because they are _____________________physically __________________________.
- property and equipment, intangible, not, identifiable.
- intangible, property and equipment, not, strong.
- intangible, property and equipment, not, identifiable.
- property and equipment, intangible, not, weak
A: intangible, property and equipment, not, identifiable.

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the units-of-production method, depreciation expense for 75 moulds produced each year

will be:
- $15 000
- $20 000
- $34 300
- $27 100
A: $15 000

Q: The purpose of the income statement is to show the:
- net profit or net loss for the period covered by the statement
- revenues collected during the period covered by the statement.
- market value per share at the date of the statement.
- change in the fair market value of the assets from the prior income statement.
A: net profit or net loss for the period covered by the statement

Q: Which of the following is true about ethics?
- confidentiality is enhanced by an accountant who refrains from disclosing outside the firm or employing organization the lack of his or her adoption of ethical standards.
- an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity is prohibited from attaining the characteristic of competence also.
- an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity cannot be relied upon to produce complete and reliable information for a client for informed judgments.
- personal advantage cannot be gained from a client being audited unless it is obtained ethically and from a third party.
A: an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity cannot be relied upon to produce complete and reliable information for a client for informed judgments.

Q: Adjustment for accrued wages of $100 will be:
- increase in liabilities and increase in wage expense.
- None of the above.
- decrease in liabilities and decrease in wage expense.
- decrease in liabilities and increase in wage expense.
A: increase in liabilities and increase in wage expense.

Q: The accounting concept/principle being applied when an adjustment is made is usually:
- original cost.
- consistency
- matching revenue and expense.
- materiality.
A: matching revenue and expense.

Q: At the end of the accounting period, bookkeepers usually record an _________ to certain account balances to reflect _________ accounting in the _________.
- accrual, adjustment, balance sheet
- accrual, adjustment, financial statements
- accrual, adjustment, income statement
- adjustment, accrual, financial statements
A: adjustment, accrual, financial statements

Q: Which of the following is the correct balance sheet presentation for current assets?
- Marketable securities, cash, loans receivable, prepaid expenses.
- Accounts receivable, inventories, prepaid expenses, other current assets.
- Cash equivalents, cash, other current assets, accounts receivable.
- Cash, inventories, account receivables, prepaid expenses.
A: Accounts receivable, inventories, prepaid expenses, other current assets.

Q: Current liabilities are those obligations:
- designed to mitigate increases in the replacement cost of assets due to inflation.
- where credit has been obtained in the form of a loan or in the course of business.
- that must be paid or satisfied within a year of the balance sheet date.
- that attract interest for the time that they are outstanding.
A: that must be paid or satisfied within a year of the balance sheet date.

Q: With respect to transactions, objectivity refers to:
- knowing the objective of the transaction before recording it.
- having a person not involved in the transaction determine the amount involved.
- having a given transaction recorded consistently in all situations.
- using judgment to determine the amounts involved.
A: having a person not involved in the transaction determine the amount involved.

Q: Which of the following is(are) a category(ies) for securities?
- All of the above.
- available-for-sale
- held-to-maturity
- trading
A: All of the above.

Q: The effect of an adjustment is:
- to close the books.
- to record transactions not previously recorded.
- to correct an entry that was not in balance.
- to increase the accuracy of the financial statements.
A: to increase the accuracy of the financial statements.

Q: The 'balance sheet' (or 'statement of financial position') shows which of the following for the reporting period?
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
- the result for the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
A: the financial position at the end of the period.

Q: Accounts receivable are reported at:
- market value.
- historical cost
- net realisable value.
- weighted average cost.
A: net realisable value.

Q: Regardless of the inventory cost flow assumption used, inventories on the balance sheet are stated at:
- realisable value.
- original cost.
- the lower of cost or market.
- replacement cost.
A: the lower of cost or market.

Q: Which of the following is true?

i. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions occur.

ii. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions affect financial statements.

iii. Transaction analysis can be done prior to the preparation for end of financial year statements.

iv. Transaction analysis helps in knowing whether an analysis makes sense.
- ii, iii and iv
- i, ii and iii
- i and ii
- i, ii, iii and iv
A: ii, iii and iv

Q: Goodwill is an asset that arises because the present value of an acquired company's estimated future earnings, discounted at the acquiring firm's ROA:
- is LESS THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquiring company.
- is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquiring company.
- is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.
- is LESS THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.
A: is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.

Q: When an accelerated depreciation method is used to calculate depreciation expense:
- the accumulated depreciation account balance will increase by a larger amount in the last half of an asset's life than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- depreciation expense will be less in the early years of the asset's life than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- the net book value of the asset at the end of its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- the net book value of the asset halfway through its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.
A: the net book value of the asset halfway through its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.

Q: Financial accounting is:
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
A: the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.

Q: Owners' equity comprises:
- ordinary shares, preferences shares, foreign currency translation reserve.
- revenues, expenses, profits.
- assets, liability, owners' equity.
- capital, retained earnings, reserves.
A: capital, retained earnings, reserves.

Q: In a ____________statement the section titled 'cash from operating activities' is shown first, itemising the _______________consequences of the _____________.
- cash flow, fiscal, income.
- balance sheet, cash, income.
- owners' equity, fiscal, operating.
- cash flow, cash, income.
A: cash flow, cash, income.

Q: In the most severe case of forced liquidation, the liability of ordinary shareholders, as the ultimate owners of the company and its assets, is:
- to invest additional funds to make up the losses.
- limited to the amount they have invested in the company's shares, including any amount still owing on them.
- jointly and severally liable to the extent of their personal assets.
- unlimited.
A: limited to the amount they have invested in the company's shares, including any amount still owing on them.

Q: Which of the following inventory accounting systems has been made much more feasible as a result of computer systems developments?
- Periodic
- Just-in-time
- Perpetual
- Physical
A: Perpetual

Q: If an organisation has an obligation to pay $5 000 to a supplier two years from now, the

present value of the obligation:
- could be calculated using an annuity factor from the present value tables.
- is more than $5 000.
- is $5 000.
- is less than $5 000.
A: is less than $5 000.

Q: When a firm sells its land, the:
- difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the balance sheet.
- difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the income statement of the period.
- cost of the land will be reported in the income statement of the period.
- selling price of the land will be reported in the income statement of the period.
A: difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the income statement of the period.

Q: One of the most important reasons for having a system of internal control is to:
- improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the operations of the organisation.
- prevent a salesperson from using a company car for personal transportation.
- eliminate any temptations that may be presented to employees that could lead to theft from the company.
- ensure no employees have ever been convicted of stealing.
A: improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the operations of the organisation.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 January 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the accumulated depreciation for this asset on December 31, 2005?
- None of the above.
- $14 800
- $16 000
- $6 400
- $8 000
A: None of the above.

Q: When a machine with a net book value of $5 000 is sold for $4 000:
- current assets increase, equipment (net) increases, and net profit decreases.
- current assets increase, equipment (net) decreases, and net profit decreases.
- current assets increase, equipment (net) decreases, and net profit increases.
- current assets increase, equipment (net) increases, and net profit increases.
A: current assets increase, equipment (net) decreases, and net profit decreases.

Q: A firm receives $100, owed by its client for work performed in an earlier accounting period. The effect of this transaction will be on the:
- balance sheet and income statement.
- income statement.
- balance sheet.
- None of the above.
A: balance sheet and income statement.

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed NET ASSETS of $1 025 and liabilities of $225. Owners' equity on July 31 was:
- $225
- $1 250
- $1 025
- $800
A: $1 025

Q: Sage Inc. has 20 employees who each earn $100 per day and are paid every Thursday. The end of the accounting period is on a Wednesday. How much in wages should the firm accrue at the end of the period?
- $6 000
- $1 000
- $0
- $2 000
A: $6 000

Q: A perceived disadvantage of the sole trader form of business organisation is:
- being one's own boss.
- the unlimited nature of the owner's personal liability.
- the lack of formal requirements needed to start operations.
- the ease with which one can commence a business.
A: the unlimited nature of the owner's personal liability.

Q: The principle of consistency means that:
- the effect of any change in an accounting method will be disclosed in the financial statements or notes thereto.
- there are no alternative methods of accounting for the same transaction.
- the same accounting methods are used by all firms in an industry.
- the accounting methods used by an entity never change.
A: the effect of any change in an accounting method will be disclosed in the financial statements or notes thereto.

Q: The definition of current assets:
- includes inventory that is likely to be converted to cash or consumed within one year or within an operating cycle of the entity.
- applies to merchandisers as opposed to service providers.
- includes cash and other assets that are currently in the records, but not assets purchased in the future.
- includes inventory that is likely to be converted to cash or consumed within one year.
A: includes inventory that is likely to be converted to cash or consumed within one year or within an operating cycle of the entity.

Q: The going concern concept refers to a presumption that:
- top management of the entity will not change in the coming year.
- the entity will not be involved in a merger within a year.
- the entity will be profitable in the coming year.
- the entity will continue to operate in the foreseeable future.
A: the entity will continue to operate in the foreseeable future.

Q: Depreciation, in accounting, is a process that results in:
- accumulating cash for the replacement of the asset.
- spreading the cost of an asset over its useful life to the entity.
- an accurate measurement of the economic usefulness of an asset.
- depreciable assets being reported in the balance sheet at their fair market value.
A: spreading the cost of an asset over its useful life to the entity.

Q: The time frame associated with a balance sheet is:
- a function of the information included in it.
- a one-year past period of time.
- a point in time in the past.
- a single date in the future.
A: a point in time in the past.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding loans receivables (N/R)?
- A loan is a less formal document than an account receivable.
- A N/R is always a current asset.
- A loan is a more formal document than an account receivable.
- A N/R is always a long-term asset.
A: A loan is a more formal document than an account receivable.

Q: Accounting for natural resources:
- involves 150% reducing-balance depletion calculation.
- involves an exception to the matching concept.
- involves estimating the quantity of the natural resource to be recovered.
- involves using the accumulated depreciation account.
A: involves estimating the quantity of the natural resource to be recovered.

Q: The company form of organisation has the following as one of its many advantages:
- it is heavily regulated.
- the cost of forming a company is greater than other forms of business organisation.
- its shareholders have limited liability.
- its income is taxed first prior to distributing income to its shareholders.
A: its shareholders have limited liability.

Q: Transactions are summarised in:
- None of the above.
- the entity's accounts.
- the independent auditor's opinion letter.
- financial statement footnotes.
A: the entity's accounts.

Q: A concept or principle that relates to transactions is:
- consistency.
- matching of revenue and expense.
- materiality.
- original cost.
A: original cost.

Q: Prepaid expenses classified as current assets represent:
- current year expenses that have been accrued.
- expenses of the current year that have been paid in advance.
- cash that has been segregated to pay for future expenses.
- current year disbursements that will be matched against revenues of the next year.
A: current year disbursements that will be matched against revenues of the next year.

Q: Which of the following items would be recorded in the accounts as a liability?
- contingent losses on unsettled lawsuits against the entity where the amount cannot be reliably estimated.
- obligations of the entity to suppliers for goods and services that have been provided to the entity on credit terms.
- negotiations for the possible purchase of inventory.
- the intention to refurbish or conduct extensive repairs and maintenance.
A: obligations of the entity to suppliers for goods and services that have been provided to the entity on credit terms.

Q: The balance sheet equation can be represented by:
- All of the above.
- Net Assets = Owners' Equity
- Assets = Equities
- A = L + OE
A: All of the above.

Q: The principal challenge to calculating depletion is estimating:
- the quantity of material to be recovered.
- the salvage value of the exploration equipment.
- the cost of the asset.
- the demand for the product.
A: the quantity of material to be recovered.

Q: In the bank reconciliation process, deposits in transit indicate:
- amounts of the day's takings authorised by the accounting department to be banked that are being taken to the bank but which have not yet arrived.
- the bank has recorded some transactions about which the entity is not yet aware.
- deposits received by the bank but not yet added to the entity's own records.
- amounts of money received by the business but not yet added to the bank's records.
A: amounts of money received by the business but not yet added to the bank's records.

Q: A liability incurred in the form of cash has which of the following combinations of effects on the accounting equation?
- cash increases, other assets decrease.
- liabilities increase, owners' equity increases.
- liabilities increase, owners' equity decreases.
- liabilities increase, assets increase.
A: liabilities increase, assets increase.

Q: Accounting standards have evolved as:
- a set of standards with the objective of keeping the business entity's standards high.
- a set of rules and regulations which display 'exactness' for the accounting domain.
- the result of an open or consultative procedure, known as 'due process'.
- the result of a process of being developed or set in a 'vacuum'.
A: the result of an open or consultative procedure, known as 'due process'.

Q: Many companies use accelerated depreciation for tax purposes because:
- it is easier to calculate than straight-line depreciation.
- it is used for determining net profit reported to shareholders.
- it results in lower taxable income than straight-line depreciation.
- it reflects the amount of cash used in depreciation.
A: it results in lower taxable income than straight-line depreciation.

Q: The intangible asset 'goodwill':
- all of the above are correct.
- arises because the market value of a company's assets is greater than cost.
- may arise when one company purchases another company.
- represents the management team's assessment of its value to the company.
A: may arise when one company purchases another company.

Q: The accounting concept or principle applied when the cost of short-term marketable securities is adjusted to market value is:
- consistency.
- original cost.
- matching revenue and expense.
- objectivity.
A: matching revenue and expense.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 July 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-declining balance method.

What is the firm's gain or loss if the machinery is sold for $11 000 on 31 June 2006?
- Loss of $4 000
- Gain of $600
- Loss of $3 080
- Gain of $4 000
A: Loss of $3 080

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the reducing-balance depreciation method, first year depreciation will be:
- $15 000
- $20 000
- $27 143
- $27 100
A: $27 143

Q: The effect of an adjustment on the financial statements is usually to:
- increase the accuracy of both the balance sheet and the income statement.
- increase net profit.
- make the balance sheet balance.
- match revenues and assets.
A: increase the accuracy of both the balance sheet and the income statement.

Q: The internal control process relates:
- fundamentally to ascertaining and maintaining the entity's profits.
- primarily to the amount of cash available in the entity's bank account.
- to every level of the organisation.
- mainly to safeguarding against the misuse of cash.
A: to every level of the organisation.

Q: An informed user of accounting and financial data:
- means knowing how to use those data as information.
- means knowing how to use that information as data.
- knows what financial and accounting data to make use of for commercial purposes.
- is one who is qualified to use accounting and financial data.
A: means knowing how to use those data as information.

Q: ABC Ltd bought a machine on 1 July 2003 at $100 000. Estimated useful life of the machine is 20 years and its estimated salvage value is $5 000. Using straight-line

depreciation, its annual depreciation expense will be:
- $4 000
- $5 000
- $4 750
- $5 750
A: $4 750

Q: An _________________lease is an ordinary, frequently _____________________lease for the use of an asset that does not involve any attributes of _______________________.
- finance, long-term, control.
- finance, short-term, ownership.
- operating, long-term, control.
- operating, short-term, ownership.
A: operating, short-term, ownership.

Q: The allowance for collectable accounts is a [Image: no]:
- expense.
- contra current asset.
- asset.
- contra revenue.
A: contra current asset.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of an inventory account a manufacturing company might use?
- Raw materials inventory
- Finished goods inventory
- Work in process inventory
- Inventory
A: Inventory

Q: With respect to the write-off of an uncollectible account receivable against the allowance for bad debts, a sound system of internal control would require:
- the write-off to be made within six months after the date of sale.
- a lawsuit to be initiated to recover the uncollectible amount.
- the write-off to be approved by two employees.
- an investigation of why credit was extended to this customer in the first place.
A: the write-off to be approved by two employees.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 July 2003. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the firm's depreciation expense for the year ended 30 June 2004?
- $2 000
- $6 000
- $4 400
- $8 800
A: $4 400

Q: The cost of property, plant and equipment is transferred to ____________________over time through accounting ______________________.
- expense, depreciation.
- amortisation, expenses.
- depreciation, amortisation.
- profit and loss, credits.
A: expense, depreciation.

Q: When an uncollectible account receivable is written off against the allowance for bad debts:
- current assets decrease and expenses are not affected.
- total current assets decrease and expenses decrease.
- total current assets are not affected.
- total current assets decrease and expenses increase.
A: total current assets are not affected.

Q: The current assets of most companies are usually made up of:
- cash, marketable securities, and accounts and loans receivable.
- a very small proportion (less than 10%) of the total assets of the entity.
- cash and assets expected to be converted to cash within a year.
- assets that are currently used in the operations of the company.
A: cash and assets expected to be converted to cash within a year.

Q: Which of the following is not a principal form of business organisation?
- Corporation
- Limited unregistered business
- Sole proprietorship
- Partnership
A: Limited unregistered business

Q: The principal reason for converting a customer's account receivable to a loan receivable is:
- the customer is more likely to continue purchasing the company's products.
- working capital is immediately increased.
- the receivable is less likely to have to be written off as uncollectible.
- the loan receivable earns interest and the account receivable does not.
A: the loan receivable earns interest and the account receivable does not.

Q: Which of the following statements is false?
- allegations that accountants have violated their code of conduct have been used to reaffirm that the public and the profession expect accountants to exhibit a very high level of ethical behaviour.
- the bookkeeping process is part of the accounting information system planned and supervised by accountants.
- the fact that some highly publicised incidents involving allegations that accountants have violated their code of conduct is true should be used to condemn all accountants' behaviour.
- an unqualified audit opinion does not alleviate the need for readers to make their own judgments about the financial health and security of investing in the firm being audited.
A: the fact that some highly publicised incidents involving allegations that accountants have violated their code of conduct is true should be used to condemn all accountants' behaviour.

Q: Retained Earnings represents:
- cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.
- cash that is available for dividends.
- par value of ordinary shares outstanding.
- the amount invested in the entity by the owners.
A: cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.

Q: At the beginning of the year, paid-in capital was $82 and retained earnings were $47. During the year, the owners invested $24 and dividends of $6 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the end of the year were $52.

Net profit for the year was:
- $20
- $15
- $11
- $10
A: $11

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Liabilities at the end of the year totalled:
- $910
- $836
- $528
- $490
A: $490

Q: Dividends that have been declared but not paid as at balance sheet date have which of the following combination of effects on the records of the entity?
- a reduction of retained earnings and a current liability.
- a reduction of retained earnings and an expense.
- an expense and a contra asset.
- an expense and a current liability.
A: a reduction of retained earnings and a current liability.

Q: The balance sheet might also be called:
- Statement of Change in Financial Position.
- None of the above.
- Statement of Assets.
- Statement of Financial Position.
A: Statement of Financial Position.

Q: When a depreciable asset is sold:
- a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.
- a loss arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.
- any cash received results in a gain.
- depreciation expense is adjusted so there is no gain or loss.
A: a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.

Q: Expenditures capitalised as long-lived assets generally include those expenditures that:
- are material and that have an economic benefit to the entity that extends beyond the current year.
- are material and that have an economic benefit to the entity only in the current year.
- are for items that have a physical life of more than a year, regardless of their cost.
- are made for normal repairs to maintain the usefulness of the asset over a number of years.
A: are material and that have an economic benefit to the entity that extends beyond the current year.

Q: Management accounting (or cost accounting) is:
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth)
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
A: the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.

Q: If, in undertaking a bank reconciliation for an entity a bank error is discovered in the bank statement, the appropriate thing to do is:
- don't notify the bank unless it is a 'material' amount, as the reconciliation process will still work because both the entity and the bank's records will be out of balance equally by the amount of the error.
- notify the bank and check to ensure the bank has followed through and fixed the error, but continue to complete the reconciliation procedure allowing for the bank error.
- notify the bank and wait for the next period's bank statement to arrive to see if the error has been corrected, and then reconcile both sets of records for both accounting periods.
- notify the bank and wait for the next period's bank statement to arrive to see if the error has been corrected, in which case there will be no need to adjust for the error.
A: notify the bank and check to ensure the bank has followed through and fixed the error, but continue to complete the reconciliation procedure allowing for the bank error.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of an inventory account a manufacturing company might use?
- Inventory
- Finished goods inventory
- Work in process inventory
- Raw materials inventory
A: Inventory

Q: Accounting transactions can be described as:
- economic exchanges between entities.
- the means of communication between and entity and outsiders.
- the end product of the financial accounting process.
- the legal codification of a contract.
A: economic exchanges between entities.

Q: Regardless of the inventory cost flow assumption used, inventories on the balance sheet are stated at:
- the lower of cost or market.
- replacement cost.
- original cost.
- realisable value.
A: the lower of cost or market.

Q: The balance sheet of an entity:
- shows amounts that are not adjusted for changes in the purchasing power of the dollar.
- reports plant and equipment at its opportunity cost.
- shows the fair market value of the assets at the date of the balance sheet.
- reflects the impact of inflation on the replacement cost of the assets.
A: shows amounts that are not adjusted for changes in the purchasing power of the dollar.

Q: The income statement is linked to the _________ through the _________ component of owners' equity.

i. balance sheet

ii. revenues

iii. expenses

iv. retained profits
- i and iv
- ii and iv
- i and iii
- i and ii
A: i and iv

Q: Retained Earnings represents:
- cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.
- cash that is available for dividends.
- the amount invested in the entity by the owners.
- par value of ordinary shares outstanding.
A: cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the reducing-balance depreciation method, first year depreciation will be:
- $15 000
- $20 000
- $27 100
- $27 143
A: $27 143

Q: Which of the following accounting concepts/principles is most significant in the development of a capitalisation policy?
- matching of revenue and expense
- consistency
- original cost
- materiality
A: materiality

Q: When two or more non-current assets are acquired in a single transaction, the cost of each individual asset is measured and recorded by an allocation of the basket purchase price to the individual assets acquired, based on:
- their relative appraisal values as at date of acquisition.
- allocating a greater proportion of cost to a depreciable asset versus a non-depreciable asset, because the depreciable asset will eventually wear out.
- the incurrence of installation and commissioning costs for each item as at date of acquisition.
- their respective estimated useful lives as at date of acquisition.
A: their relative appraisal values as at date of acquisition.

Q: Many companies use accelerated depreciation for tax purposes because:
- it is used for determining net profit reported to shareholders.
- it results in lower taxable income than straight-line depreciation.
- it is easier to calculate than straight-line depreciation.
- it reflects the amount of cash used in depreciation.
A: it results in lower taxable income than straight-line depreciation.

Q: When a depreciable asset is sold:
- depreciation expense is adjusted so there is no gain or loss.
- any cash received results in a gain.
- a loss arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.
- a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.
A: a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.

Q: In a ____________statement the section titled 'cash from operating activities' is shown first, itemising the _______________consequences of the _____________.
- owners' equity, fiscal, operating.
- cash flow, cash, income.
- balance sheet, cash, income.
- cash flow, fiscal, income.
A: cash flow, cash, income.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 January 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the accumulated depreciation for this asset on December 31, 2005?
- $16 000
- None of the above.
- $14 800
- $6 400
- $8 000
A: None of the above.

Q: Accounting information is useful because:
- it makes boring data into interesting data.
- it provides information for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments.
- . it facilitates the transformation of previously unimportant information into important factual data for accounting purposes.
- it helps accountants separate their debits from their credits.
A: it provides information for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments.

Q: An _________________lease is an ordinary, frequently _____________________lease for the use of an asset that does not involve any attributes of _______________________.
- operating, long-term, control.
- finance, long-term, control.
- finance, short-term, ownership.
- operating, short-term, ownership.
A: operating, short-term, ownership.

Q: Current Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and auditing standards require the financial statements of an entity for the reporting period to include:
- current market values of all assets at the end of the period.
- financial position at the end of the period.
- projected earnings for the subsequent period.
- earnings and gross receipts of cash for the period.
A: financial position at the end of the period.

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed NET ASSETS of $1 025 and liabilities of $225. Owners' equity on July 31 was:
- $225
- $1 025
- $800
- $1 250
A: $1 025

Q: The time frame associated with a balance sheet is:
- a point in time in the past.
- a function of the information included in it.
- a one-year past period of time.
- a single date in the future.
A: a point in time in the past.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a transaction to be recorded in the accounting records of

an entity?
- Receipt of a plaque recognising the firm's encouragement of employee participation in the United Way fund drive.
- Investment of cash by the owners.
- Receipt of services from a 'quick-print' shop in exchange for the promise to provide advertising design services of equivalent value.
- Sale of product to customers.
A: Receipt of a plaque recognising the firm's encouragement of employee participation in the United Way fund drive.

Q: Goodwill is an asset that arises because the present value of an acquired company's estimated future earnings, discounted at the acquiring firm's ROA:
- is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquiring company.
- is LESS THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquiring company.
- is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.
- is LESS THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.
A: is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.

Q: The 'statement of changes in owner's equity' (or 'statement of changes in share capital' or 'statement of changes in retained earnings') shows which of the following?
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the result for the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
A: investments by and distributions to owners during the period.

Q: The accounting process is used to provide information about an organization or 'entity' for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments. Who makes these decisions and informed judgments?
- only existing and potential investors, but a wide range of them.
- only 'qualified' people.
- a wide range of users of the entity including management, owners and employees, investors, creditors and various government agencies.
- owners of the organization/entity (including their executives and accountants, and each of their spouses and families).
A: a wide range of users of the entity including management, owners and employees, investors, creditors and various government agencies.

Q: With respect to the write-off of an uncollectible account receivable against the allowance for bad debts, a sound system of internal control would require:
- the write-off to be made within six months after the date of sale.
- an investigation of why credit was extended to this customer in the first place.
- the write-off to be approved by two employees.
- a lawsuit to be initiated to recover the uncollectible amount.
A: the write-off to be approved by two employees.

Q: A concept or principle that relates to transactions is:
- consistency.
- original cost.
- matching of revenue and expense.
- materiality.
A: original cost.

Q: A perceived disadvantage of the sole trader form of business organisation is:
- the ease with which one can commence a business.
- the unlimited nature of the owner's personal liability.
- the lack of formal requirements needed to start operations.
- being one's own boss.
A: the unlimited nature of the owner's personal liability.

Q: The principle of full disclosure pertains to:
- the entity fully disclosing all necessary information to prevent all users of financial statements from being misled.
- the entity fully disclosing all necessary information to prevent a reasonably astute user of financial statements from being misled.
- the entity fully disclosing all proprietary information.
- the entity fully disclosing all client data.
A: the entity fully disclosing all necessary information to prevent a reasonably astute user of financial statements from being misled.

Q: The time frame associated with an income statement is:
- a point in time in the past.
- a function of the information included in it.
- a future period of time.
- a past period of time.
A: a past period of time.

Q: The balance sheet presentation of accounts receivable net of the allowance for doubtful accounts has the effect of stating accounts receivable at:
- original cost.
- lower of cost or market
- market value.
- net realisable value.
A: net realisable value.

Q: Which of the following is not a principal form of business organisation?
- Limited unregistered business
- Sole proprietorship
- Partnership
- Corporation
A: Limited unregistered business

Q: The company form of organisation has the following as one of its many advantages:
- the cost of forming a company is greater than other forms of business organisation.
- it is heavily regulated.
- its income is taxed first prior to distributing income to its shareholders.
- its shareholders have limited liability.
A: its shareholders have limited liability.

Q: A newspaper advertisement submitted and published this week, with the agreement to pay for it next week would, in the advertiser's records:
- increase liabilities and increase expenses.
- increase assets and decrease liabilities.
- decrease assets and increase revenue.
- decrease assets and decrease expenses.
A: increase liabilities and increase expenses.

Q: The reason for recording a prepaid expense as a current asset is:
- to avoid recognising an expense so net profit will be higher for the current accounting period.
- that the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.
- that the prepaid item will be returned for a cash refund.
- that the expense has been incurred but not yet paid.
A: that the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.

Q: Although approximate market value would be more relevant than original cost of non-current assets for decision-makers, original cost is defended due to its:
- variability, effectiveness and appropriateness.
- reliability, consistency and conservatism.
- pragmatism, irregularity and decision-making ability.
- subjective nature and practical application.
A: reliability, consistency and conservatism.

Q: Which of the following inventory accounting systems has been made much more feasible as a result of computer systems developments?
- Physical
- Periodic
- Just-in-time
- Perpetual
A: Perpetual

Q: If there is a loss on the disposal of a depreciable asset:
- in retrospect, the depreciation expense recognised over the asset's life was too low.
- the net book value of the asset was negative.
- no cash was received in the disposal transaction.
- in retrospect, the life over which the asset was depreciated was too short.
A: in retrospect, the depreciation expense recognised over the asset's life was too low.

Q: ABC Ltd bought a machine on 1 July 2003 at $100 000. Estimated useful life of the machine is 20 years and its estimated salvage value is $5 000. Using straight-line

depreciation, its annual depreciation expense will be:
- $4 750
- $4 000
- $5 000
- $5 750
A: $4 750

Q: If an organisation purchases $700 of supplies on account, with terms of 2/15, n50:
- . $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $714 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
- $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $700 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
- $698 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
- $650 must be paid within 15 days of the invoice date.
A: $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $700 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.

Q: One of the most important reasons for having a system of internal control is to:
- prevent a salesperson from using a company car for personal transportation.
- eliminate any temptations that may be presented to employees that could lead to theft from the company.
- ensure no employees have ever been convicted of stealing.
- improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the operations of the organisation.
A: improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the operations of the organisation.

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed total assets of $750 and liabilities of $250.

Owners' equity at July 31 was:
- $250
- $750
- $1 000
- $500
A: $500

Q: Revenues are:
- increases in net assets from occasional sales of equipment.
- increases in net assets from selling a product.
- cash receipts.
- increases in net assets from selling ordinary shares.
A: increases in net assets from selling a product.

Q: In the bank reconciliation process, deposits in transit indicate:
- amounts of money received by the business but not yet added to the bank's records.
- the bank has recorded some transactions about which the entity is not yet aware.
- deposits received by the bank but not yet added to the entity's own records.
- amounts of the day's takings authorised by the accounting department to be banked that are being taken to the bank but which have not yet arrived.
A: amounts of money received by the business but not yet added to the bank's records.

Q: Which of the following items would be recorded in the accounts as a liability?
- obligations of the entity to suppliers for goods and services that have been provided to the entity on credit terms.
- negotiations for the possible purchase of inventory.
- contingent losses on unsettled lawsuits against the entity where the amount cannot be reliably estimated.
- the intention to refurbish or conduct extensive repairs and maintenance.
A: obligations of the entity to suppliers for goods and services that have been provided to the entity on credit terms.

Q: When a firm sells its land, the:
- selling price of the land will be reported in the income statement of the period.
- difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the balance sheet.
- difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the income statement of the period.
- cost of the land will be reported in the income statement of the period.
A: difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the income statement of the period.

Q: The sale of inventory on account would, in the seller's records:
- increase assets and decrease revenues.
- increase assets and increase Contributed Capital.
- increase assets and increase expenses.
- increase assets and decrease liabilities.
A: increase assets and increase expenses.

Q: Consolidated financial statements report financial position, results of operations, and cash

flows for:
- a parent corporation and its subsidiaries.
- a parent corporation and its 100% owned subsidiaries only.
- two corporations that are owned by the same individual.
- a parent corporation alone.
A: a parent corporation and its subsidiaries.

Q: The effect of an adjustment is:
- to increase the accuracy of the financial statements.
- to close the books.
- to record transactions not previously recorded.
- to correct an entry that was not in balance.
A: to increase the accuracy of the financial statements.

Q: When a firm buys land on which there is a building, and the building is torn down so that an appropriate new building can be constructed on the land:
- any of the purchase cost allocated to the old building is capitalised as part of the cost of the new building.
- the total cost of the land and old building are capitalised as land cost.
- any of the purchase cost allocated to the old building is reported as a loss.
- the cost assigned to the land excludes the cost of the old building.
A: the total cost of the land and old building are capitalised as land cost.

Q: The entity for which accounting is done and financial statements are prepared:
- can be defined by the accountant.
- cannot be a combination of personal and business activities.
- must be a corporation.
- must be a business enterprise.
A: can be defined by the accountant.

Q: The allowance for collectable accounts is a [Image: no]:
- contra revenue.
- expense.
- contra current asset.
- asset.
A: contra current asset.

Q: Matching revenues and expenses refers to:
- accurately reflecting the results of operations for a fiscal period.
- recording revenues when a product is sold or a service is rendered.
- recording revenues when cash is received.
- having revenues equal expenses.
A: accurately reflecting the results of operations for a fiscal period.

Q: When an accelerated depreciation method is used to calculate depreciation expense:
- the net book value of the asset halfway through its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- the accumulated depreciation account balance will increase by a larger amount in the last half of an asset's life than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- depreciation expense will be less in the early years of the asset's life than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- the net book value of the asset at the end of its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.
A: the net book value of the asset halfway through its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.

Q: An informed user of accounting and financial data:
- knows what financial and accounting data to make use of for commercial purposes.
- means knowing how to use those data as information.
- is one who is qualified to use accounting and financial data.
- means knowing how to use that information as data.
A: means knowing how to use those data as information.

Q: Accumulated depreciation on a balance sheet:
- recognises the economic loss in value of an asset because of its age or use.
- represents cash that will be used to replace worn-out equipment.
- represents the portion of the cost of an asset that has been 'used up' in the process of operating the business.
- is part of owners' equity.
A: represents the portion of the cost of an asset that has been 'used up' in the process of operating the business.

Q: When a firm purchases supplies for its business:
- either the supplies account or the supplies expense account should be credited.
- the supplies expense account should always be debited.
- an adjustment will probably be required as supplies are used.
- the supplies account should always be debited.
A: an adjustment will probably be required as supplies are used.

Q: An accounts receivable results from the sale of:
- Goods and services to customers for cash.
- The firm's ordinary shares.
- Goods and services to customers on account
- Property, plant and equipment for cash
A: Goods and services to customers on account

Q: Accrual accounting:
- means that expenses are recorded when they are paid.
- results in the balance sheet showing the fair market value of the entity's assets.
- is designed to match revenues and expenses.
- cannot result in the entity having net profit unless cash is received from customers.
A: is designed to match revenues and expenses.

Q: Financial accounting is:
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
A: the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.

Q: The purchase of inventory on account would, in the buyer's records:
- increase assets and increase liabilities.
- have no effect on total assets.
- increase liabilities and increase contributed capital.
- increase assets and increase expenses.
A: increase assets and increase liabilities.

Q: The principal reason for reconciling the cash balance per books with the balance shown

on the bank statement is to:
- determine the amount of cash in the account actually available to the entity.
- determine whether or not the entity has issued a cheque.
- verify the amount of petty cash on hand.
- satisfy generally accepted accounting principles.
A: determine the amount of cash in the account actually available to the entity.

Q: The balance in the Accrued Wages Payable account increased from $12 200 at the beginning of the month to $15 000 at the end of the month. Wages accrued during the month totalled $61 000. Which of the following is true?
- Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.
- Wages paid during the month totalled $64 800.
- Wages expense for the month totalled $76 000.
- Wages expense for the month totalled $58 200.
A: Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.

Q: For which of the following reconciling items would an adjusting entry be necessary?
- a bank service charge
- an outstanding cheque
- a deposit in transit
- an error by the bank
A: a bank service charge

Q: When a manufacturer invests in short-term marketable securities:
- the securities are likely to have a maturity date more than a year in the future.
- risk avoidance is of great importance.
- the market value of the securities is likely to fluctuate significantly.
- the return on investment is more important than the risk involved.
A: risk avoidance is of great importance.

Q: Which of the following statements best describes the process of accounting for depreciation?
- A process for recognising all of the cost associated with using an asset in a revenue generating activity.
- A process for recognising the cost of an asset that should be matched against revenue earned as a result of using the asset.
- A process for setting aside cash so funds will be available to replace the asset.
- A process that attempts to recognise loss in economic value over a period of time.
A: A process for recognising the cost of an asset that should be matched against revenue earned as a result of using the asset.

Q: Which of the following is correct?
- A transaction can affect two or more than two accounts.
- A transaction can affect more than two accounts.
- A transaction can affect two accounts only.
- A transaction can affect one account only.
A: A transaction can affect two or more than two accounts.

Q: Accounts receivable are reported at:
- weighted average cost.
- historical cost
- net realisable value.
- market value.
A: net realisable value.

Q: Martin & Associates borrowed $5 000 on 1 April 2003 at 8% interest with both principal and interest due on 31 March 2004. How much should be in the firm's interest payable account at 31 December 2003?
- $333
- $0
- $300
- $400
A: $300

Q: In the horizontal model, the amount of expense is shown as _________ because expense reduces _________, which reduces _________.
- minus, owners' equity, net profit
- plus, owners' equity, net profit
- plus, net profit, owners' equity
- minus, net profit, owners' equity
A: minus, net profit, owners' equity

Q: A newspaper advertisement submitted and published this week, with the agreement to pay for it next week would, in the newspaper's records:
- have no effect on total assets.
- increase assets and increase expenses.
- increase assets and decrease liabilities.
- increase assets and increase revenues.
A: increase assets and increase revenues.

Q: Financial statements are comprised of:
- income statement, funds statement, balance sheet, statement of changes in owner's equity, cash flow statement.
- income statement, balance sheet, statement of changes in owner's equity, cash flow statement.
- cash flow statement, auditor's statement, income statement, balance sheet.
- income statement, balance sheet, statement of changes in owner's equity, cash flow statement, auditor's statement.
A: income statement, balance sheet, statement of changes in owner's equity, cash flow statement.

Q: A financial year:
- must end on the last day of a month.
- is frequently selected based on the firm's operating cycle.
- is always the same as the calendar year.
- must always end on the same date each year.
A: is frequently selected based on the firm's operating cycle.

Q: If X Ltd owed $5,000 to Y Ltd at the same time Y Ltd owed $6,000 to X Ltd, and they agreed to 'offset' $5,000 of this amount to each other, what is the effect on the accounting equation when Y Ltd pays the additional $1,000 it owes to X Ltd?
- there is no net effect ie. assets remain the same as receivables decrease by $1,000 and bank increases by $1,000.
- the accounting equation is not affected.
- liabilities decrease by $1,000 and assets increase by $1,000.
- owners' equity and assets both increase by $1,000.
A: there is no net effect ie. assets remain the same as receivables decrease by $1,000 and bank increases by $1,000.

Q: The cost of property, plant and equipment is transferred to ____________________over time through accounting ______________________.
- expense, depreciation.
- amortisation, expenses.
- profit and loss, credits.
- depreciation, amortisation.
A: expense, depreciation.

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed total assets of $750 and liabilities of $250.

Owners' equity at July 31 was:
- $1 000
- $500
- $250
- $750
A: $500

Q: An outstanding cheque in the bank reconciliation process refers to:
- a very good 'quality' cheque.
- a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.
- one of the bank reconciliation steps has not yet been completed and consequently has not been checked by someone with appropriate authority.
- a cheque that has 'bounced' from the issuer's bank because there was insufficient funds to honour it.
A: a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.

Q: Wisdom Co. has a loan payable to its bank. An adjustment is likely to be required on Wisdom's books at the end of every month that the loan is outstanding, to record the:
- accrued interest expense for the month.
- amount of principal payable at the maturity date of the loan.
- amount of interest paid during the month.
- amount of total interest to be paid when the loan is paid off
A: accrued interest expense for the month.

Q: The most important factor to consider in a trade-in transaction is:
- the cash that will be paid to the seller.
- the gain or loss that will have to be recorded.
- the trade-in allowance offered for the old asset.
- the list price of the new asset.
A: the cash that will be paid to the seller.

Q: Which of the following accounting concepts/principles is most significant in the development of a capitalisation policy?
- materiality
- consistency
- original cost
- matching of revenue and expense
A: materiality

Q: Which of the following statements would not usually be found in the terms and/or conditions of an overdraft facility obtained by a firm from its bank?
- the balance should fluctuate, with the balance being positive at regular intervals during the year.
- the facility has a predetermined maximum amount, but the firm has flexibility in the timing and amount borrowed.
- the long-term loan has a flexible repayment date and no specific interest rate.
- a maturity date specifying when the loan is to be repaid.
A: the long-term loan has a flexible repayment date and no specific interest rate.

Q: The 'cash flow statement' shows which of the following for the reporting period?
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
- the result for the period.
A: the cash flows during the period.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 July 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-declining balance method.

What is the firm's gain or loss if the machinery is sold for $11 000 on 31 June 2006?
- Gain of $600
- Loss of $3 080
- Gain of $4 000
- Loss of $4 000
A: Loss of $3 080

Q: One of the most important reasons for having a system of internal control is to:
- eliminate any temptations that may be presented to employees that could lead to theft from the company.
- improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the operations of the organisation.
- prevent a salesperson from using a company car for personal transportation.
- ensure no employees have ever been convicted of stealing.
A: improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the operations of the organisation.

Q: Regardless of the inventory cost flow assumption used, inventories on the balance sheet are stated at:
- realisable value.
- the lower of cost or market.
- replacement cost.
- original cost.
A: the lower of cost or market.

Q: The effect of an adjustment is:
- to close the books.
- to record transactions not previously recorded.
- to increase the accuracy of the financial statements.
- to correct an entry that was not in balance.
A: to increase the accuracy of the financial statements.

Q: When an uncollectible account receivable is written off against the allowance for bad debts:
- current assets decrease and expenses are not affected.
- total current assets decrease and expenses decrease.
- total current assets decrease and expenses increase.
- total current assets are not affected.
A: total current assets are not affected.

Q: When a firm purchases supplies for use in its business, and the cost of the supplies purchased is recorded as an asset, the following adjustment to recognise the cost of supplies used will probably be required:
- increase supplies expense and decrease supplies.
- increase supplies and decrease supplies expense.
- increase supplies and increase accounts payable.
- No adjustment will probably be required.
A: increase supplies expense and decrease supplies.

Q: The two broad categories of depreciation calculation methods are known as:
- straight-line and accelerated depreciation.
- accelerated depreciation and units-of-production.
- straight-line and reducing-balance.
- reducing-balance and units-of-production.
A: straight-line and accelerated depreciation.

Q: ABC Ltd bought a machine on 1 July 2003 at $100 000. Estimated useful life of the machine is 20 years and its estimated salvage value is $5 000. Using straight-line

depreciation, its annual depreciation expense will be:
- $4 750
- $5 750
- $4 000
- $5 000
A: $4 750

Q: Accounting information is useful because:
- it provides information for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments.
- it makes boring data into interesting data.
- . it facilitates the transformation of previously unimportant information into important factual data for accounting purposes.
- it helps accountants separate their debits from their credits.
A: it provides information for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a transaction to be recorded in the accounting records of

an entity?
- Receipt of a plaque recognising the firm's encouragement of employee participation in the United Way fund drive.
- Receipt of services from a 'quick-print' shop in exchange for the promise to provide advertising design services of equivalent value.
- Sale of product to customers.
- Investment of cash by the owners.
A: Receipt of a plaque recognising the firm's encouragement of employee participation in the United Way fund drive.

Q: Goodwill is an intangible asset. If a company is purchased at $100 000 and its fair market value is

$40 000 and it has loans payable of $20 000, the effect of this transaction on

financial statements is to:
- increase liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, increase assets by $80 000
- decrease liabilities by $20 000, increase assets by $100 000, decrease assets by $80 000
- decrease liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, decrease assets by $80 000
- decrease liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, increase assets by $80 000
A: increase liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, increase assets by $80 000

Q: The key to using the horizontal method is to keep the _________ in _________.

i. income statement

ii. balance sheet

iii. financial statements

iv. balance
- ii, iv
- ii, iii
- i, ii
- i, iv
A: ii, iv

Q: Consolidated financial statements report financial position, results of operations, and cash

flows for:
- a parent corporation and its 100% owned subsidiaries only.
- two corporations that are owned by the same individual.
- a parent corporation and its subsidiaries.
- a parent corporation alone.
A: a parent corporation and its subsidiaries.

Q: Martin & Associates borrowed $5 000 on 1 April 2003 at 8% interest with both principal and interest due on 31 March 2004. How much should be in the firm's interest payable account at 31 December 2003?
- $333
- $300
- $400
- $0
A: $300

Q: Owner's equity at ____________of year, Plus contributions of additional ___________, Plus _____________, Less ________________, Equals owners' equity at ___________________of year.
- beginning, equity, profit, dividends, end.
- end, equity, profit, dividends, beginning.
- end, shares, liabilities, assets, beginning.
- beginning, equity, dividends, interest, end.
A: beginning, equity, profit, dividends, end.

Q: An organisation's system of internal control is designed primarily to:
- provide an operating framework for all employees as they work to achieve the organisation's goals.
- ensure that the organisation's balance sheet will always balance.
- increase efficiency by letting one employee handle all aspects of a transaction from beginning to end.
- ensure that no employees steal the organisation's property.
A: provide an operating framework for all employees as they work to achieve the organisation's goals.

Q: The accounting concept/principle being applied when an adjustment is made is usually:
- materiality.
- original cost.
- consistency
- matching revenue and expense.
A: matching revenue and expense.

Q: Using the horizontal model, the effect of accrual of interest income on financial statements is to:
- decrease interest receivable, decrease interest income.
- decrease interest receivable, increase interest income.
- increase interest receivable, increase interest income.
- decrease interest payable, increase interest income.
A: increase interest receivable, increase interest income.

Q: The balance in the Accrued Wages Payable account increased from $12 200 at the beginning of the month to $15 000 at the end of the month. Wages accrued during the month totalled $61 000. Which of the following is true?
- Wages expense for the month totalled $76 000.
- Wages expense for the month totalled $58 200.
- Wages paid during the month totalled $64 800.
- Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.
A: Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.

Q: Sage Inc. has 20 employees who each earn $100 per day and are paid every Thursday. The end of the accounting period is on a Wednesday. How much in wages should the firm accrue at the end of the period?
- $1 000
- $6 000
- $0
- $2 000
A: $6 000

Q: Leasehold is an example of which of the following types of assets?
- property, plant & equipment
- current asset
- intangible asset
- goodwill
A: intangible asset

Q: Expenses are:
- decreases in net assets resulting from usual operating activities.
- decreases in net assets from uninsured accidents.
- cash disbursements.
- decreases in net assets from dividends to shareholders.
A: decreases in net assets resulting from usual operating activities.

Q: The definition of current assets:
- includes cash and other assets that are currently in the records, but not assets purchased in the future.
- includes inventory that is likely to be converted to cash or consumed within one year or within an operating cycle of the entity.
- includes inventory that is likely to be converted to cash or consumed within one year.
- applies to merchandisers as opposed to service providers.
A: includes inventory that is likely to be converted to cash or consumed within one year or within an operating cycle of the entity.

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the straight line method, annual depreciation will be:
- None of the above.
- $10 000
- $13 571
- $17 142
A: $10 000

Q: The balance sheet might also be called:
- None of the above.
- Statement of Change in Financial Position.
- Statement of Assets.
- Statement of Financial Position.
A: Statement of Financial Position.

Q: Prepaid expenses classified as current assets represent:
- cash that has been segregated to pay for future expenses.
- current year disbursements that will be matched against revenues of the next year.
- current year expenses that have been accrued.
- expenses of the current year that have been paid in advance.
A: current year disbursements that will be matched against revenues of the next year.

Q: Additional Contributed capital represents:
- the difference between the total amounts invested by the owners and the par or stated value of the shares.
- the summation of the total amount invested by the owners and the par or stated value of the shares.
- distributions of earnings that have not been made to the owners.
- distributions of earnings that have been made to the owners.
A: the difference between the total amounts invested by the owners and the par or stated value of the shares.

Q: Adjustment for accrued wages of $100 will be:
- increase liabilities, increase wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
- increase liabilities, decrease wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
- decrease liabilities, decrease wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
- decrease liabilities, increase wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
A: increase liabilities, increase wage expense, decrease owners' equity.

Q: Accounting transactions can be described as:
- economic exchanges between entities.
- the legal codification of a contract.
- the end product of the financial accounting process.
- the means of communication between and entity and outsiders.
A: economic exchanges between entities.

Q: A firm receives $100, owed by its client for work performed in an earlier accounting period. The effect of this transaction will be to:
- increase Cash by $100 and decrease Accounts Receivable by $100.
- decrease Accounts Payable by $100 and increase Cash by $100.
- decrease Cash by $10.
- decrease Accounts Payable by $100 and decrease Cash by $100.
A: increase Cash by $100 and decrease Accounts Receivable by $100.

Q: Which of the following are reclassification adjustments?

i. Prepaid insurance

ii. Revenues received in advance

iii. Cash received from customers after the service is performed.

iv. Cash received from customer before the product is sold
- i, ii, iii and iv
- i, ii and iv
- i and ii
- i, ii and iii
A: i, ii and iv

Q: Which of the following is NOT a term that describes part of the accounting for long-lived assets?
- amortisation
- depletion
- accumulation
- depreciation
A: accumulation

Q: Outstanding cheques have been recorded as _________________in the cash balance of the

_______________________ , but which have not yet been presented to the ___________________for payment.
- reductions, entity, bank.
- reductions, bank, entity.
- additions, bank, entity.
- additions, entity, bank.
A: reductions, entity, bank.

Q: The balance sheet of an entity:
- reflects the impact of inflation on the replacement cost of the assets.
- shows amounts that are not adjusted for changes in the purchasing power of the dollar.
- reports plant and equipment at its opportunity cost.
- shows the fair market value of the assets at the date of the balance sheet.
A: shows amounts that are not adjusted for changes in the purchasing power of the dollar.

Q: Which of the following inventory accounting systems has been made much more feasible as a result of computer systems developments?
- Physical
- Just-in-time
- Perpetual
- Periodic
A: Perpetual

Q: Any ____________on the disposal of a depreciable asset is, in effect, a __________________of the total ______________________expense that has been ________________________over the life of the asset.

A. costs, reduction, original, recorded.
- damage, cost, expected, missed.
- gain/loss, correction, depreciation, recorded.
- costs, reduction, original, recorded.
- correction, record, gain/loss, controlled.
A: gain/loss, correction, depreciation, recorded.

Q: If, in undertaking a bank reconciliation for an entity a bank error is discovered in the bank statement, the appropriate thing to do is:
- notify the bank and wait for the next period's bank statement to arrive to see if the error has been corrected, and then reconcile both sets of records for both accounting periods.
- don't notify the bank unless it is a 'material' amount, as the reconciliation process will still work because both the entity and the bank's records will be out of balance equally by the amount of the error.
- notify the bank and check to ensure the bank has followed through and fixed the error, but continue to complete the reconciliation procedure allowing for the bank error.
- notify the bank and wait for the next period's bank statement to arrive to see if the error has been corrected, in which case there will be no need to adjust for the error.
A: notify the bank and check to ensure the bank has followed through and fixed the error, but continue to complete the reconciliation procedure allowing for the bank error.

Q: The sale of inventory on account would, in the seller's records:
- increase assets and increase Contributed Capital.
- increase assets and decrease liabilities.
- increase assets and increase expenses.
- increase assets and decrease revenues.
A: increase assets and increase expenses.

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Liabilities at the end of the year totalled:
- $528
- $490
- $910
- $836
A: $490

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Owners' equity at the end of the year totalled:
- $1 438
- $948
- $836
- $872
A: $948

Q: The Statement of Cash Flows:
- shows the change in the market value of the entity's ordinary shares during the period.
- shows the dividends that will be paid in the future.
- shows how cash changed during the period.
- is an optional financial statement.
A: shows how cash changed during the period.

Q: When a firm buys land on which there is a building, and the building is torn down so that an appropriate new building can be constructed on the land:
- any of the purchase cost allocated to the old building is capitalised as part of the cost of the new building.
- any of the purchase cost allocated to the old building is reported as a loss.
- the total cost of the land and old building are capitalised as land cost.
- the cost assigned to the land excludes the cost of the old building.
A: the total cost of the land and old building are capitalised as land cost.

Q: The balance sheet presentation of accounts receivable net of the allowance for doubtful accounts has the effect of stating accounts receivable at:
- market value.
- lower of cost or market
- original cost.
- net realisable value.
A: net realisable value.

Q: The accrual of interest on short-term marketable securities results in:
- an increase in current assets and a decrease in net profit.
- an increase in current liabilities and an increase in net profit.
- an increase in non-current assets and an increase in liabilities.
- an increase in current assets and an increase in net profit.
A: an increase in current assets and an increase in net profit.

Q: The change in total revenue, if one alternative is implemented instead of another is referred to as:
- Incremental revenue
- Operating revenue
- Joint revenue
- Sales revenue
A: Incremental revenue

Q: Which of the following is the correct balance sheet presentation for current assets?
- Marketable securities, cash, loans receivable, prepaid expenses.
- Accounts receivable, inventories, prepaid expenses, other current assets.
- Cash, inventories, account receivables, prepaid expenses.
- Cash equivalents, cash, other current assets, accounts receivable.
A: Accounts receivable, inventories, prepaid expenses, other current assets.

Q: The performance report usually reports variances which arise between activities that perform differently from expectations as:
- mitigating or augmented.
- advantageous or disadvantageous.
- favourable or unfavourable.
- short-term or long-term.
A: favourable or unfavourable.

Q: Selling price less variable costs equals:
- Contribution margin
- Markup
- Gross margin
- Net income
A: Contribution margin

Q: Management's use of resources can best be evaluated by focusing on measures of:
- book value.
- liquidity.
- leverage.
- activity.
A: activity.

Q: Cash flows resulting from a company's normal earnings process are reported on the statement of cash flows in the:
- Noncash investing and financing activities section
- Investing activities section
- Operating activities section
- Financing activities section
A: Operating activities section

Q: An individual interested in making a judgment about the profitability of a company should:
- compare the company's ROA for the most recent year with the industry average ROA for the most recent year.
- review the trend of working capital for several years.
- review the trend of the company's ROA for several years.
- calculate the company's ROA for the most recent year.
A: review the trend of the company's ROA for several years.

Q: If accounts payable increased, cash paid for inventory would be equal to
- Purchases plus the accounts payable increase
- Ending inventory plus the accounts payable increase
- Ending inventory minus the accounts payable increase
- Purchases minus the accounts payable increase
A: Purchases minus the accounts payable increase

Q: Break even point is where total sales revenue is equal to:
- total fixed and variable costs and profits.
- total variable costs.
- total fixed costs.
- total fixed and variable costs.
A: total fixed and variable costs.

Q: Times interest earned is:
- A and C.
- earnings before interest and taxes divided by interest expense.
- earnings after interest and taxes divided by interest expense.
- a measure of the firm's ability to earn enough to cover its annual interest requirements.
A: A and C.

Q: Cash inflow from the sale of Land would be reported in which of the following in the statement of cash flows?
- Both A and C
- Investing
- Operating
- Financing
A: Investing

Q: One simplifying cost-volume-profit _______________is that the cost behaviour pattern is _______________within the _____________, not __________________.
- fact, curvilinear, relevant range, linear.
- assumption, linear, relevant range, curvilinear.
- assumption, drawn, graph, outside.
- fact, relevant, range, irrelevant.
A: assumption, linear, relevant range, curvilinear.

Q: The budgeting process most likely to create an attitude supportive of achieving the

organisation's goals is the:
- participative approach.
- proportionate increase approach.
- zero based approach.
- top-down approach.
A: participative approach.

Q: Sales totaled $385,000, net accounts receivable had a beginning and ending balance of $39,000 and $45,500, respectively and customer deposits had a beginning and ending balance of $21,000 and $32,500, respectively. Cash collections from customers were:
- $390,000
- $385,000
- $367,000
- $403,000
A: $390,000

Q: Nowlin & Rudder is a manufacturer of sports equipment. It has been approached by a large European retailer about the possibility of producing a special order of tennis rackets. Under which of the following conditions should Nowlin & Rudder accept this offer?
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the fixed cost related to of the special order
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the incremental cost of the special order
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the total variable cost of the special order
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order
A: The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the incremental cost of the special order

Q: When an income statement shows data for segments of the organisation, and data for each

segment is added together to get totals for the whole organisation:
- direct fixed expenses should be subtracted as one amount in the 'total' column
- only direct revenues and direct expenses should be assigned to segments
- common fixed expenses should be allocated to the segments.
- all expenses should be allocated to the segments.
A: only direct revenues and direct expenses should be assigned to segments

Q: An interested investor would most likely compare a firm's 'dividend yield' to which of the following items to determine the extent to which their investment objectives were being met?
- the firm's prospects of continuing to have enough earnings to cover interest expense, even if the firm suffers a decline in demand.
- the yield available on alternative investments with comparable risk.
- the dividend payout ratio.
- EBIT.
A: the yield available on alternative investments with comparable risk.

Q: Budgets are prepared in the following order:
- Budgeted income statement, budgeted balance sheet, sales forecast, purchases, operating expense, cash
- Budgeted income statement, sales forecast, purchases, operating expense, cash, budgeted balance sheet.
- Sales forecast, purchases, operating expense, budgeted income statement, cash, budgeted balance sheet
- Budgeted income statement, cash, budgeted balance sheet, sales forecast, purchases, operating expense
A: Sales forecast, purchases, operating expense, budgeted income statement, cash, budgeted balance sheet

Q: True Fruit, Inc. sells frozen raspberry fruit bars for $2.50 each. The variable cost per bar is $1.35. Total fixed costs are $25,645. The contribution margin ratio is:
- 0.19
- 0.22
- 0.46
- 0.54
A: 0.46

Q: Which of the following is not a category of financial statement ratios?
- profitability
- prospectus
- financial leverage
- liquidity
A: prospectus

Q: When income is related to the use of assets over a period of time, such as the renting of property or the lending of money, income is recognised:
- in advance.
- as time passes.
- at the end.
- at the beginning.
A: as time passes.

Q: Cash flows for financing activities do not include
- Payment of dividends
- Proceeds from issuing bonds
- Proceeds from issuing shares
- Receipt of dividends
A: Receipt of dividends

Q: Which of the following is incorrect?
- None of the above.
- Dividend payout ratio is annual dividend per share divided by earnings per share.
- The price/earnings ratio is market price of an ordinary share divided by earnings per share.
- Dividend yield is market price per share divided by annual dividend per share.
A: Dividend yield is market price per share divided by annual dividend per share.

Q: Fixed costs classified according to the time frame perspective are known as:
- constant and inconsistent costs
- product costs and period costs
- committed costs and discretionary costs
- direct costs and indirect costs
A: committed costs and discretionary costs

Q: Cash flows for investing activities include payments
- For dividends
- To purchase operating assets
- To employees
- For interest
A: To purchase operating assets

Q: The beginning balance in accounts receivable is $8,000. Sales during the period equaled $15,000. What was the cash received from customers?
- None of the above
- $7,000
- $8,000
- $15,000
A: None of the above

Q: The production budget uses all of the following EXCEPT:
- the beginning inventory quantity.
- the cash receipts budget.
- the inventory policy.
- the sales forecast.
A: the cash receipts budget.

Q: The inventory turnover calculation:
- requires knowledge of the inventory cost flow assumption being used.
- is an alternative way of expressing the number of days' sales in inventory.
- is wrong unless sales is used in the numerator.
- is wrong unless cost of goods sold is used in the numerator.
A: is an alternative way of expressing the number of days' sales in inventory.

Q: Which of the following is incorrect about common size statements?
- Each item of an income statement is expressed as percentage of gross profit.
- Each owners' equity item is expressed as a percentage of total owners' equity.
- Each liability is expressed as a percentage of total liabilities.
- Each asset is expressed as a percentage of total assets.
A: Each item of an income statement is expressed as percentage of gross profit.

Q: A higher P/E ratio means that:
- earnings are expected to decrease.
- investors are wary of the shares.
- the shares are relatively expensive.
- the shares are more reasonably priced.
A: the shares are relatively expensive.

Q: Why is it important that users know which accounting method (eg FIFO versus weighted average cost for inventory) has been used in the financial statements being analysed?
- because this helps to eliminate distortions caused by sales mix changes.
- because the results depend on the type of inventory used in the business.
- because alternative accounting methods affect financial data differently.
- because this will enable the reader to make more money on the investment.
A: because alternative accounting methods affect financial data differently.

Q: If a short-term bank loan were repaid just before the balance sheet date which of the following would change:
- the quick ratio.
- the acid test.
- the current ratio.
- working capital.
A: working capital.

Q: Income includes ___________________, a ______________________flow concept, and _______________________, a ______________________flow concept.
- revenue, net, gains, gross.
- revenue, cash, profit, gross.
- profit, cash, revenue, net.
- revenue, gross, gains, net.
A: revenue, gross, gains, net.

Q: In Australia, the operating activities section of the cash flow statement must be reconciled to net profit according to which method?
- operating.
- indirect.
- direct.
- cash.
A: direct.

Q: The three categories of cash flows to be reported in the cash flow statement are:
- income, investing, financing.
- operating, investing, dividends.
- investing, financing, operating.
- receipts, investing, financing.
A: investing, financing, operating.

Q: The most significant non-cash ____________________item is usually the _______________of the ____________________and the ______________________expenses.
- income statement, subtraction, bad debts, doubtful debts.
- income statement, total, depreciation, amortisation.
- cash flow statement, multiplication, accrued, deferred.
- balance sheet, division, depreciation, amortisation.
A: income statement, total, depreciation, amortisation.

Q: Collections from customers would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Operating activities
- Financing activities
- Investing activities
- Noncash investing and financing activities
A: Operating activities

Q: The beginning balance in accounts receivable is $8,000. Sales during the period equaled $15,000. The ending balance in accounts receivable equals $2,000. What was the cash received from customers?
- $7,000
- $21,000
- $8,000
- $15,000
A: $21,000

Q: Cameron Company is considering discontinuing production of one of its products and buying the product instead. Which of the following would not be relevant to this decision?
- Product quality
- Incremental costs
- Opportunity costs
- Sales price
A: Sales price

Q: If they are to be useful to managers, variances should be reported:
- simultaneously to all managers within a week after the end of the month
- in physical terms and dollar amounts if the variance exceeds 10% of the budget
- in physical terms or dollar amounts as promptly as feasible
- in dollar amounts as soon as all costs are known
A: in physical terms or dollar amounts as promptly as feasible

Q: A performance report for direct labour shows a variance between the budget and actual

amounts. This difference is a:
- direct labour rate variance
- direct labour spending variance
- direct labour efficiency variance
- budget variance
A: budget variance

Q: Which of the following is a correct statement?
- Budgets can stand-alone and should not be used in conjunction with a performance reporting system.
- Budgets can be prepared for a single period or for several periods.
- A discretionary cost cannot be adjusted in the short-run.
- Standard costs are not used in firms that perform repetitive processes.
A: Budgets can be prepared for a single period or for several periods.

Q: Cash payments for dividends would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Noncash investing and financing activities
- Financing activities
- Operating activities
- Investing activities
A: Financing activities

Q: Once standard costs for products or services have been developed:
- they can be used for more than planning and control purposes
- performance reports must be issued if the standards are to be useful
- they need not be revised unless the product or service is modified
- they must be updated monthly to be useful
A: they can be used for more than planning and control purposes

Q: Plant and equipment and turnover:
- is calculated by dividing market value per share by earnings per share
- None of the above.
- is average plant and equipment, divided by sales.
- is sales divided by average plant and equipment.
A: is sales divided by average plant and equipment.

Q: The ________________is a measure of the amount of each dollar of sales that is available to cover operating ________________________ and ______________________, after covering the _____________________.
- profit, cost of goods sold, expenses, gross profit.
- cost of goods sold, profit, expenses, gross profit.
- gross profit, expenses, profit, cost of goods sold.
- profit, expenses, gross profit, cost of goods sold.
A: gross profit, expenses, profit, cost of goods sold.

Q: Bug-Ez Corporation manufactures one product, Itch-A-Way, which, when applied to a bug bite, soothes the itch. The unit contribution margin for Itch-A-Way is $4.20, while total fixed costs amount to $537,000. Given a selling price of $8.25 per unit and a target profit of $147,000, Bug-Ez must have total sales of:
- $683,999
- $709,334
- $1,054,821
- $1,343,578
A: $1,343,578

Q: The cash budget is especially important to a firm when:
- it may have to negotiate a short-term bank loan.
- the P/E ratio has been trending downwards.
- it has a relatively large amount of operating cash.
- there is not a lot of confidence in the sales forecast.
A: it may have to negotiate a short-term bank loan.

Q: Cash flows from operating activities include
- Cash receipts from issuing common stock
- Cash receipts from the sale of operating assets
- Cash receipts and collections from sales of products
- All of the above
A: Cash receipts and collections from sales of products

Q: Which of the following is/are an example(s) of a measure of leverage?
- debt payout ratio
- All of the above.
- debt/equity ratio
- debt yield
A: debt/equity ratio

Q: The dividend payout ratio describes:
- dividends as a percentage of the price/earnings ratio.
- the percentage change in dividends this year compared to last year.
- the relationship of dividends per share to market price per share.
- the proportion of earnings paid as dividends.
A: the proportion of earnings paid as dividends.

Q: Fly-By-Night Toy Co. sells its product for $10 each. Variable costs for last year are $6.50 per unit; fixed costs are $126,000 and sales amounted to 40,000 units. If fixed costs rise by 10%, selling price rises by 10% too but sales units remain at 40,000 items, calculate how much the company's new profit figure per year would become:
- $95,954 (rounded).
- $1,400.
- $54,000.
- $41,400.
A: $41,400.

Q: One of the ___________________of a ___________________inventory system is its ability to determine _______________when the item is ___________________.
- advantages, periodic, cost of goods sold, sold.
- advantages, periodic, cost of goods sold, purchased.
- advantages, perpetual, cost of goods sold, sold.
- advantages, perpetual, cost of goods sold, purchased.
A: advantages, perpetual, cost of goods sold, sold.

Q: The kind of standard that is most useful for planning and control is:
- a past experience standard
- a negotiated standard
- an ideal, or engineered, standard
- an attainable standard.
A: an attainable standard.

Q: Which of the following would not be an investing activity?
- Disposal of plant assets
- Making and collecting loans
- Purchase of available for-sale-securities
- Collection of interest on held-to-maturity securities
A: Collection of interest on held-to-maturity securities

Q: The rule for making sound economic decisions is that one should choose the alternative with the
- Highest revenue
- Lowest opportunity cost
- Highest contribution margin
- Lowest sunk costs
A: Highest contribution margin

Q: True Fruit, Inc. sells frozen raspberry fruit bars for $2.50 each. The variable cost per bar is $1.35. Total fixed costs are $25,645. The breakeven point in units is:
- 25,260
- 10,258
- 22,300
- 18,996
A: 22,300

Q: Contribution Margin is defined as:
- Sales less variable cost and mixed cost
- Selling price less operating expenses
- Sales less fixed cost
- Selling price less variable cost
A: Selling price less variable cost

Q: If it is to be most useful for control purposes, what variance should be reported to the

supervisor responsible for the number of pounds of corn syrup used in the manufacture of a

candy bar?
- Raw material usage variance, expressed in total pounds for the week
- Raw material usage variance, expressed in total pounds for the month.
- Raw material usage variance, expressed as a total cost for the month
- Raw material price variance, expressed in cents per pound.
A: Raw material usage variance, expressed in total pounds for the week

Q: Standards are likely to be most useful when expressed in:
- terms easily related to by the individual whose performance is being evaluated
- total costs for the accounting period for the department being evaluated
- quantities per unit of output from the process being evaluated
- dollars per unit of input to the manufacturing process
A: terms easily related to by the individual whose performance is being evaluated

Q: Which of the following is the last budgeted financial statement to be prepared?
- It doesn't matter which one is prepared last.
- budgeted balance sheet
- budgeted income statement
- cash budget
A: budgeted balance sheet

Q: _____________costs remain constant as activity changes; _________________costs change in ____________________as activity changes.
- variable, fixed, assumptions.
- fixed, variable, total.
- variable, fixed, total.
- semi-variable, fixed, total.
A: fixed, variable, total.

Q: In the __________________a firm's _________________constraints may force a decision about which product(s) should be ____________________next.
- factory, contribution margin, fixed.
- entity, insurance, sold.
- long-term, capacity, sold.
- short-term, capacity, produced.
A: short-term, capacity, produced.

Q: Which of the following is a correct statement?
- All of the above.
- Inventory turnover reflects management's ability to control inventories relative to sales.
- Accounts receivable reflects the efficiency of the firm's collection policies relative to its credit terms.
- Inventory turnover focuses on the efficiency of the firm's inventory management practices.
A: All of the above.

Q: Book value per share of ordinary shares of a manufacturing company:
- is the same as the total balance sheet asset value per share of ordinary shares.
- reflects the fair market value of the company's shares.
- is not a very useful measure most of the time.
- is calculated by dividing market value per share by earnings per share.
A: is not a very useful measure most of the time.

Q: When a corporation has both ordinary shares and preference shares outstanding:
- dividends on preference shares are paid only if the company has current earnings.
- dividends on preference shares are paid only if dividends are to be paid on the ordinary shares.
- preference shareholders receive the same dividend per share as ordinary shareholders.
- dividends on preference shares must be paid before dividends on ordinary shares can be paid.
A: dividends on preference shares must be paid before dividends on ordinary shares can be paid.

Q: Another term for the price/earnings ratio is:
- profit ratio.
- earnings multiple.
- sales multiple.
- cost ratio.
A: earnings multiple.

Q: An entity's current ratio will be influenced by:
- issuance of a share dividend.
- the depreciation method used.
- writing off an overdue account receivable against the allowance for uncollectible accounts.
- the inventory cost flow assumption used.
A: the inventory cost flow assumption used.

Q: Why is it not appropriate to use total assets as reported in a single year-end balance sheet in the denominator of both the return on assets and return on equity ratios?
- because profit was earned during the entire financial year so it should be related to the assets that were used during the (same) entire year.
- because the matching principle is not applied to ratios undergoing financial analysis by seasoned analysts.
- because this relates to the efficiency with which assets were used rather than their effectiveness.
- because the trend of ratios over a period of time is preferable to a single ratio at a single point in time.
A: because profit was earned during the entire financial year so it should be related to the assets that were used during the (same) entire year.

Q: The price/earnings ratio:
- can be used to determine the cash dividend to be received during the year.
- does not usually change by more than 1.0 (e.g. 8.2 to 9.2) during the year.
- is a measure of the relative expensiveness of a firm's ordinary shares.
- is calculated by dividing the earnings multiple by net profit.
A: is a measure of the relative expensiveness of a firm's ordinary shares.

Q: Break even point is where total sales revenue is equal to:
- total fixed and variable costs.
- total fixed and variable costs and profits.
- total variable costs.
- total fixed costs.
A: total fixed and variable costs.

Q: Cash collections from customers during 2008 were $468,500, while net accounts receivable decreased $14,250. Sales reported on the income statement were:
- $482,750
- $440,000
- $497,000
- $454,250
A: $454,250

Q: When two or more non-current assets are acquired in a single transaction, the cost of each individual asset is measured and recorded by an allocation of the basket purchase price to the individual assets acquired, based on:
- allocating a greater proportion of cost to a depreciable asset versus a non-depreciable asset, because the depreciable asset will eventually wear out.
- their relative appraisal values as at date of acquisition.
- the incurrence of installation and commissioning costs for each item as at date of acquisition.
- their respective estimated useful lives as at date of acquisition.
A: their relative appraisal values as at date of acquisition.

Q: Which of the following is not a principal form of business organisation?
- Corporation
- Limited unregistered business
- Partnership
- Sole proprietorship
A: Limited unregistered business

Q: Cash flows resulting from a company's normal earnings process are reported on the statement of cash flows in the:
- Noncash investing and financing activities section
- Operating activities section
- Investing activities section
- Financing activities section
A: Operating activities section

Q: True Fruit, Inc. sells frozen raspberry fruit bars for $2.50 each. The variable cost per bar is $1.35. Total fixed costs are $25,645. The breakeven point in units is:
- 10,258
- 18,996
- 25,260
- 22,300
A: 22,300

Q: If they are to be useful to managers, variances should be reported:
- in dollar amounts as soon as all costs are known
- simultaneously to all managers within a week after the end of the month
- in physical terms or dollar amounts as promptly as feasible
- in physical terms and dollar amounts if the variance exceeds 10% of the budget
A: in physical terms or dollar amounts as promptly as feasible

Q: Martin & Associates borrowed $5 000 on 1 April 2003 at 8% interest with both principal and interest due on 31 March 2004. How much should be in the firm's interest payable account at 31 December 2003?
- $300
- $333
- $0
- $400
A: $300

Q: Which of the following are reclassification adjustments?

i. Prepaid insurance

ii. Revenues received in advance

iii. Cash received from customers after the service is performed.

iv. Cash received from customer before the product is sold
- i and ii
- i, ii, iii and iv
- i, ii and iv
- i, ii and iii
A: i, ii and iv

Q: Which of the following is true?

i. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions occur.

ii. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions affect financial statements.

iii. Transaction analysis can be done prior to the preparation for end of financial year statements.

iv. Transaction analysis helps in knowing whether an analysis makes sense.
- i, ii, iii and iv
- ii, iii and iv
- i, ii and iii
- i and ii
A: ii, iii and iv

Q: True Fruit, Inc. sells frozen raspberry fruit bars for $2.50 each. The variable cost per bar is $1.35. Total fixed costs are $25,645. The contribution margin ratio is:
- 0.19
- 0.46
- 0.54
- 0.22
A: 0.46

Q: The kind of standard that is most useful for planning and control is:
- an attainable standard.
- a past experience standard
- a negotiated standard
- an ideal, or engineered, standard
A: an attainable standard.

Q: Consolidated financial statements report financial position, results of operations, and cash

flows for:
- two corporations that are owned by the same individual.
- a parent corporation and its 100% owned subsidiaries only.
- a parent corporation alone.
- a parent corporation and its subsidiaries.
A: a parent corporation and its subsidiaries.

Q: Cash paid for interest on a note payable would be found in the ______ section of the cash flow statement.
- Both A and B
- Financing
- Investing
- Operating
A: Operating

Q: Which of the following statements is false?
- the bookkeeping process is part of the accounting information system planned and supervised by accountants.
- allegations that accountants have violated their code of conduct have been used to reaffirm that the public and the profession expect accountants to exhibit a very high level of ethical behaviour.
- the fact that some highly publicised incidents involving allegations that accountants have violated their code of conduct is true should be used to condemn all accountants' behaviour.
- an unqualified audit opinion does not alleviate the need for readers to make their own judgments about the financial health and security of investing in the firm being audited.
A: the fact that some highly publicised incidents involving allegations that accountants have violated their code of conduct is true should be used to condemn all accountants' behaviour.

Q: Standards are most appropriately used to:
- penalise workers and managers who do not meet them.
- support the planning and control processes of the firm
- calculate the unit cost of a product or service.
- reward workers and managers who meet them.
A: support the planning and control processes of the firm

Q: Any ____________on the disposal of a depreciable asset is, in effect, a __________________of the total ______________________expense that has been ________________________over the life of the asset.

A. costs, reduction, original, recorded.
- gain/loss, correction, depreciation, recorded.
- costs, reduction, original, recorded.
- damage, cost, expected, missed.
- correction, record, gain/loss, controlled.
A: gain/loss, correction, depreciation, recorded.

Q: If an organisation purchases $700 of supplies on account, with terms of 2/15, n50:
- . $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $714 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
- $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $700 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
- $650 must be paid within 15 days of the invoice date.
- $698 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
A: $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $700 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.

Q: An individual interested in making a judgment about the profitability of a company should:
- compare the company's ROA for the most recent year with the industry average ROA for the most recent year.
- review the trend of the company's ROA for several years.
- calculate the company's ROA for the most recent year.
- review the trend of working capital for several years.
A: review the trend of the company's ROA for several years.

Q: Management's use of resources can best be evaluated by focusing on measures of:
- liquidity.
- book value.
- leverage.
- activity.
A: activity.

Q: Bug-Ez Corporation manufactures one product, Itch-A-Way, which, when applied to a bug bite, soothes the itch. The unit contribution margin for Itch-A-Way is $4.20, while total fixed costs amount to $537,000. Given a selling price of $8.25 per unit and a target profit of $147,000, Bug-Ez must have total sales of:
- $683,999
- $1,343,578
- $709,334
- $1,054,821
A: $1,343,578

Q: If an organisation has an obligation to pay $5 000 to a supplier two years from now, the

present value of the obligation:
- is $5 000.
- could be calculated using an annuity factor from the present value tables.
- is more than $5 000.
- is less than $5 000.
A: is less than $5 000.

Q: With respect to the write-off of an uncollectible account receivable against the allowance for bad debts, a sound system of internal control would require:
- an investigation of why credit was extended to this customer in the first place.
- the write-off to be approved by two employees.
- the write-off to be made within six months after the date of sale.
- a lawsuit to be initiated to recover the uncollectible amount.
A: the write-off to be approved by two employees.

Q: CPA Australia and The Institute of Chartered Accountants have adopted a joint code of professional ethics that requires their members to have and maintain various characteristics. Such characteristics are:
- integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, independence and competence.
- objectivity, integrity, complexity, professionalism, competence.
- objectivity, optimum capacity, political judgment, subjective independence, investor credibility.
- integrity, sustainability, political expediency, assertive behaviour, objective business acumen.
A: integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, independence and competence.

Q: When an accelerated depreciation method is used to calculate depreciation expense:
- the accumulated depreciation account balance will increase by a larger amount in the last half of an asset's life than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- the net book value of the asset halfway through its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- depreciation expense will be less in the early years of the asset's life than if straight-line depreciation is used.
- the net book value of the asset at the end of its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.
A: the net book value of the asset halfway through its useful life will be less than if straight-line depreciation is used.

Q: Income includes ___________________, a ______________________flow concept, and _______________________, a ______________________flow concept.
- profit, cash, revenue, net.
- revenue, gross, gains, net.
- revenue, net, gains, gross.
- revenue, cash, profit, gross.
A: revenue, gross, gains, net.

Q: The balance sheet presentation of accounts receivable net of the allowance for doubtful accounts has the effect of stating accounts receivable at:
- lower of cost or market
- market value.
- net realisable value.
- original cost.
A: net realisable value.

Q: Bad debt expense is recognised in the same accounting period as the revenue that is related to the receivable because:
- all costs incurred in the current period should be subtracted from current period revenues.
- revenues should be stated at realisable value.
- the accounts receivable asset should be stated at original cost.
- the exact amount of the losses from bad debts is known.
A: all costs incurred in the current period should be subtracted from current period revenues.

Q: The price/earnings ratio:
- is calculated by dividing the earnings multiple by net profit.
- does not usually change by more than 1.0 (e.g. 8.2 to 9.2) during the year.
- is a measure of the relative expensiveness of a firm's ordinary shares.
- can be used to determine the cash dividend to be received during the year.
A: is a measure of the relative expensiveness of a firm's ordinary shares.

Q: In Australia, the operating activities section of the cash flow statement must be reconciled to net profit according to which method?
- direct.
- indirect.
- operating.
- cash.
A: direct.

Q: For performance reports to be most effective for management by exception, they should:
- be issued at the same time for all responsibility centres
- show all of the costs associated with the responsibility centre being reported about
- be held until the financial statements for the month have been issued.
- be issued as soon after the activity or period covered as possible
A: be issued as soon after the activity or period covered as possible

Q: When a manufacturer invests in short-term marketable securities:
- risk avoidance is of great importance.
- the securities are likely to have a maturity date more than a year in the future.
- the return on investment is more important than the risk involved.
- the market value of the securities is likely to fluctuate significantly.
A: risk avoidance is of great importance.

Q: An outstanding cheque in the bank reconciliation process refers to:
- a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.
- one of the bank reconciliation steps has not yet been completed and consequently has not been checked by someone with appropriate authority.
- a cheque that has 'bounced' from the issuer's bank because there was insufficient funds to honour it.
- a very good 'quality' cheque.
A: a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.

Q: The 'income statement' (or 'statement of recognised income and expense' or 'statement of financial performance' or 'profit and loss statement') shows which of the following for the reporting period?
- the financial position at the end of the period.
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
- the result for the period.
A: the result for the period.

Q: What is the 'key' to the entire operating budget?
- The production/purchases budget.
- The budgeted income statement.
- The forecast of operating activity.
- The budgeted balance sheet.
A: The forecast of operating activity.

Q: An organisation's system of internal control is designed primarily to:
- increase efficiency by letting one employee handle all aspects of a transaction from beginning to end.
- provide an operating framework for all employees as they work to achieve the organisation's goals.
- ensure that the organisation's balance sheet will always balance.
- ensure that no employees steal the organisation's property.
A: provide an operating framework for all employees as they work to achieve the organisation's goals.

Q: Which of the following is incorrect?
- The price/earnings ratio is market price of an ordinary share divided by earnings per share.
- Dividend payout ratio is annual dividend per share divided by earnings per share.
- Dividend yield is market price per share divided by annual dividend per share.
- None of the above.
A: Dividend yield is market price per share divided by annual dividend per share.

Q: Accounting for natural resources:
- involves an exception to the matching concept.
- involves 150% reducing-balance depletion calculation.
- involves estimating the quantity of the natural resource to be recovered.
- involves using the accumulated depreciation account.
A: involves estimating the quantity of the natural resource to be recovered.

Q: Another term for the price/earnings ratio is:
- profit ratio.
- earnings multiple.
- cost ratio.
- sales multiple.
A: earnings multiple.

Q: The 'matching concept' requires that all _____________incurred in generating that period's revenues be _______________from those _______________earned.
- expenses, deducted, profits.
- business, recycled, profits.
- expenses, deducted, revenues.
- revenues, deducted, expenses.
A: expenses, deducted, revenues.

Q: One of the most important reasons for having a system of internal control is to:
- eliminate any temptations that may be presented to employees that could lead to theft from the company.
- prevent a salesperson from using a company car for personal transportation.
- ensure no employees have ever been convicted of stealing.
- improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the operations of the organisation.
A: improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the operations of the organisation.

Q: The balance sheet valuation of inventories is:
- cost, regardless of the cost of replacing the inventory.
- lower of selling price or cost.
- lower of cost or market.
- lower of realisable value or selling price.
A: lower of cost or market.

Q: Which of the following statements would not usually be found in the terms and/or conditions of an overdraft facility obtained by a firm from its bank?
- the facility has a predetermined maximum amount, but the firm has flexibility in the timing and amount borrowed.
- the long-term loan has a flexible repayment date and no specific interest rate.
- the balance should fluctuate, with the balance being positive at regular intervals during the year.
- a maturity date specifying when the loan is to be repaid.
A: the long-term loan has a flexible repayment date and no specific interest rate.

Q: Which of the following is not a category of financial statement ratios?
- liquidity
- prospectus
- financial leverage
- profitability
A: prospectus

Q: Financial accounting is:
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
A: the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.

Q: The 'cash flow statement' shows which of the following for the reporting period?
- the cash flows during the period.
- the result for the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
A: the cash flows during the period.

Q: ABC Ltd bought a machine on 1 July 2003 at $100 000. Estimated useful life of the machine is 20 years and its estimated salvage value is $5 000. Using straight-line

depreciation, its annual depreciation expense will be:
- $5 750
- $4 750
- $4 000
- $5 000
A: $4 750

Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of an inventory account a manufacturing company might use?
- Finished goods inventory
- Work in process inventory
- Inventory
- Raw materials inventory
A: Inventory

Q: Payments to employees would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Operating activities
- Financing activities
- Investing activities
- Noncash investing and financing activities
A: Operating activities

Q: Which of the following accounting concepts/principles is most significant in the development of a capitalisation policy?
- consistency
- matching of revenue and expense
- materiality
- original cost
A: materiality

Q: Transactions are summarised in _____________and accounts are further _________in the financial _________.
- contracts, recognised, transactions.
- statements, summarised, accounts.
- accounts, summarised, statements.
- transactions, disclosed, contracts.
A: accounts, summarised, statements.

Q: Retained Earnings represents:
- par value of ordinary shares outstanding.
- the amount invested in the entity by the owners.
- cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.
- cash that is available for dividends.
A: cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.

Q: Payment of cash for interest is considered which of the following in the statement of cash flows?
- B and C
- Investing
- Financing
- Operating
A: Operating

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the units-of-production method, depreciation expense for 75 moulds produced each year

will be:
- $27 100
- $15 000
- $34 300
- $20 000
A: $15 000

Q: The Statement of Changes in Owners' Equity shows:
- paid-in capital and long-term debt at the end of the period.
- net profit and dividends for the period.
- the change in cash during a year.
- revenues, expenses and liabilities for the period.
A: net profit and dividends for the period.

Q: Allegro Corporation had total profit of $90,000. Its breakeven point is 15,000 units and its contribution margin was $25 per unit. How many units did Allegro sell?
- 19,000
- 18,600
- 3,600
- Unable to determine from the information given
A: 18,600

Q: When a corporation has both ordinary shares and preference shares outstanding:
- dividends on preference shares must be paid before dividends on ordinary shares can be paid.
- dividends on preference shares are paid only if dividends are to be paid on the ordinary shares.
- preference shareholders receive the same dividend per share as ordinary shareholders.
- dividends on preference shares are paid only if the company has current earnings.
A: dividends on preference shares must be paid before dividends on ordinary shares can be paid.

Q: Opportunity costs:
- Are the foregone benefits of the next best alternative
- Are the combined benefits of all alternatives other than the one selected
- Are the costs associated with the selected alternative
- Are irrelevant
A: Are the foregone benefits of the next best alternative

Q: The point where the total revenue line intersects the total cost line is called the:
- Y axis intercept
- Breakeven point
- Origin
- X axis intercept
A: Breakeven point

Q: Selling price less variable costs equals:
- Contribution margin
- Gross margin
- Net income
- Markup
A: Contribution margin

Q: Revenues are:
- increases in net assets from occasional sales of equipment.
- cash receipts.
- increases in net assets from selling ordinary shares.
- increases in net assets from selling a product.
A: increases in net assets from selling a product.

Q: The salary of an executive who decides to quit her job and return to school full time is a [Image: no]:
- Incremental cost
- Sunk cost
- Incremental revenue
- Opportunity cost
A: Opportunity cost

Q: Expenses are:
- decreases in net assets from dividends to shareholders.
- decreases in net assets from uninsured accidents.
- cash disbursements.
- decreases in net assets resulting from usual operating activities.
A: decreases in net assets resulting from usual operating activities.

Q: Which of the following costs are included in the cost classification that is based on the

relationship between total cost and volume of activity?
- product cost and period cost
- committed cost and discretionary cost
- direct cost and indirect cost
- variable cost and fixed cost
A: variable cost and fixed cost

Q: Working capital can be described as:
- the amount of capital employed by a firm's management in using the resources of the firm.
- the excess of a firm's current liabilities over its assets.
- a more conservative short-term measure of liquidity.
- the excess of a firm's current assets over its current liabilities.
A: the excess of a firm's current assets over its current liabilities.

Q: Move's travel budget for October was $720, based on her plan to drive 3 000 miles at a cost

of $0.24 per mile. During October, she actually drove 2 800 miles at a total cost of $700. A

flexed budget performance report would show a variance of:
- $28 U
- $50 F
- $30 U
- $20 F
A: $28 U

Q: When analyzing the incremental costs used to help make a short-term operating decision:
- Variable costs are irrelevant
- Incremental revenues are irrelevant
- Both fixed costs and variable costs are relevant
- Fixed costs are irrelevant
A: Fixed costs are irrelevant

Q: Fly-By-Night Toy Co. sells its product for $10 each. Variable costs for last year are $6.50 per unit; fixed costs are $126,000 and sales amounted to 40,000 units. If fixed costs rise by 10%, selling price rises by 10% too but sales units remain at 40,000 items, calculate how much the company's new profit figure per year would become:
- $95,954 (rounded).
- $1,400.
- $41,400.
- $54,000.
A: $41,400.

Q: In the horizontal model, the amount of expense is shown as _________ because expense reduces _________, which reduces _________.
- plus, net profit, owners' equity
- minus, net profit, owners' equity
- minus, owners' equity, net profit
- plus, owners' equity, net profit
A: minus, net profit, owners' equity

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed total assets of $750 and liabilities of $250.

Owners' equity at July 31 was:
- $250
- $1 000
- $500
- $750
A: $500

Q: The entry to record depreciation expense:
- decreases a long-term asset and increases a contra long-term asset.
- decreases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.
- increases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.
- decreases working capital and decreases net profit.
A: increases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.

Q: The term transfer price refers to:
- None of the above
- The price at which a product or service is sold by a segment to an outside party
- The price at which a product or service is sold by one segment to another related segment
- The price at which a product or service is sold to a government entity.
A: The price at which a product or service is sold by one segment to another related segment

Q: Collections from customers would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Noncash investing and financing activities
- Operating activities
- Financing activities
- Investing activities
A: Operating activities

Q: A newspaper advertisement submitted and published this week, with the agreement to pay for it next week would, in the advertiser's records:
- increase assets and decrease liabilities.
- decrease assets and increase revenue.
- decrease assets and decrease expenses.
- increase liabilities and increase expenses.
A: increase liabilities and increase expenses.

Q: Which one of the following is not a leverage measure?
- debt/equity ratio
- current ratio
- equity ratio
- debt ratio
A: current ratio

Q: A liability incurred in the form of cash has which of the following combinations of effects on the accounting equation?
- liabilities increase, owners' equity increases.
- cash increases, other assets decrease.
- liabilities increase, assets increase.
- liabilities increase, owners' equity decreases.
A: liabilities increase, assets increase.

Q: The allowance for doubtful debts account is a ____________asset because it is reported as a _____________to the related asset in the ______________________________.
- non-current, deduction, balance sheet.
- current, contribution, income statement.
- contra, contribution, income statement.
- contra, deduction, balance sheet.
A: contra, deduction, balance sheet.

Q: Which of the following is correct?
- A transaction can affect one account only.
- A transaction can affect more than two accounts.
- A transaction can affect two accounts only.
- A transaction can affect two or more than two accounts.
A: A transaction can affect two or more than two accounts.

Q: The retained earnings category of owners' equity indicates:
- assets minus liabilities.
- total profits minus contributed capital.
- the amount of cash available to the company to distribute as profits.
- the entity's cumulative earnings minus dividends paid.
A: the entity's cumulative earnings minus dividends paid.

Q: Asset turnover calculations:
- are made by dividing the average asset balance during the year by the sales for the year.
- should be evaluated by observing the turnover trend over a period of time.
- communicate information about how promptly the entity pays its bills.
- are made by dividing sales for the year by the asset balance at the end of the year.
A: should be evaluated by observing the turnover trend over a period of time.

Q: Which one of the following is not a liquidity measure?
- quick ratio
- current ratio
- working capital
- asset turnover
A: asset turnover

Q: If a short-term bank loan were repaid just before the balance sheet date which of the following would change:
- working capital.
- the quick ratio.
- the current ratio.
- the acid test.
A: working capital.

Q: When income is related to the use of assets over a period of time, such as the renting of property or the lending of money, income is recognised:
- in advance.
- as time passes.
- at the beginning.
- at the end.
A: as time passes.

Q: The three categories of cash flows to be reported in the cash flow statement are:
- receipts, investing, financing.
- income, investing, financing.
- operating, investing, dividends.
- investing, financing, operating.
A: investing, financing, operating.

Q: ABC Ltd borrowed $10 000 from bank. The loan agreement was that the loan to be repaid with interest in 6 months. Effects on accounts are to _________ and _________.
- increase assets, decrease liabilities
- decrease assets, decrease liabilities
- increase assets, increase liabilities
- decrease assets, increase liabilities
A: increase assets, increase liabilities

Q: Using the horizontal model, the effect of accrual of interest income on financial statements is to:
- decrease interest receivable, decrease interest income.
- decrease interest payable, increase interest income.
- decrease interest receivable, increase interest income.
- increase interest receivable, increase interest income.
A: increase interest receivable, increase interest income.

Q: Adjustment for accrued wages of $100 will be:
- decrease in liabilities and decrease in wage expense.
- None of the above.
- decrease in liabilities and increase in wage expense.
- increase in liabilities and increase in wage expense.
A: increase in liabilities and increase in wage expense.

Q: When depreciation expense is recorded:
- the amount of profit earned doesn't alter as it is a non-cash expense.
- the net effect is contained within the income statement.
- the cash flows and assets are altered by an equal amount.
- assets and owners' equity decrease by an equal amount.
A: assets and owners' equity decrease by an equal amount.

Q: The company form of organisation has the following as one of its many advantages:
- its shareholders have limited liability.
- it is heavily regulated.
- the cost of forming a company is greater than other forms of business organisation.
- its income is taxed first prior to distributing income to its shareholders.
A: its shareholders have limited liability.

Q: The intangible asset 'goodwill':
- arises because the market value of a company's assets is greater than cost.
- all of the above are correct.
- may arise when one company purchases another company.
- represents the management team's assessment of its value to the company.
A: may arise when one company purchases another company.

Q: Leasehold is an example of which of the following types of assets?
- intangible asset
- property, plant & equipment
- goodwill
- current asset
A: intangible asset

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 January 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the accumulated depreciation for this asset on December 31, 2005?
- None of the above.
- $16 000
- $6 400
- $14 800
- $8 000
A: None of the above.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 July 2003. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the firm's depreciation expense for the year ended 30 June 2004?
- $4 400
- $6 000
- $2 000
- $8 800
A: $4 400

Q: It is not unusual for a company to use different depreciation methods for book and tax purposes. When this happens, the firm usually:
- is trying to minimise its book income.
- uses an accelerated depreciation method for tax purposes.
- uses an accelerated depreciation method for book purposes.
- is trying to maximise its taxable income.
A: uses an accelerated depreciation method for tax purposes.

Q: The reason for recording a prepaid expense as a current asset is:
- that the prepaid item will be returned for a cash refund.
- to avoid recognising an expense so net profit will be higher for the current accounting period.
- that the expense has been incurred but not yet paid.
- that the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.
A: that the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding loans receivables (N/R)?
- A loan is a more formal document than an account receivable.
- A loan is a less formal document than an account receivable.
- A N/R is always a current asset.
- A N/R is always a long-term asset.
A: A loan is a more formal document than an account receivable.

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the straight line method, annual depreciation will be:
- $13 571
- $10 000
- $17 142
- None of the above.
A: $10 000

Q: Which of the following is true?

i. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions occur.

ii. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions affect financial statements.

iii. Transaction analysis can be done prior to the preparation for end of financial year statements.

iv. Transaction analysis helps in knowing whether an analysis makes sense.
- ii, iii and iv
- i and ii
- i, ii, iii and iv
- i, ii and iii
A: ii, iii and iv

Q: Adjustment for accrued wages of $100 will be:
- increase liabilities, increase wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
- decrease liabilities, decrease wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
- decrease liabilities, increase wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
- increase liabilities, decrease wage expense, decrease owners' equity.
A: increase liabilities, increase wage expense, decrease owners' equity.

Q: Although approximate market value would be more relevant than original cost of non-current assets for decision-makers, original cost is defended due to its:
- subjective nature and practical application.
- pragmatism, irregularity and decision-making ability.
- variability, effectiveness and appropriateness.
- reliability, consistency and conservatism.
A: reliability, consistency and conservatism.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 July 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-declining balance method.

What is the firm's gain or loss if the machinery is sold for $11 000 on 31 June 2006?
- Gain of $4 000
- Loss of $4 000
- Gain of $600
- Loss of $3 080
A: Loss of $3 080

Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of an inventory account a manufacturing company might use?
- Finished goods inventory
- Work in process inventory
- Raw materials inventory
- Inventory
A: Inventory

Q: The entry to record depreciation expense:
- decreases a long-term asset and increases a contra long-term asset.
- decreases working capital and decreases net profit.
- increases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.
- decreases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.
A: increases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.

Q: Sage Inc. has 20 employees who each earn $100 per day and are paid every Thursday. The end of the accounting period is on a Wednesday. How much in wages should the firm accrue at the end of the period?
- $0
- $6 000
- $1 000
- $2 000
A: $6 000

Q: An organisation's system of internal control is designed primarily to:
- ensure that the organisation's balance sheet will always balance.
- provide an operating framework for all employees as they work to achieve the organisation's goals.
- increase efficiency by letting one employee handle all aspects of a transaction from beginning to end.
- ensure that no employees steal the organisation's property.
A: provide an operating framework for all employees as they work to achieve the organisation's goals.

Q: The balance in the Accrued Wages Payable account increased from $12 200 at the beginning of the month to $15 000 at the end of the month. Wages accrued during the month totalled $61 000. Which of the following is true?
- Wages expense for the month totalled $76 000.
- Wages expense for the month totalled $58 200.
- Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.
- Wages paid during the month totalled $64 800.
A: Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.

Q: Dividend is a distribution of _________ to the _________ of the company.

i. contributed capital

ii. earnings

iii. owners

iv. customers
- i., ii
- ii, iii
- i., iv
- iii, iv
A: ii, iii

Q: Outstanding cheques have been recorded as _________________in the cash balance of the

_______________________ , but which have not yet been presented to the ___________________for payment.
- reductions, entity, bank.
- additions, bank, entity.
- additions, entity, bank.
- reductions, bank, entity.
A: reductions, entity, bank.

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Liabilities at the end of the year totalled:
- $836
- $528
- $490
- $910
A: $490

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed total assets of $750 and liabilities of $250.

Owners' equity at July 31 was:
- $250
- $1 000
- $750
- $500
A: $500

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the reducing-balance depreciation method, first year depreciation will be:
- $20 000
- $27 143
- $27 100
- $15 000
A: $27 143

Q: With respect to the write-off of an uncollectible account receivable against the allowance for bad debts, a sound system of internal control would require:
- a lawsuit to be initiated to recover the uncollectible amount.
- an investigation of why credit was extended to this customer in the first place.
- the write-off to be approved by two employees.
- the write-off to be made within six months after the date of sale.
A: the write-off to be approved by two employees.

Q: At the beginning of the year, paid-in capital was $82 and retained earnings were $47. During the year, the owners invested $24 and dividends of $6 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the end of the year were $52.

Net profit for the year was:
- $20
- $10
- $15
- $11
A: $11

Q: Which of the following is NOT a term that describes part of the accounting for long-lived assets?
- amortisation
- accumulation
- depletion
- depreciation
A: accumulation

Q: In the most severe case of forced liquidation, the liability of ordinary shareholders, as the ultimate owners of the company and its assets, is:
- unlimited.
- to invest additional funds to make up the losses.
- limited to the amount they have invested in the company's shares, including any amount still owing on them.
- jointly and severally liable to the extent of their personal assets.
A: limited to the amount they have invested in the company's shares, including any amount still owing on them.

Q: The key to using the horizontal method is to keep the _________ in _________.

i. income statement

ii. balance sheet

iii. financial statements

iv. balance
- ii, iv
- i, iv
- i, ii
- ii, iii
A: ii, iv

Q: The allowance for collectable accounts is a [Image: no]:
- contra revenue.
- contra current asset.
- asset.
- expense.
A: contra current asset.

Q: Ordinary shares normally have the following characteristics associated with them:
- unlimited liability, no voting rights, unlimited claims on assets.
- residual claim to assets and profits of company, voting rights, limited liability.
- guaranteed dividends, less risk, pre-emptive rights.
- debt-like features, limited claims on assets, voting rights.
A: residual claim to assets and profits of company, voting rights, limited liability.

Q: Auditing is:
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
- about developing specialty skills such as expertise in international tax law issues.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
A: the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).

Q: The Interest Receivable account for February showed transactions totalling $8 500 and an adjustment of $11 200. Which of the following is true?
- The transactions probably resulted from accruing interest income earned.
- The balance in the interest receivable account decreased $2 700.
- The adjustment was probably for cash receipts of interest receivable accrued in prior months.
- The transactions were probably entered on the credit side of the account.
A: The transactions were probably entered on the credit side of the account.

Q: Which of the following statements best describes the process of accounting for depreciation?
- A process for setting aside cash so funds will be available to replace the asset.
- A process for recognising all of the cost associated with using an asset in a revenue generating activity.
- A process for recognising the cost of an asset that should be matched against revenue earned as a result of using the asset.
- A process that attempts to recognise loss in economic value over a period of time.
A: A process for recognising the cost of an asset that should be matched against revenue earned as a result of using the asset.

Q: Internal auditing is:
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
A: like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.

Q: Adjustment for accrued wages of $100 will be:
- decrease in liabilities and decrease in wage expense.
- decrease in liabilities and increase in wage expense.
- increase in liabilities and increase in wage expense.
- None of the above.
A: increase in liabilities and increase in wage expense.

Q: The principal challenge to calculating depletion is estimating:
- the salvage value of the exploration equipment.
- the quantity of material to be recovered.
- the demand for the product.
- the cost of the asset.
A: the quantity of material to be recovered.

Q: It is not unusual for a company to use different depreciation methods for book and tax purposes. When this happens, the firm usually:
- is trying to maximise its taxable income.
- is trying to minimise its book income.
- uses an accelerated depreciation method for tax purposes.
- uses an accelerated depreciation method for book purposes.
A: uses an accelerated depreciation method for tax purposes.

Q: The accounting concept/principle being applied when an adjustment is made is usually:
- consistency
- matching revenue and expense.
- materiality.
- original cost.
A: matching revenue and expense.

Q: The balance sheet presentation of accounts receivable net of the allowance for doubtful accounts has the effect of stating accounts receivable at:
- market value.
- net realisable value.
- original cost.
- lower of cost or market
A: net realisable value.

Q: Which of the following is true about ethics?
- confidentiality is enhanced by an accountant who refrains from disclosing outside the firm or employing organization the lack of his or her adoption of ethical standards.
- an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity cannot be relied upon to produce complete and reliable information for a client for informed judgments.
- personal advantage cannot be gained from a client being audited unless it is obtained ethically and from a third party.
- an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity is prohibited from attaining the characteristic of competence also.
A: an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity cannot be relied upon to produce complete and reliable information for a client for informed judgments.

Q: The principal reason for reconciling the cash balance per books with the balance shown

on the bank statement is to:
- verify the amount of petty cash on hand.
- determine whether or not the entity has issued a cheque.
- satisfy generally accepted accounting principles.
- determine the amount of cash in the account actually available to the entity.
A: determine the amount of cash in the account actually available to the entity.

Q: A concept or principle that relates to transactions is:
- original cost.
- matching of revenue and expense.
- materiality.
- consistency.
A: original cost.

Q: A financial year:
- is frequently selected based on the firm's operating cycle.
- must end on the last day of a month.
- must always end on the same date each year.
- is always the same as the calendar year.
A: is frequently selected based on the firm's operating cycle.

Q: Owner's equity at ____________of year, Plus contributions of additional ___________, Plus _____________, Less ________________, Equals owners' equity at ___________________of year.
- end, shares, liabilities, assets, beginning.
- beginning, equity, profit, dividends, end.
- end, equity, profit, dividends, beginning.
- beginning, equity, dividends, interest, end.
A: beginning, equity, profit, dividends, end.

Q: A comparison between a company and its industry based on a single observation may not be very meaningful because:
- most industry and trade associations publish industry averages based on aggregated data from industry members.
- consistency in financial reporting and in defining the ratio is crucial.
- internal consistency will permit useful comparisons.
- the company may use an alternative financial accounting method that is different from that used by the rest of the industry.
A: the company may use an alternative financial accounting method that is different from that used by the rest of the industry.

Q: When an income statement shows data for segments of the organisation, and data for each

segment is added together to get totals for the whole organisation:
- only direct revenues and direct expenses should be assigned to segments
- direct fixed expenses should be subtracted as one amount in the 'total' column
- common fixed expenses should be allocated to the segments.
- all expenses should be allocated to the segments.
A: only direct revenues and direct expenses should be assigned to segments

Q: The effect of an adjustment on the financial statements is usually to:
- match revenues and assets.
- increase net profit.
- make the balance sheet balance.
- increase the accuracy of both the balance sheet and the income statement.
A: increase the accuracy of both the balance sheet and the income statement.

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed NET ASSETS of $1 025 and liabilities of $225. Owners' equity on July 31 was:
- $1 250
- $1 025
- $800
- $225
A: $1 025

Q: Deposits in transit are cash which has been recorded in the __________________cash account, but which has not yet been _________________to the ______________________balance of the __________________records.
- bank's, added, bank's, entity's.
- bank's, subtracted, bank's, entity's.
- entity's, subtracted, entity's, bank's.
- entity's, added, entity's, bank's.
A: entity's, added, entity's, bank's.

Q: The rule for making sound economic decisions is that one should choose the alternative with the
- Highest revenue
- Lowest sunk costs
- Highest contribution margin
- Lowest opportunity cost
A: Highest contribution margin

Q: Which of the following is correct?
- A transaction can affect two or more than two accounts.
- A transaction can affect more than two accounts.
- A transaction can affect one account only.
- A transaction can affect two accounts only.
A: A transaction can affect two or more than two accounts.

Q: Which one of the following is not a discretionary cost?
- internships for university students
- salaries of senior management
- company's netball team
- photocopier upgrades
A: salaries of senior management

Q: Which of the following is the formula for the contribution margin ratio?
- Fixed cost per unit/selling price per unit
- Variable cost per unit/selling price per unit
- Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit/selling price per unit
- Selling price per unit - fixed cost per unit/selling price per unit
A: Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit/selling price per unit

Q: At the beginning of the year, paid-in capital was $82 and retained earnings were $47. During the year, the owners invested $24 and dividends of $6 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the end of the year were $52.

Net profit for the year was:
- $11
- $10
- $20
- $15
A: $11

Q: Which of the following is the last budgeted financial statement to be prepared?
- It doesn't matter which one is prepared last.
- budgeted income statement
- cash budget
- budgeted balance sheet
A: budgeted balance sheet

Q: Which of the following is a correct statement?
- Budgets can be prepared for a single period or for several periods.
- A discretionary cost cannot be adjusted in the short-run.
- Standard costs are not used in firms that perform repetitive processes.
- Budgets can stand-alone and should not be used in conjunction with a performance reporting system.
A: Budgets can be prepared for a single period or for several periods.

Q: ________________ assets are long-lived assets that differ from _________________assets that have been purchased because they are _____________________physically __________________________.
- intangible, property and equipment, not, strong.
- property and equipment, intangible, not, identifiable.
- property and equipment, intangible, not, weak
- intangible, property and equipment, not, identifiable.
A: intangible, property and equipment, not, identifiable.

Q: The change in total cost, if one alternative is implemented instead of another is referred to as:
- Changing cost
- Joint cost
- Incremental cost
- Opportunity cost
A: Incremental cost

Q: ______________costs are costs that have been incurred and cannot be _____________by some ____________action.
- sunk, reversed, future.
- prime, un-primed, past.
- opportunity, followed, future.
- sunk, reversed, past.
A: sunk, reversed, future.

Q: In Australia, the operating activities section of the cash flow statement must be reconciled to net profit according to which method?
- direct.
- indirect.
- cash.
- operating.
A: direct.

Q: When a business such as a magazine publisher receives a cash payment at the beginning of a subscription period, the cash is initially recognised as:
- income.
- a liability.
- a cash flow.
- revenue.
A: a liability.

Q: Cash collections from customers during 2008 were $468,500, while net accounts receivable decreased $14,250. Sales reported on the income statement were:
- $482,750
- $454,250
- $440,000
- $497,000
A: $454,250

Q: An _________________lease is an ordinary, frequently _____________________lease for the use of an asset that does not involve any attributes of _______________________.
- finance, short-term, ownership.
- finance, long-term, control.
- operating, long-term, control.
- operating, short-term, ownership.
A: operating, short-term, ownership.

Q: The 'matching concept' requires that all _____________incurred in generating that period's revenues be _______________from those _______________earned.
- expenses, deducted, revenues.
- revenues, deducted, expenses.
- business, recycled, profits.
- expenses, deducted, profits.
A: expenses, deducted, revenues.

Q: The intangible asset 'goodwill':
- represents the management team's assessment of its value to the company.
- all of the above are correct.
- arises because the market value of a company's assets is greater than cost.
- may arise when one company purchases another company.
A: may arise when one company purchases another company.

Q: Which of the following group of users would be more likely to have a specific interest in a firm's 'times interest earned ratio'?
- holders of the firm's long-term debt.
- ordinary shareholders.
- financial market analysts.
- non-management shareholders.
A: holders of the firm's long-term debt.

Q: Which of the following costs are included in the cost classification that is based on the

relationship between total cost and volume of activity?
- direct cost and indirect cost
- committed cost and discretionary cost
- product cost and period cost
- variable cost and fixed cost
A: variable cost and fixed cost

Q: Accounts receivable are reported at:
- weighted average cost.
- historical cost
- market value.
- net realisable value.
A: net realisable value.

Q: Standard costs are used in which of the following phases of the management process?
- None of the above
- control
- planning
- organising
A: control; planning

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 January 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the accumulated depreciation for this asset on December 31, 2005?
- None of the above.
- $14 800
- $8 000
- $16 000
- $6 400
A: None of the above.

Q: CPA Australia and The Institute of Chartered Accountants have adopted a joint code of professional ethics that requires their members to have and maintain various characteristics. Such characteristics are:
- integrity, sustainability, political expediency, assertive behaviour, objective business acumen.
- objectivity, integrity, complexity, professionalism, competence.
- integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, independence and competence.
- objectivity, optimum capacity, political judgment, subjective independence, investor credibility.
A: integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, independence and competence.

Q: Which of the following is correct?
- The debt ratio is liabilities divided by total liabilities and owners' equity.
- All of the above.
- The equity ratio is equity divided by total liabilities and owners' equity.
- The debt/equity ratio is total liabilities divided by total owners' equity.
A: All of the above.

Q: Financial statement users express financial statement data in _______________format to _____________the making of __________________judgements and decisions.
- percentage, elicit, administrative.
- ratio, facilitate, informed.
- trend, encourage, management's.
- financial, impede, investment.
A: ratio, facilitate, informed.

Q: If a short-term bank loan were repaid just before the balance sheet date which of the following would change:
- working capital.
- the current ratio.
- the quick ratio.
- the acid test.
A: working capital.

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the units-of-production method, depreciation expense for 75 moulds produced each year

will be:
- $20 000
- $34 300
- $27 100
- $15 000
A: $15 000

Q: The 'income statement' (or 'statement of recognised income and expense' or 'statement of financial performance' or 'profit and loss statement') shows which of the following for the reporting period?
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
- the result for the period.
A: the result for the period.

Q: Which of the following is(are) a category(ies) for securities?
- All of the above.
- held-to-maturity
- trading
- available-for-sale
A: All of the above.

Q: The key to using the horizontal method is to keep the _________ in _________.

i. income statement

ii. balance sheet

iii. financial statements

iv. balance
- i, iv
- ii, iv
- i, ii
- ii, iii
A: ii, iv

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 July 2003. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the firm's depreciation expense for the year ended 30 June 2004?
- $6 000
- $4 400
- $2 000
- $8 800
A: $4 400

Q: The purpose of the income statement is to show the:
- revenues collected during the period covered by the statement.
- net profit or net loss for the period covered by the statement
- market value per share at the date of the statement.
- change in the fair market value of the assets from the prior income statement.
A: net profit or net loss for the period covered by the statement

Q: Martin & Associates borrowed $5 000 on 1 April 2003 at 8% interest with both principal and interest due on 31 March 2004. How much should be in the firm's interest payable account at 31 December 2003?
- $333
- $300
- $0
- $400
A: $300

Q: Standards are likely to be most useful when expressed in:
- quantities per unit of output from the process being evaluated
- terms easily related to by the individual whose performance is being evaluated
- total costs for the accounting period for the department being evaluated
- dollars per unit of input to the manufacturing process
A: terms easily related to by the individual whose performance is being evaluated

Q: Retained Earnings represents:
- cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.
- par value of ordinary shares outstanding.
- cash that is available for dividends.
- the amount invested in the entity by the owners.
A: cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.

Q: Sage Inc. has 20 employees who each earn $100 per day and are paid every Thursday. The end of the accounting period is on a Wednesday. How much in wages should the firm accrue at the end of the period?
- $6 000
- $1 000
- $2 000
- $0
A: $6 000

Q: Fixed costs classified according to the time frame perspective are known as:
- product costs and period costs
- constant and inconsistent costs
- direct costs and indirect costs
- committed costs and discretionary costs
A: committed costs and discretionary costs

Q: ABC Ltd bought a machine on 1 July 2003 at $100 000. Estimated useful life of the machine is 20 years and its estimated salvage value is $5 000. Using straight-line

depreciation, its annual depreciation expense will be:
- $4 750
- $5 000
- $5 750
- $4 000
A: $4 750

Q: A favourable materials quantity variance would occur if:
- actual pounds of materials used was greater than the standard pounds allowed
- actual labour hours used was greater than the standard labour hours allowed
- more material is purchased than is used.
- actual pounds of materials used was less than the standard pounds allowed
A: actual pounds of materials used was less than the standard pounds allowed

Q: Allegro Corporation had total profit of $90,000. Its breakeven point is 15,000 units and its contribution margin was $25 per unit. How many units did Allegro sell?
- 19,000
- Unable to determine from the information given
- 18,600
- 3,600
A: 18,600

Q: The Statement of Cash Flows:
- shows the dividends that will be paid in the future.
- shows the change in the market value of the entity's ordinary shares during the period.
- shows how cash changed during the period.
- is an optional financial statement.
A: shows how cash changed during the period.

Q: Selling price less variable costs equals:
- Gross margin
- Net income
- Markup
- Contribution margin
A: Contribution margin

Q: Plant and equipment and turnover:
- None of the above.
- is average plant and equipment, divided by sales.
- is sales divided by average plant and equipment.
- is calculated by dividing market value per share by earnings per share
A: is sales divided by average plant and equipment.

Q: When a corporation has both ordinary shares and preference shares outstanding:
- dividends on preference shares are paid only if dividends are to be paid on the ordinary shares.
- dividends on preference shares must be paid before dividends on ordinary shares can be paid.
- dividends on preference shares are paid only if the company has current earnings.
- preference shareholders receive the same dividend per share as ordinary shareholders.
A: dividends on preference shares must be paid before dividends on ordinary shares can be paid.

Q: True Fruit, Inc. sells frozen raspberry fruit bars for $2.50 each. The variable cost per bar is $1.35. Total fixed costs are $25,645. The contribution margin ratio is:
- 0.19
- 0.46
- 0.22
- 0.54
A: 0.46

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Liabilities at the end of the year totalled:
- $528
- $490
- $836
- $910
A: $490

Q: When a depreciable asset is sold:
- depreciation expense is adjusted so there is no gain or loss.
- a loss arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.
- any cash received results in a gain.
- a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.
A: a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.

Q: The mechanism to explain the endurance training-induced increase in stroke volume is a decrease in end diastolic volume.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Accounting for natural resources:
- involves estimating the quantity of the natural resource to be recovered.
- involves 150% reducing-balance depletion calculation.
- involves an exception to the matching concept.
- involves using the accumulated depreciation account.
A: involves estimating the quantity of the natural resource to be recovered.

Q: Auditing is:
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
- about developing specialty skills such as expertise in international tax law issues.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
A: the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).

Q: _________________can only be used _______________when ________________with something.
- decisions, occasionally, contrasted.
- ratios, meaningfully, compared.
- formulas, intentionally, shared.
- trends, sparingly, combined.
A: ratios, meaningfully, compared.

Q: When a firm sells its land, the:
- difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the income statement of the period.
- cost of the land will be reported in the income statement of the period.
- difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the balance sheet.
- selling price of the land will be reported in the income statement of the period.
A: difference between selling price and cost will be a gain or a loss and will be reported in the income statement of the period.

Q: The effect of an error resulting in an understatement of ending inventory is to:
- overstate operating expenses of the current period.
- understate cost of goods sold of the current period.
- overstate the next period's beginning inventory.
- overstate cost of goods sold of the current period
A: overstate cost of goods sold of the current period

Q: The term transfer price refers to:
- The price at which a product or service is sold by a segment to an outside party
- None of the above
- The price at which a product or service is sold by one segment to another related segment
- The price at which a product or service is sold to a government entity.
A: The price at which a product or service is sold by one segment to another related segment

Q: A firm's 'financial year' refers to:
- the annual period used for reporting to owners, the government and others.
- the minimum period of time a firm may choose to finalise its books for internal reporting purposes.
- the period the firm chooses for its international affiliations.
- the business cycle of the firm.
A: the annual period used for reporting to owners, the government and others.

Q: The income statement is linked to the _________ through the _________ component of owners' equity.

i. balance sheet

ii. revenues

iii. expenses

iv. retained profits
- i and ii
- i and iv
- i and iii
- ii and iv
A: i and iv

Q: Payment of cash for interest is considered which of the following in the statement of cash flows?
- Financing
- Operating
- B and C
- Investing
A: Operating

Q: Times interest earned is:
- earnings before interest and taxes divided by interest expense.
- A and C.
- a measure of the firm's ability to earn enough to cover its annual interest requirements.
- earnings after interest and taxes divided by interest expense.
A: A and C.

Q: The beginning balance in accounts receivable is $8,000. Sales during the period equaled $15,000. What was the cash received from customers?
- None of the above
- $15,000
- $7,000
- $8,000
A: None of the above

Q: If accounts receivable increased during the period, cash received from customers would be equal to
- Sales plus the increase in accounts receivable
- The change in accounts receivable
- Unable to determine from the information given
- Sales minus the increase in accounts receivable
A: Sales minus the increase in accounts receivable

Q: Expenses are:
- cash disbursements.
- decreases in net assets resulting from usual operating activities.
- decreases in net assets from dividends to shareholders.
- decreases in net assets from uninsured accidents.
A: decreases in net assets resulting from usual operating activities.

Q: Following recent international harmonisation of accounting standards, most intangibles are subject to an impairment test and the expense associated with amortisation will become known as:
- depreciation expense.
- an impairment loss.
- accumulated expense.
- an amortised loss.
A: an impairment loss.

Q: The balance sheet valuation of inventories is:
- lower of selling price or cost.
- cost, regardless of the cost of replacing the inventory.
- lower of realisable value or selling price.
- lower of cost or market.
A: lower of cost or market.

Q: Accrual accounting:
- results in the balance sheet showing the fair market value of the entity's assets.
- cannot result in the entity having net profit unless cash is received from customers.
- means that expenses are recorded when they are paid.
- is designed to match revenues and expenses.
A: is designed to match revenues and expenses.

Q: Which of the following is incorrect?
- None of the above.
- Dividend payout ratio is annual dividend per share divided by earnings per share.
- Dividend yield is market price per share divided by annual dividend per share.
- The price/earnings ratio is market price of an ordinary share divided by earnings per share.
A: Dividend yield is market price per share divided by annual dividend per share.

Q: If an organisation purchases $700 of supplies on account, with terms of 2/15, n50:
- $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $700 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
- $650 must be paid within 15 days of the invoice date.
- . $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $714 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
- $698 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.
A: $686 can be paid within 15 days of the invoice date, or $700 must be paid within 50 days of the invoice date.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding loans receivables (N/R)?
- A loan is a less formal document than an account receivable.
- A loan is a more formal document than an account receivable.
- A N/R is always a long-term asset.
- A N/R is always a current asset.
A: A loan is a more formal document than an account receivable.

Q: Accounting standards have evolved as:
- the result of a process of being developed or set in a 'vacuum'.
- a set of standards with the objective of keeping the business entity's standards high.
- a set of rules and regulations which display 'exactness' for the accounting domain.
- the result of an open or consultative procedure, known as 'due process'.
A: the result of an open or consultative procedure, known as 'due process'.

Q: Reclassification is an _________ on the financial statements usually to _________:
- None of the above.
- adjustment, reclassify
- adjustment, accruals
- accruals, adjustment
A: adjustment, reclassify

Q: An outstanding cheque in the bank reconciliation process refers to:
- one of the bank reconciliation steps has not yet been completed and consequently has not been checked by someone with appropriate authority.
- a very good 'quality' cheque.
- a cheque that has 'bounced' from the issuer's bank because there was insufficient funds to honour it.
- a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.
A: a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.

Q: Owners' equity comprises:
- ordinary shares, preferences shares, foreign currency translation reserve.
- assets, liability, owners' equity.
- capital, retained earnings, reserves.
- revenues, expenses, profits.
A: capital, retained earnings, reserves.

Q: Regardless of the inventory cost flow assumption used, inventories on the balance sheet are stated at:
- replacement cost.
- the lower of cost or market.
- realisable value.
- original cost.
A: the lower of cost or market.

Q: At the end of the accounting period, bookkeepers usually record an _________ to certain account balances to reflect _________ accounting in the _________.
- accrual, adjustment, financial statements
- accrual, adjustment, income statement
- accrual, adjustment, balance sheet
- adjustment, accrual, financial statements
A: adjustment, accrual, financial statements

Q: The 'cash flow statement' shows which of the following for the reporting period?
- the result for the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
A: the cash flows during the period.

Q: Deposits in transit are cash which has been recorded in the __________________cash account, but which has not yet been _________________to the ______________________balance of the __________________records.
- bank's, added, bank's, entity's.
- entity's, added, entity's, bank's.
- entity's, subtracted, entity's, bank's.
- bank's, subtracted, bank's, entity's.
A: entity's, added, entity's, bank's.

Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the five questions of an accounting process or transaction analysis?
- Which accounts are affected?
- Does the balance sheet balance?
- Is this an accrual?
- What's going on?
A: Is this an accrual?

Q: Goodwill is an asset that arises because the present value of an acquired company's estimated future earnings, discounted at the acquiring firm's ROA:
- is LESS THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.
- is LESS THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquiring company.
- is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquiring company.
- is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.
A: is MORE THAN the fair market value of the net assets of the acquired company.

Q: The accounting concept or principle applied when an allowance is provided for estimated

uncollectible accounts receivable is:
- objectivity.
- original cost.
- consistency.
- matching revenue and expense.
A: matching revenue and expense.

Q: At the beginning of the year, paid-in capital was $82 and retained earnings were $47. During the year, the owners invested $24 and dividends of $6 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the end of the year were $52.

Total owners' equity at the end of the year was:
- $94
- $82
- $106
- $158
A: $158

Q: Which of the following is true in relation to auditing?
- the result of an audit is the independent (external) auditor's report.
- the audit result contains a 'full and concise' discussion and analysis of the annual reports of the firm being audited.
- an unqualified audit report has four (4) paragraphs, all relating to the 'true and fair view' that has been formed.
- an unqualified opinion ensures the business entity is in good financial order.
A: the result of an audit is the independent (external) auditor's report.

Q: The principal reason for converting a customer's account receivable to a loan receivable is:
- the customer is more likely to continue purchasing the company's products.
- the receivable is less likely to have to be written off as uncollectible.
- working capital is immediately increased.
- the loan receivable earns interest and the account receivable does not.
A: the loan receivable earns interest and the account receivable does not.

Q: The cost of property, plant and equipment is transferred to ____________________over time through accounting ______________________.
- profit and loss, credits.
- expense, depreciation.
- amortisation, expenses.
- depreciation, amortisation.
A: expense, depreciation.

Q: If an entity wants to recognise the holding gains that gradually occur with a parcel of land purchased many years earlier without having to sell it the entity:
- can revalue the land to its fair value.
- can do nothing ie.only by selling the parcel of land will they realise any holding gains.
- can put it up for sale and then withdraw it after an offer is made to buy it.
- can pretend to sell the land and get the appropriate price from a real estate agent.
A: can revalue the land to its fair value.

Q: The reason for recording a prepaid expense as a current asset is:
- to avoid recognising an expense so net profit will be higher for the current accounting period.
- that the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.
- that the expense has been incurred but not yet paid.
- that the prepaid item will be returned for a cash refund.
A: that the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.

Q: ABC Ltd bought a machine on 1 July 2003 at $100 000. Estimated useful life of the machine is 20 years and its estimated salvage value is $5 000. Using straight-line

depreciation, its annual depreciation expense will be:
- $5 000
- $4 750
- $5 750
- $4 000
A: $4 750

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the units-of-production method, depreciation expense for 75 moulds produced each year

will be:
- $20 000
- $34 300
- $15 000
- $27 100
A: $15 000

Q: In the horizontal model, effect of revenues, expenses and dividends respectively:
- decreases owners' equity, increases owners' equity, increases retained earnings.
- decreases owners' equity, increases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.
- increases owners' equity, decreases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.
- None of the above.
A: increases owners' equity, decreases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 January 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the accumulated depreciation for this asset on December 31, 2005?
- $6 400
- $8 000
- None of the above.
- $14 800
- $16 000
A: None of the above.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a term that describes part of the accounting for long-lived assets?
- accumulation
- depreciation
- amortisation
- depletion
A: accumulation

Q: Which of the following statements best describes the process of accounting for depreciation?
- A process for recognising the cost of an asset that should be matched against revenue earned as a result of using the asset.
- A process that attempts to recognise loss in economic value over a period of time.
- A process for recognising all of the cost associated with using an asset in a revenue generating activity.
- A process for setting aside cash so funds will be available to replace the asset.
A: A process for recognising the cost of an asset that should be matched against revenue earned as a result of using the asset.

Q: The balance in the Accrued Wages Payable account increased from $12 200 at the beginning of the month to $15 000 at the end of the month. Wages accrued during the month totalled $61 000. Which of the following is true?
- Wages paid during the month totalled $64 800.
- Wages expense for the month totalled $76 000.
- Wages expense for the month totalled $58 200.
- Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.
A: Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.

Q: The effect of an adjustment on the financial statements is usually to:
- match revenues and assets.
- increase the accuracy of both the balance sheet and the income statement.
- make the balance sheet balance.
- increase net profit.
A: increase the accuracy of both the balance sheet and the income statement.

Q: Which of the following is not a principal form of business organisation?
- Partnership
- Limited unregistered business
- Corporation
- Sole proprietorship
A: Limited unregistered business

Q: Which of the following accounting concepts/principles is most significant in the development of a capitalisation policy?
- matching of revenue and expense
- materiality
- consistency
- original cost
A: materiality

Q: Leasehold is an example of which of the following types of assets?
- intangible asset
- property, plant & equipment
- current asset
- goodwill
A: intangible asset

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 July 2003. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the firm's depreciation expense for the year ended 30 June 2004?
- $4 400
- $8 800
- $2 000
- $6 000
A: $4 400

Q: The entity for which accounting is done and financial statements are prepared:
- cannot be a combination of personal and business activities.
- can be defined by the accountant.
- must be a business enterprise.
- must be a corporation.
A: can be defined by the accountant.

Q: The accounting concept/principle being applied when an adjustment is made is usually:
- matching revenue and expense.
- consistency
- materiality.
- original cost.
A: matching revenue and expense.

Q: The income statement shows amounts for:
- revenues, gains, losses and earnings per share.
- revenues, expenses, gains and market value per share.
- revenues, expenses, losses and liabilities.
- revenues, assets, gains and losses.
A: revenues, gains, losses and earnings per share.

Q: The balance sheet equation can be represented by:
- A = L + OE
- All of the above.
- Net Assets = Owners' Equity
- Assets = Equities
A: All of the above.

Q: For which of the following reconciling items would an adjusting entry be necessary?
- an outstanding cheque
- a deposit in transit
- a bank service charge
- an error by the bank
A: a bank service charge

Q: Which of the following are reclassification adjustments?

i. Prepaid insurance

ii. Revenues received in advance

iii. Cash received from customers after the service is performed.

iv. Cash received from customer before the product is sold
- i, ii, iii and iv
- i, ii and iii
- i, ii and iv
- i and ii
A: i, ii and iv

Q: ABC Ltd borrowed $10 000 from bank. The loan agreement was that the loan to be repaid with interest in 6 months. Effects on accounts are to _________ and _________.
- increase assets, increase liabilities
- increase assets, decrease liabilities
- decrease assets, decrease liabilities
- decrease assets, increase liabilities
A: increase assets, increase liabilities

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Liabilities at the end of the year totalled:
- $490
- $528
- $910
- $836
A: $490

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed total assets of $750 and liabilities of $250.

Owners' equity at July 31 was:
- $750
- $1 000
- $500
- $250
A: $500

Q: The Statement of Cash Flows:
- shows the change in the market value of the entity's ordinary shares during the period.
- is an optional financial statement.
- shows how cash changed during the period.
- shows the dividends that will be paid in the future.
A: shows how cash changed during the period.

Q: As a result of receiving $22,000 from accounts receivable, what component(s) of the accounting equation is/are affected?
- assets and owners' equity.
- owners' equity only.
- assets only.
- assets and liabilities.
A: assets only.

Q: Dividends that have been declared but not paid as at balance sheet date have which of the following combination of effects on the records of the entity?
- an expense and a current liability.
- a reduction of retained earnings and a current liability.
- a reduction of retained earnings and an expense.
- an expense and a contra asset.
A: a reduction of retained earnings and a current liability.

Q: In the bank reconciliation process, deposits in transit indicate:
- the bank has recorded some transactions about which the entity is not yet aware.
- deposits received by the bank but not yet added to the entity's own records.
- amounts of money received by the business but not yet added to the bank's records.
- amounts of the day's takings authorised by the accounting department to be banked that are being taken to the bank but which have not yet arrived.
A: amounts of money received by the business but not yet added to the bank's records.

Q: Which of the following items would be recorded in the accounts as a liability?
- negotiations for the possible purchase of inventory.
- contingent losses on unsettled lawsuits against the entity where the amount cannot be reliably estimated.
- the intention to refurbish or conduct extensive repairs and maintenance.
- obligations of the entity to suppliers for goods and services that have been provided to the entity on credit terms.
A: obligations of the entity to suppliers for goods and services that have been provided to the entity on credit terms.

Q: Accounting information is useful because:
- . it facilitates the transformation of previously unimportant information into important factual data for accounting purposes.
- it helps accountants separate their debits from their credits.
- it makes boring data into interesting data.
- it provides information for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments.
A: it provides information for the purpose of making decisions and informed judgments.

Q: Owners' equity refers to which to the following?
- A listing of the organisation's assets and liabilities.
- All of the above.
- Probable future sacrifices of economic benefits.
- The ownership right of the owner(s) of the entity.
A: The ownership right of the owner(s) of the entity.

Q: Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
- the cost of goods sold budget summarises changes in the finished goods inventory account for a manufacturing firm.
- the sales forecast is the least challenging part of the budget to develop accurately.
- the key to every budget is the forecast of 'activity' that is expected during the budget period.
- the operating (master) budget is the operating plan expressed in financial terms and is comprised of a number of other detailed budgets.
A: the sales forecast is the least challenging part of the budget to develop accurately.

Q: Cash flows for investing activities include payments
- To employees
- For dividends
- To purchase operating assets
- For interest
A: To purchase operating assets

Q: Income includes ___________________, a ______________________flow concept, and _______________________, a ______________________flow concept.
- revenue, cash, profit, gross.
- profit, cash, revenue, net.
- revenue, net, gains, gross.
- revenue, gross, gains, net.
A: revenue, gross, gains, net.

Q: Cash flows from operating activities include
- Cash receipts and collections from sales of products
- All of the above
- Cash receipts from issuing common stock
- Cash receipts from the sale of operating assets
A: Cash receipts and collections from sales of products

Q: Plant and equipment and turnover:
- is calculated by dividing market value per share by earnings per share
- is average plant and equipment, divided by sales.
- is sales divided by average plant and equipment.
- None of the above.
A: is sales divided by average plant and equipment.

Q: Which of the following is correct?
- The debt ratio is liabilities divided by total liabilities and owners' equity.
- The equity ratio is equity divided by total liabilities and owners' equity.
- The debt/equity ratio is total liabilities divided by total owners' equity.
- All of the above.
A: All of the above.

Q: Why is it important that users know which accounting method (eg FIFO versus weighted average cost for inventory) has been used in the financial statements being analysed?
- because the results depend on the type of inventory used in the business.
- because this helps to eliminate distortions caused by sales mix changes.
- because alternative accounting methods affect financial data differently.
- because this will enable the reader to make more money on the investment.
A: because alternative accounting methods affect financial data differently.

Q: Which of the following is true about ethics?
- an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity is prohibited from attaining the characteristic of competence also.
- an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity cannot be relied upon to produce complete and reliable information for a client for informed judgments.
- confidentiality is enhanced by an accountant who refrains from disclosing outside the firm or employing organization the lack of his or her adoption of ethical standards.
- personal advantage cannot be gained from a client being audited unless it is obtained ethically and from a third party.
A: an accountant who lacks integrity and/or objectivity cannot be relied upon to produce complete and reliable information for a client for informed judgments.

Q: If it is to be most useful for control purposes, what variance should be reported to the

supervisor responsible for the number of pounds of corn syrup used in the manufacture of a

candy bar?
- Raw material usage variance, expressed as a total cost for the month
- Raw material price variance, expressed in cents per pound.
- Raw material usage variance, expressed in total pounds for the week
- Raw material usage variance, expressed in total pounds for the month.
A: Raw material usage variance, expressed in total pounds for the week

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Owners' equity at the end of the year totalled:
- $1 438
- $836
- $948
- $872
A: $948

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed NET ASSETS of $1 025 and liabilities of $225. Owners' equity on July 31 was:
- $800
- $1 025
- $1 250
- $225
A: $1 025

Q: In the horizontal model, the amount of expense is shown as _________ because expense reduces _________, which reduces _________.
- minus, net profit, owners' equity
- plus, owners' equity, net profit
- plus, net profit, owners' equity
- minus, owners' equity, net profit
A: minus, net profit, owners' equity

Q: The allowance for collectable accounts is a [Image: no]:
- contra revenue.
- expense.
- asset.
- contra current asset.
A: contra current asset.

Q: Short-term operating decisions:
- Arise during the evaluating phase of the management cycle
- Arise during the planning phase of the management cycle
- Assume current capacity is fixed
- Are usually routine decisions which are not unique to any particular situation
A: Assume current capacity is fixed

Q: The term transfer price refers to:
- The price at which a product or service is sold by one segment to another related segment
- The price at which a product or service is sold by a segment to an outside party
- The price at which a product or service is sold to a government entity.
- None of the above
A: The price at which a product or service is sold by one segment to another related segment

Q: The most significant non-cash ____________________item is usually the _______________of the ____________________and the ______________________expenses.
- income statement, total, depreciation, amortisation.
- cash flow statement, multiplication, accrued, deferred.
- balance sheet, division, depreciation, amortisation.
- income statement, subtraction, bad debts, doubtful debts.
A: income statement, total, depreciation, amortisation.

Q: Collections from customers would be reported in the following section of the statement of cash flows:
- Operating activities
- Noncash investing and financing activities
- Financing activities
- Investing activities
A: Operating activities

Q: Cash paid for interest on a note payable would be found in the ______ section of the cash flow statement.
- Financing
- Investing
- Both A and B
- Operating
A: Operating

Q: The performance report usually reports variances which arise between activities that perform differently from expectations as:
- advantageous or disadvantageous.
- mitigating or augmented.
- favourable or unfavourable.
- short-term or long-term.
A: favourable or unfavourable.

Q: If a short-term bank loan were repaid just before the balance sheet date which of the following would change:
- working capital.
- the quick ratio.
- the acid test.
- the current ratio.
A: working capital.

Q: In the horizontal model, effect of revenues, expenses and dividends respectively:
- decreases owners' equity, increases owners' equity, increases retained earnings.
- None of the above.
- decreases owners' equity, increases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.
- increases owners' equity, decreases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.
A: increases owners' equity, decreases owners' equity, reduces retained earnings.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a transaction to be recorded in the accounting records of

an entity?
- Receipt of a plaque recognising the firm's encouragement of employee participation in the United Way fund drive.
- Sale of product to customers.
- Investment of cash by the owners.
- Receipt of services from a 'quick-print' shop in exchange for the promise to provide advertising design services of equivalent value.
A: Receipt of a plaque recognising the firm's encouragement of employee participation in the United Way fund drive.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a term that describes part of the accounting for long-lived assets?
- depreciation
- amortisation
- accumulation
- depletion
A: accumulation

Q: ABC Ltd borrowed $10 000 from bank. The loan agreement was that the loan to be repaid with interest in 6 months. Effects on accounts are to _________ and _________.
- increase assets, decrease liabilities
- decrease assets, increase liabilities
- increase assets, increase liabilities
- decrease assets, decrease liabilities
A: increase assets, increase liabilities

Q: An expanded version of the accounting equation could be:
- A = L + Contributed Capital - Rev + Exp
- A + Exp = L + Beginning Contributed Capital + Rev
- A + Rev = L + OE - Exp
- A - L = Contributed Capital - Rev - Exp
A: A + Exp = L + Beginning Contributed Capital + Rev

Q: The purpose of a common size statement is:
- to express balance sheet and income statement in a percentage format.
- All of the above.
- to compare the operating results of a company over a number years.
- to evaluate the operating results of a company over a number years.
A: All of the above.

Q: Outstanding cheques have been recorded as _________________in the cash balance of the

_______________________ , but which have not yet been presented to the ___________________for payment.
- additions, bank, entity.
- reductions, entity, bank.
- additions, entity, bank.
- reductions, bank, entity.
A: reductions, entity, bank.

Q: The price/earnings ratio:
- does not usually change by more than 1.0 (e.g. 8.2 to 9.2) during the year.
- is calculated by dividing the earnings multiple by net profit.
- can be used to determine the cash dividend to be received during the year.
- is a measure of the relative expensiveness of a firm's ordinary shares.
A: is a measure of the relative expensiveness of a firm's ordinary shares.

Q: ________________ assets are long-lived assets that differ from _________________assets that have been purchased because they are _____________________physically __________________________.
- property and equipment, intangible, not, identifiable.
- intangible, property and equipment, not, strong.
- property and equipment, intangible, not, weak
- intangible, property and equipment, not, identifiable.
A: intangible, property and equipment, not, identifiable.

Q: The concept of a standard cost used for planning and control purposes is most like a:
- measure of ideal performance
- measure of historical performance.
- measure of maximum efficiency.
- unit budget
A: unit budget

Q: Martin & Associates borrowed $5 000 on 1 April 2003 at 8% interest with both principal and interest due on 31 March 2004. How much should be in the firm's interest payable account at 31 December 2003?
- $0
- $400
- $300
- $333
A: $300

Q: Management's use of resources can best be evaluated by focusing on measures of:
- leverage.
- activity.
- liquidity.
- book value.
A: activity.

Q: Which of the following group of users would be more likely to have a specific interest in a firm's 'times interest earned ratio'?
- ordinary shareholders.
- non-management shareholders.
- financial market analysts.
- holders of the firm's long-term debt.
A: holders of the firm's long-term debt.

Q: The balance sheet presentation of accounts receivable net of the allowance for doubtful accounts has the effect of stating accounts receivable at:
- net realisable value.
- lower of cost or market
- original cost.
- market value.
A: net realisable value.

Q: An outstanding cheque in the bank reconciliation process refers to:
- a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.
- a cheque that has 'bounced' from the issuer's bank because there was insufficient funds to honour it.
- one of the bank reconciliation steps has not yet been completed and consequently has not been checked by someone with appropriate authority.
- a very good 'quality' cheque.
A: a cheque that has been recorded as a reduction in the entity's cash records but which has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.

Q: Any ____________on the disposal of a depreciable asset is, in effect, a __________________of the total ______________________expense that has been ________________________over the life of the asset.

A. costs, reduction, original, recorded.
- costs, reduction, original, recorded.
- damage, cost, expected, missed.
- correction, record, gain/loss, controlled.
- gain/loss, correction, depreciation, recorded.
A: gain/loss, correction, depreciation, recorded.

Q: When an uncollectible account receivable is written off against the allowance for bad debts:
- current assets decrease and expenses are not affected.
- total current assets decrease and expenses increase.
- total current assets decrease and expenses decrease.
- total current assets are not affected.
A: total current assets are not affected.

Q: Which of the following is/are an example(s) of a measure of leverage?
- All of the above.
- debt/equity ratio
- debt yield
- debt payout ratio
A: debt/equity ratio

Q: When a firm has financial leverage:
- risk is greater than if there isn't any leverage.
- ROA will usually be less than it would be without leverage.
- ROA will be greater than ROE.
- the firm will always have a higher ROE than it would without leverage.
A: risk is greater than if there isn't any leverage.

Q: If an organisation has an obligation to pay $5 000 to a supplier two years from now, the

present value of the obligation:
- could be calculated using an annuity factor from the present value tables.
- is more than $5 000.
- is less than $5 000.
- is $5 000.
A: is less than $5 000.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding loans receivables (N/R)?
- A loan is a more formal document than an account receivable.
- A N/R is always a current asset.
- A loan is a less formal document than an account receivable.
- A N/R is always a long-term asset.
A: A loan is a more formal document than an account receivable.

Q: If an entity wants to recognise the holding gains that gradually occur with a parcel of land purchased many years earlier without having to sell it the entity:
- can do nothing ie.only by selling the parcel of land will they realise any holding gains.
- can put it up for sale and then withdraw it after an offer is made to buy it.
- can pretend to sell the land and get the appropriate price from a real estate agent.
- can revalue the land to its fair value.
A: can revalue the land to its fair value.

Q: Bug-Ez Corporation manufactures one product, Itch-A-Way, which, when applied to a bug bite, soothes the itch. The unit contribution margin for Itch-A-Way is $4.20, while total fixed costs amount to $537,000. Given a selling price of $8.25 per unit and a target profit of $147,000, Bug-Ez must have total sales of:
- $683,999
- $709,334
- $1,343,578
- $1,054,821
A: $1,343,578

Q: Move's travel budget for October was $720, based on her plan to drive 3 000 miles at a cost

of $0.24 per mile. During October, she actually drove 2 800 miles at a total cost of $700. A

flexed budget performance report would show a variance of:
- $28 U
- $20 F
- $50 F
- $30 U
A: $28 U

Q: The rule for making sound economic decisions is that one should choose the alternative with the
- Highest contribution margin
- Highest revenue
- Lowest sunk costs
- Lowest opportunity cost
A: Highest contribution margin

Q: The production budget uses all of the following EXCEPT:
- the beginning inventory quantity.
- the cash receipts budget.
- the sales forecast.
- the inventory policy.
A: the cash receipts budget.

Q: Retained Earnings represents:
- par value of ordinary shares outstanding.
- cash that is available for dividends.
- the amount invested in the entity by the owners.
- cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.
A: cumulative net profit that has not been distributed to owners as dividends.

Q: To assess a company's ability to generate positive future cash flows, the _________ activities section would be analyzed.
- Noncash investing and financing
- Operating
- Financing
- Investing
A: Operating

Q: An interested investor would most likely compare a firm's 'dividend yield' to which of the following items to determine the extent to which their investment objectives were being met?
- the firm's prospects of continuing to have enough earnings to cover interest expense, even if the firm suffers a decline in demand.
- the yield available on alternative investments with comparable risk.
- EBIT.
- the dividend payout ratio.
A: the yield available on alternative investments with comparable risk.

Q: As a result of receiving $22,000 from accounts receivable, what component(s) of the accounting equation is/are affected?
- assets only.
- assets and owners' equity.
- owners' equity only.
- assets and liabilities.
A: assets only.

Q: One simplifying cost-volume-profit _______________is that the cost behaviour pattern is _______________within the _____________, not __________________.
- assumption, linear, relevant range, curvilinear.
- assumption, drawn, graph, outside.
- fact, relevant, range, irrelevant.
- fact, curvilinear, relevant range, linear.
A: assumption, linear, relevant range, curvilinear.

Q: Sales totaled $385,000, net accounts receivable had a beginning and ending balance of $39,000 and $45,500, respectively and customer deposits had a beginning and ending balance of $21,000 and $32,500, respectively. Cash collections from customers were:
- $403,000
- $367,000
- $390,000
- $385,000
A: $390,000

Q: If there is a loss on the disposal of a depreciable asset:
- in retrospect, the life over which the asset was depreciated was too short.
- in retrospect, the depreciation expense recognised over the asset's life was too low.
- the net book value of the asset was negative.
- no cash was received in the disposal transaction.
A: in retrospect, the depreciation expense recognised over the asset's life was too low.

Q: The balance in the Accrued Wages Payable account increased from $12 200 at the beginning of the month to $15 000 at the end of the month. Wages accrued during the month totalled $61 000. Which of the following is true?
- Wages expense for the month totalled $58 200.
- Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.
- Wages expense for the month totalled $76 000.
- Wages paid during the month totalled $64 800.
A: Wages paid during the month totalled $58 200.

Q: Management accounting (or cost accounting) is:
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth)
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
A: the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.

Q: Following recent international harmonisation of accounting standards, most intangibles are subject to an impairment test and the expense associated with amortisation will become known as:
- an amortised loss.
- an impairment loss.
- depreciation expense.
- accumulated expense.
A: an impairment loss.

Q: Contributed capital represents:
- net assets of the entity at the date of the statement.
- market value of the entity's ordinary shares.
- earnings retained for use in the business.
- the amount invested in the entity by the owners.
A: the amount invested in the entity by the owners.

Q: Which of the following is true?

i. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions occur.

ii. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions affect financial statements.

iii. Transaction analysis can be done prior to the preparation for end of financial year statements.

iv. Transaction analysis helps in knowing whether an analysis makes sense.
- ii, iii and iv
- i, ii, iii and iv
- i and ii
- i, ii and iii
A: ii, iii and iv

Q: Fly-By-Night Toy Co. sells its product for $10 each. Variable costs for last year are $6.50 per unit; fixed costs are $126,000 and sales amounted to 40,000 units. If fixed costs rise by 10%, selling price rises by 10% too but sales units remain at 40,000 items, calculate how much the company's new profit figure per year would become:
- $1,400.
- $95,954 (rounded).
- $41,400.
- $54,000.
A: $41,400.

Q: Which of the following is not a principal form of business organisation?
- Limited unregistered business
- Partnership
- Corporation
- Sole proprietorship
A: Limited unregistered business

Q: A leverage buyout is when:
- a firms goes heavily into debt in order to obtain the funds to purchase the shares of the public shareholders.
- one firm pays cash for the shares of a takeover firm's shares.
- one firm trades its shares for the shares of another firm.
- one firm issues shares to take over another firm.
A: a firms goes heavily into debt in order to obtain the funds to purchase the shares of the public shareholders.

Q: Many companies use accelerated depreciation for tax purposes because:
- it results in lower taxable income than straight-line depreciation.
- it is used for determining net profit reported to shareholders.
- it reflects the amount of cash used in depreciation.
- it is easier to calculate than straight-line depreciation.
A: it results in lower taxable income than straight-line depreciation.

Q: The reason for recording a prepaid expense as a current asset is:
- that the expense has been incurred but not yet paid.
- that the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.
- that the prepaid item will be returned for a cash refund.
- to avoid recognising an expense so net profit will be higher for the current accounting period.
A: that the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.

Q: The 'matching concept' requires that all _____________incurred in generating that period's revenues be _______________from those _______________earned.
- business, recycled, profits.
- expenses, deducted, revenues.
- expenses, deducted, profits.
- revenues, deducted, expenses.
A: expenses, deducted, revenues.

Q: A cash equivalent is a current asset that:
- is readily convertible into cash with a substantial risk.
- is readily convertible into cash with a minimal risk.
- will be converted to cash within one year.
- will be converted to cash within one month.
A: is readily convertible into cash with a minimal risk.

Q: In the __________________a firm's _________________constraints may force a decision about which product(s) should be ____________________next.
- short-term, capacity, produced.
- entity, insurance, sold.
- factory, contribution margin, fixed.
- long-term, capacity, sold.
A: short-term, capacity, produced.

Q: Cameron Company is considering discontinuing production of one of its products and buying the product instead. Which of the following would not be relevant to this decision?
- Sales price
- Incremental costs
- Opportunity costs
- Product quality
A: Sales price

Q: The key data element on which the entire budget is based is the:
- income statement budget.
- sales/revenue forecast.
- balance sheet forecast.
- cash budget.
A: sales/revenue forecast.

Q: The two broad categories of depreciation calculation methods are known as:
- straight-line and reducing-balance.
- reducing-balance and units-of-production.
- accelerated depreciation and units-of-production.
- straight-line and accelerated depreciation.
A: straight-line and accelerated depreciation.

Q: When a depreciable asset is sold:
- a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.
- depreciation expense is adjusted so there is no gain or loss.
- any cash received results in a gain.
- a loss arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.
A: a gain arises if the sales proceeds exceed the net book value.

Q: A perceived disadvantage of the sole trader form of business organisation is:
- the lack of formal requirements needed to start operations.
- the unlimited nature of the owner's personal liability.
- the ease with which one can commence a business.
- being one's own boss.
A: the unlimited nature of the owner's personal liability.

Q: Break even point is where total sales revenue is equal to:
- total variable costs.
- total fixed and variable costs.
- total fixed and variable costs and profits.
- total fixed costs.
A: total fixed and variable costs.

Q: Which of the following accounting concepts/principles is most significant in the development of a capitalisation policy?
- original cost
- materiality
- matching of revenue and expense
- consistency
A: materiality

Q: The principal reason for reconciling the cash balance per books with the balance shown

on the bank statement is to:
- determine whether or not the entity has issued a cheque.
- satisfy generally accepted accounting principles.
- determine the amount of cash in the account actually available to the entity.
- verify the amount of petty cash on hand.
A: determine the amount of cash in the account actually available to the entity.

Q: An entity's retained earnings refers to:
- payment of dividends by increasing liabilities and retaining cash in the business.
- amounts contributed by owners in the form of cash.
- amounts distributed to owners in the form of dividends.
- the amount of profits and owners' equity reserved in the business.
A: the amount of profits and owners' equity reserved in the business.

Q: On July 31, an entity's balance sheet showed total assets of $750 and liabilities of $250.

Owners' equity at July 31 was:
- $1 000
- $250
- $750
- $500
A: $500

Q: Ruddy company's breakeven point is $200,000 sales with a contribution margin ratio of 40%. How much are the company's fixed costs?
- $80,000.
- $333,333 (rounded).
- $200,000.
- $500,000.
A: $80,000.

Q: Theoretically, if particular maintenance expenditure is expected to ___________the useful life of a non-current asset beyond that used in the original ____________calculation, the expenditure could be _______________.
- extend, depreciation, capitalised.
- capitalise, depreciation, prolonged.
- shorten, purchase, expensed.
- depreciate, cost, accumulated.
A: extend, depreciation, capitalised.

Q: When a total fixed cost is expressed on a 'per unit' basis it:
- doesn't alter.
- changes inversely.
- remains fixed.
- becomes semi-variable in nature.
A: changes inversely.

Q: The purpose of a common size statement is:
- to express balance sheet and income statement in a percentage format.
- to compare the operating results of a company over a number years.
- to evaluate the operating results of a company over a number years.
- All of the above.
A: All of the above.

Q: The entry to record depreciation expense:
- increases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.
- decreases a long-term asset and increases a contra long-term asset.
- decreases working capital and decreases net profit.
- decreases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.
A: increases a contra long-term asset and decreases net profit.

Q: Trading and Available-for-Sale securities are reported on the balance sheet at:
- market value.
- weighted average cost.
- net realisable value.
- historical cost.
A: market value.

Q: To assess a company's ability to meet its obligations and pay dividends, the _________ activities section would be analyzed.
- Both a and b are correct
- Financing
- Investing
- Operating
A: Operating

Q: The purchase of inventory on account would, in the buyer's records:
- have no effect on total assets.
- increase liabilities and increase contributed capital.
- increase assets and increase expenses.
- increase assets and increase liabilities.
A: increase assets and increase liabilities.

Q: Payment of cash for interest is considered which of the following in the statement of cash flows?
- Investing
- Operating
- B and C
- Financing
A: Operating

Q: To assess a company's ability to generate positive future cash flows, the _________ activities section would be analyzed.
- Noncash investing and financing
- Financing
- Operating
- Investing
A: Operating

Q: Which of the following is not a category of financial statement ratios?
- financial leverage
- prospectus
- profitability
- liquidity
A: prospectus

Q: A firm receives $100, owed by its client for work performed in an earlier accounting period. The effect of this transaction will be on the:
- balance sheet.
- None of the above.
- balance sheet and income statement.
- income statement.
A: balance sheet and income statement.

Q: Ventilation increases in direct proportion to the metabolic rate.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: The budgeting process most likely to create an attitude supportive of achieving the

organisation's goals is the:
- top-down approach.
- participative approach.
- proportionate increase approach.
- zero based approach.
A: participative approach.

Q: At the beginning of the year, paid-in capital was $82 and retained earnings were $47. During the year, the owners invested $24 and dividends of $6 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the end of the year were $52.

Total owners' equity at the end of the year was:
- $94
- $82
- $158
- $106
A: $158

Q: Which of the following is/are an example(s) of a measure of leverage?
- debt payout ratio
- debt yield
- debt/equity ratio
- All of the above.
A: debt/equity ratio

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38. At the end of the year, retained earnings totalled $1 700. During the year, net profit was $250 and dividends of $120 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the beginning of the year totalled:
- $2 070
- $1 570
- $1 230
- $1 330
A: $1 570

Q: The 'statement of changes in owner's equity' (or 'statement of changes in share capital' or 'statement of changes in retained earnings') shows which of the following?
- investments by and distributions to owners during the period.
- the financial position at the end of the period.
- the cash flows during the period.
- the result for the period.
A: investments by and distributions to owners during the period.

Q: Owners' equity refers to which to the following?
- A listing of the organisation's assets and liabilities.
- The ownership right of the owner(s) of the entity.
- All of the above.
- Probable future sacrifices of economic benefits.
A: The ownership right of the owner(s) of the entity.

Q: The cost of property, plant and equipment is transferred to ____________________over time through accounting ______________________.
- expense, depreciation.
- depreciation, amortisation.
- profit and loss, credits.
- amortisation, expenses.
A: expense, depreciation.

Q: Accrual accounting:
- cannot result in the entity having net profit unless cash is received from customers.
- results in the balance sheet showing the fair market value of the entity's assets.
- is designed to match revenues and expenses.
- means that expenses are recorded when they are paid.
A: is designed to match revenues and expenses.

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a young sendentary female is approximately 83 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 July 2003. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the firm's depreciation expense for the year ended 30 June 2004?
- $6 000
- $2 000
- $8 800
- $4 400
A: $4 400

Q: Ruddy company's breakeven point is $200,000 sales with a contribution margin ratio of 40%. How much are the company's fixed costs?
- $200,000.
- $500,000.
- $333,333 (rounded).
- $80,000.
A: $80,000.

Q: Which of the following are reclassification adjustments?

i. Prepaid insurance

ii. Revenues received in advance

iii. Cash received from customers after the service is performed.

iv. Cash received from customer before the product is sold
- i, ii and iii
- i, ii, iii and iv
- i, ii and iv
- i and ii
A: i, ii and iv

Q: The allowance for doubtful debts account is a ____________asset because it is reported as a _____________to the related asset in the ______________________________.
- non-current, deduction, balance sheet.
- contra, contribution, income statement.
- current, contribution, income statement.
- contra, deduction, balance sheet.
A: contra, deduction, balance sheet.

Q: Goodwill is an intangible asset. If a company is purchased at $100 000 and its fair market value is

$40 000 and it has loans payable of $20 000, the effect of this transaction on

financial statements is to:
- decrease liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, decrease assets by $80 000
- decrease liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, increase assets by $80 000
- increase liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, increase assets by $80 000
- decrease liabilities by $20 000, increase assets by $100 000, decrease assets by $80 000
A: increase liabilities by $20 000, decrease assets by $100 000, increase assets by $80 000

Q: At the beginning of the financial year, the balance sheet showed assets of $1 364 and

owners' equity of $836. During the year, assets increased by $74 and liabilities decreased by $38.

Liabilities at the end of the year totalled:
- $490
- $910
- $836
- $528
A: $490

Q: When a firm uses the LIFO inventory cost flow assumption:
- cost of goods sold will be greater than if FIFO were used.
- better matching of revenue and expense is achieved than under FIFO.
- net income will be greater than if FIFO were used.
- cost of goods sold will be the same as if FIFO were used.
A: better matching of revenue and expense is achieved than under FIFO.

Q: Nowlin & Rudder is a manufacturer of sports equipment. It has been approached by a large European retailer about the possibility of producing a special order of tennis rackets. Under which of the following conditions should Nowlin & Rudder accept this offer?
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the incremental cost of the special order
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the total variable cost of the special order
- The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the fixed cost related to of the special order
A: The firm has the capacity to produce the special order and the special-order price exceeds the incremental cost of the special order

Q: Dividend is a distribution of _________ to the _________ of the company.

i. contributed capital

ii. earnings

iii. owners

iv. customers
- iii, iv
- ii, iii
- i., ii
- i., iv
A: ii, iii

Q: Dividends that have been declared but not paid as at balance sheet date have which of the following combination of effects on the records of the entity?
- a reduction of retained earnings and a current liability.
- an expense and a contra asset.
- an expense and a current liability.
- a reduction of retained earnings and an expense.
A: a reduction of retained earnings and a current liability.

Q: A favourable materials quantity variance would occur if:
- actual labour hours used was greater than the standard labour hours allowed
- actual pounds of materials used was greater than the standard pounds allowed
- actual pounds of materials used was less than the standard pounds allowed
- more material is purchased than is used.
A: actual pounds of materials used was less than the standard pounds allowed

Q: When a firm purchases supplies for use in its business, and the cost of the supplies purchased is recorded as an asset, the following adjustment to recognise the cost of supplies used will probably be required:
- increase supplies and increase accounts payable.
- No adjustment will probably be required.
- increase supplies expense and decrease supplies.
- increase supplies and decrease supplies expense.
A: increase supplies expense and decrease supplies.

Q: The highest maximal oxygen consumption possible for a given individual is usually measured during a graded treadmill walk test to exhaustion.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: The contribution margin ratio is calculated as:
- Selling price per unit/variable cost per unit
- Contribution margin per unit/selling price per unit
- Total fixed cost/contribution margin per unit
- Variable cost per unit/fixed cost per unit
A: Contribution margin per unit/selling price per unit

Q: The concept of a standard cost used for planning and control purposes is most like a:
- measure of historical performance.
- measure of maximum efficiency.
- measure of ideal performance
- unit budget
A: unit budget

Q: Which of the following generates the contribution margin?
- Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit
- Selling price per unit - fixed cost per unit
- Variable cost per unit - fixed cost per unit
- Fixed cost per unit - Selling price per unit
A: Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit

Q: Inventory turnover is:
- None of the above.
- A and B.
- cost of goods sold divided by average inventory.
- Sales divided by average inventory.
A: A and B.

Q: Which of the following inventory accounting systems has been made much more feasible as a result of computer systems developments?
- Perpetual
- Physical
- Just-in-time
- Periodic
A: Perpetual

Q: XYZ Ltd purchased a moulding machine for $190 000, with useful life of 14 years, salvage value of $50 000. It is estimated that the machine can produce 700 moulds. Using the units-of-production method, depreciation expense for 75 moulds produced each year

will be:
- $27 100
- $34 300
- $15 000
- $20 000
A: $15 000

Q: Dividends are ____________of earnings that have been made to ___________of an entity.
- distributions, owners.
- liabilities, business.
- reports, owners.
- affiliations, resources.
A: distributions, owners.

Q: The principal objective of a performance report is to:
- highlight activities that need management attention
- highlight budgets that have been incorrectly established
- provide a basis for rewarding effective managers
- direct blame to those managers who did not meet goals
A: highlight activities that need management attention

Q: Following recent international harmonisation of accounting standards, most intangibles are subject to an impairment test and the expense associated with amortisation will become known as:
- an amortised loss.
- accumulated expense.
- depreciation expense.
- an impairment loss.
A: an impairment loss.

Q: Which of the following is(are) a category(ies) for securities?
- All of the above.
- trading
- available-for-sale
- held-to-maturity
A: All of the above.

Q: At the beginning of the year, paid-in capital was $82 and retained earnings were $47. During the year, the owners invested $24 and dividends of $6 were declared and paid. Retained earnings at the end of the year were $52.

Net profit for the year was:
- $10
- $11
- $15
- $20
A: $11

Q: Expenses are:
- decreases in net assets resulting from usual operating activities.
- decreases in net assets from dividends to shareholders.
- cash disbursements.
- decreases in net assets from uninsured accidents.
A: decreases in net assets resulting from usual operating activities.

Q: Depreciation is:
- a method of measuring the 'wearing out' of a non-current asset's value over its lifetime in keeping with the application of the matching concept.
- a means of allocating the cost of a non-current asset over a number of accounting reporting periods as an application of the matching concept.
- an attempt to recognise a loss in market value of a non-current asset.
- an attempt to recognise differences between the original cost and replacement cost.
A: a means of allocating the cost of a non-current asset over a number of accounting reporting periods as an application of the matching concept.

Q: Which of the following is true?

i. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions occur.

ii. Transaction analysis is the process of determining how transactions affect financial statements.

iii. Transaction analysis can be done prior to the preparation for end of financial year statements.

iv. Transaction analysis helps in knowing whether an analysis makes sense.
- i and ii
- ii, iii and iv
- i, ii, iii and iv
- i, ii and iii
A: ii, iii and iv

Q: The dividend payout ratio describes:
- dividends as a percentage of the price/earnings ratio.
- the percentage change in dividends this year compared to last year.
- the proportion of earnings paid as dividends.
- the relationship of dividends per share to market price per share.
A: the proportion of earnings paid as dividends.

Q: Financial accounting is:
- like that of an external auditor although on a smaller but more comprehensive scale.
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
A: the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.

Q: Standards are most appropriately used to:
- reward workers and managers who meet them.
- support the planning and control processes of the firm
- calculate the unit cost of a product or service.
- penalise workers and managers who do not meet them.
A: support the planning and control processes of the firm

Q: Auditing is:
- the process that results in the preparation and reporting of financial statements for an entity.
- the use of economic and financial information to plan and control many of the entity's activities and to support the management decision-making process.
- the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).
- about developing specialty skills such as expertise in international tax law issues.
A: the review of the financial statements of other entities to achieve an independent view by a third party in accordance with the (Cwlth).

Q: Financial leverage:
- arises because most borrowed funds have a fixed interest rate.
- is a concept that does not apply to individuals.
- usually has no bearing on the risk associated with a company.
- arises because most borrowed funds have a variable interest rate.
A: arises because most borrowed funds have a fixed interest rate.

Q: Which of the following is NOT an example of an inventory account a manufacturing company might use?
- Raw materials inventory
- Work in process inventory
- Inventory
- Finished goods inventory
A: Inventory

Q: The ________________is a measure of the amount of each dollar of sales that is available to cover operating ________________________ and ______________________, after covering the _____________________.
- gross profit, expenses, profit, cost of goods sold.
- profit, cost of goods sold, expenses, gross profit.
- cost of goods sold, profit, expenses, gross profit.
- profit, expenses, gross profit, cost of goods sold.
A: gross profit, expenses, profit, cost of goods sold.

Q: ________________ assets are long-lived assets that differ from _________________assets that have been purchased because they are _____________________physically __________________________.
- intangible, property and equipment, not, identifiable.
- intangible, property and equipment, not, strong.
- property and equipment, intangible, not, weak
- property and equipment, intangible, not, identifiable.
A: intangible, property and equipment, not, identifiable.

Q: When an income statement shows data for segments of the organisation, and data for each

segment is added together to get totals for the whole organisation:
- only direct revenues and direct expenses should be assigned to segments
- common fixed expenses should be allocated to the segments.
- direct fixed expenses should be subtracted as one amount in the 'total' column
- all expenses should be allocated to the segments.
A: only direct revenues and direct expenses should be assigned to segments

Q: Revenues are:
- cash receipts.
- increases in net assets from selling ordinary shares.
- increases in net assets from occasional sales of equipment.
- increases in net assets from selling a product.
A: increases in net assets from selling a product.

Q: Which of the following is the formula for the contribution margin ratio?
- Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit/selling price per unit
- Variable cost per unit/selling price per unit
- Selling price per unit - fixed cost per unit/selling price per unit
- Fixed cost per unit/selling price per unit
A: Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit/selling price per unit

Q: The intangible asset 'goodwill':
- arises because the market value of a company's assets is greater than cost.
- may arise when one company purchases another company.
- represents the management team's assessment of its value to the company.
- all of the above are correct.
A: may arise when one company purchases another company.

Q: The change in total revenue, if one alternative is implemented instead of another is referred to as:
- Operating revenue
- Joint revenue
- Sales revenue
- Incremental revenue
A: Incremental revenue

Q: Moped Ltd purchased machinery at a cost of $22 000 on 1 January 2004. The expected useful life is 10 years and the asset is expected to have salvage value of $2 000. Moped depreciates its assets via the double-reducing balance method. What is the accumulated depreciation for this asset on December 31, 2005?
- $14 800
- None of the above.
- $16 000
- $6 400
- $8 000
A: None of the above.

Q: Short-term operating decisions:
- Arise during the planning phase of the management cycle
- Are usually routine decisions which are not unique to any particular situation
- Arise during the evaluating phase of the management cycle
- Assume current capacity is fixed
A: Assume current capacity is fixed

Q: Leasehold is an example of which of the following types of assets?
- intangible asset
- current asset
- goodwill
- property, plant & equipment
A: intangible asset

Q: During 2008, cash payments for wages totaled $954,500, while wages payable decreased by $67,800. Wages expense reported on the income statement equaled:
- $818,900
- $1,090,100
- $1,022,300
- $886,700
A: $886,700

A: – The visuospatial sketch pad

- f) Motivational factors of the receiver
- e) The stimulus characteristics
- d) The context in which perception is occurring
- c) Individual ability in terms of knowledge or skill
- b) The physical context in which stimuli are presented
- a) Individual sensory abilities
- g) All of the above
A: f) Motivational factors of the receiver; d) The context in which perception is occurring; c) Individual ability in terms of knowledge or skill

Q: The highest possible maximal oxygen consumption for a given individual is usually measured during a maximal cycle ergometer test.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: If a woman was to undergo a YMCA submaximal cycle ergometer test to predict maximal oxygen consumption when she was taking propranolol, her predicted result would be accurate.
- true
- false
A: false

a) Levels of occupational stress are affected by what variables

and

b) job strain is likely to be highest when

Q: a perceptual phenomenon arising from acomparison between [...] on the person and [...] to cope.

 An imbalance in this mechanism,when coping is important, gives rise to the experience of stress, and to stress response.”
A: the demand; his ability

Name five of these nine categories (NB: variants within the same category will be counted as only one)

Q: 1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: TBC; TBC; TBC

Q: 1. [...]
2. [...]
A: tbc; tbc

Q: 1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
A: tbc; tbc; tbc; tbc

Q: • what two different forms of information coding can be used throughout the information processing system (depending on task characteristics)

• which two different stimulus modalities have been shown to use different attentional resources?

• which two different response modalities have been shown to use different attentional resources?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: tbc; tbc; tbc

Q: If a man was to undergo a YMCA submaximal cycle ergometer test to predict maximal oxygen consumption when he was taking propranolol, his predicted result would be underestimated.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Holding a pen (This is a skill.)
- Asking for clarification. (This is a language function.)
- A job interview. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Knowing when to pay a compliment. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- I really appreciate your helping me with this. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Asking for clarification.

Q: Jim is a 40 year old man who weighs 100 kg. He participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. He completed the 1st stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 118 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Jim's predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Jim's fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: 28.0 / Very poor; 28.0 / Very poor

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- If required, enter information about the location in the first box. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding the need to back up computer files.

Q: John offered to be the team subject in a physiology practical class. Your team collected John’s expired gas into a Douglas bag for a period of 1 minute. You used the Aichi Tokei metre to measure the volume of gas in the bag and it was determined that 30 L were collected. The temperature in the laboratory was 23°C and the ambient barometric pressure was 760 mmHg at the time the gas was collected. Use 1 decimal point in your answers for 1. and 2. Use a whole number for your answer to 3. Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was John’s minute ventilation in L/min ATPS?

2. What was John’s minute ventilation L/min BTPS?

3. Assuming a breathing frequency of 23 breaths per minute, what was the average tidal volume in ml, ATPS?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: 30.0 / 1304 / 32.6; 30.0 / 1304 / 32.6; 32.6 / 30.0 / 1304

Q: Hypertension is considered to be a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Intonation and stress when giving opinions to be more polite (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Chatting about recent events (This is a language function.)
- Negation of adjectives (This is a grammatical structure)
- A casual conversation between two people (This is a text type)
- Knowing when it is OK to interrupt someone when they are speaking. (This is sujbect matter / cultural knowledge)
A: A casual conversation between two people

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Modal structures in the present – can/can’t, must/mustn’t, should/shouldn’t, have to/don’t have to, is/are allowed (These are grammatical structures)
- The film 'Rain Man' (This is a text type.)
- The range of attitudes towards school uniforms (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
- Describing someone's appearance (This is a language function)
- blazer, tie, jewellery, make up, v-neck jumper (These are vocabulary items)
A: The film 'Rain Man'

Q: Increased diffusion of oxygen from the blood into skeletal muscle fibres partially explains the increase in maximal oxygen consumption after an endurance training program.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Enter your personal details information in the first field then save. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Download and install software to a computer.

Q: Maria is a 65 year old female who weighs 48 kg. She participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. She completed the 1st stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 125 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Maria’s predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Maria’s fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: 21.0 / Fair; 21.0 / Fair

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Bring to the boil. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Instructions on how to use a microwave oven. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Awareness of different dietary requirements of people from different cultures. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Awareness of different dietary requirements of people from different cultures.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- You’ve missed the deadline therefore we cannot accept your submission. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Write an academic essay.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- The website of a government department. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Click on the link. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding which government department deals with migration issues. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- You have to show your ticket to the inspector. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Use the internet to find information. (This is a skill.)
A: Use the internet to find information.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
A: Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
- If required, enter information about the location in the first box. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Download and install software to a computer.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- settings, app’s, network, wireless. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Awareness of costs associated with use of mobile phones. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Using a mobile phone. (This is a skill.)
- I phoned her. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A manual for a mobile phone. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Awareness of costs associated with use of mobile phones.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Knowledge about customs around serving and consumption of alcohol. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Instructions on how to use a microwave oven. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Bring to the boil. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
A: Knowledge about customs around serving and consumption of alcohol.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- In the long run. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A menu (This is a text or discourse type)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Create a word document on a computer (This is a skill.)
A: Requesting information

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Train tickets can be bought at a newsagent (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Asking for assistance (This is a language function.)
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- A report about the repairs that are needed to house. (This is a text or discourse type)
A: Minimum payment due: $25

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Buying a train ticket (This is a language function.)
- A bus timetable (This is a text or discourse type)
- Don't forget to ring me. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- He's off his head. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- The diphthong sound in the words: boy, toy oil, etc. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Don't forget to ring me.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list (This is a skill.)
- At the end of the day (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Requesting information

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Place your orders at the counter. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Ordering food at a café or restaurant. (This is a language function.)
- Reading a menu. (This is a skill.)
- Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A menu. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- please, thank you (These are vocabulary items.)
- I’m having my hair cut tomorrow (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Advising someone about a healthy lifestyle. (This is a language function.)
- Sometimes the final consonant in a word is deleted when 3 or more consonants are pronounced together. E.g. Sorry, I didn’t get that. She phoned me and told me to come. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: I’m having my hair cut tomorrow

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Submit your essay to the assignment dropbox. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- An adventure story. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Using a bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
- I’ve never driven a left-hand drive car. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Before leaving the house, Kim rang her parents. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Using a bilingual dictionary.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Understanding the structure and purpose of a job interview. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A job interview. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Present information about yourself at a job interview. (This is a skill.)
- I'm thinking of changing jobs. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- assessment criteria, references, referees, resume, cv. (These are vocabulary items.)
A: Present information about yourself at a job interview.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- It's dead easy. (No, this is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Making small talk (Yes, this is a language function.)
- Linking words E.g. He’s_eaten a lot_of junk food today. (No, this is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Radio talkback (No this is a text or discourse type)
- Identifying symbols (No, this is a skill.)
A: Making small talk

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- The website of a government department. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- You have to show your ticket to the inspector. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Click on the link. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding which government department deals with migration issues. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Use the internet to find information. (This is a skill.)
A: Use the internet to find information.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
A: Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
- I'm looking forward to my holidays (This is a grammatical structure)
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- often, sometimes, rarely (These are vocabulary items.)
- A magazine advice column. (This is a text or discourse type)
A: I'm looking forward to my holidays

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- A telephone conversation between friends (This is a text or discourse type)
- Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Chatting about your weekend (This is a language function.)
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please?

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- I am writing to inform you about changes to the program. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Persuading someone to do something. (This is a language function)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list (This is a skill.)
A: I am writing to inform you about changes to the program.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A telephone conversation between friends (This is a text or discourse type)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
A: Providing information

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
A: Read a weather chart.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Sensitivity to different religious observances. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Road signs. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list. (This is a skill.)
- There will be a bus to take you to the venue departing from the front of the conference centre. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- It’s neither easy nor difficult. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Look up words in an alphabetically organised list.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
- He's a hard nut to crack. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- A leaflet advertising short courses (This is a text or discourse type)
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- Linking consonants produces a new sound: e.g. Could___you? We get a dz sound when these words are said together. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Offering help

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Please advise.... (This is a grammatical structure)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Asking for permission (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- The importance of excursion in Australian school programs (This is cultural knowledge .)
A: Asking for permission

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A telephone conversation between friends (This is a text or discourse type)
- Chatting about your weekend (This is a language function.)
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please?

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Awareness of different dietary requirements of people from different cultures. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Instructions on how to use a microwave oven. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Bring to the boil. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Awareness of different dietary requirements of people from different cultures.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list. (This is a skill.)
- Classroom notice. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Sensitivity to different religious observances. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Today’s class is cancelled. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- there’ll, she’ll, we’ll. (These are vocabulary items. The pronunciation of each of these might also be the focus of some teaching or practice.)
A: Sensitivity to different religious observances.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- A menu. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Reading a menu. (This is a skill.)
- Place your orders at the counter. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Ordering food at a café or restaurant. (This is a language function.)
- Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I used to get up early (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A spoken interaction between an employee of a telphone company and and a customer. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Interrupting a conversation. (This is a language function.)
- Typing (This is a skill.)
A: I used to get up early

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Could you tell me how to get to X, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A telephone conversation with a service provider (This is a text or discourse type)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Providing information

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
- An email to a work colleague (This is a text or discourse type)
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- A milk bar doesn’t serve alcohol (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
A: Providing information

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- blazer, tie, jewellery, make up, v-neck jumper (These are vocabulary items)
- The range of attitudes towards school uniforms (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
- The film 'Rain Man' (This is a text type.)
- Modal structures in the present – can/can’t, must/mustn’t, should/shouldn’t, have to/don’t have to, is/are allowed (These are grammatical structures)
- Describing someone's appearance (This is a language function)
A: The film 'Rain Man'

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Using a bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
- Past continuous verbs (This is a grammatical structure)
- Expressing opinions (This is a language function.)
- An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes. (This is a text type)
- Awareness of what kind of relationships and perceptions that people hold between the people from the south of Ireland and the north of Ireland. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
A: An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I really appreciate your helping me with this. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A popular children's story or a fable. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Giving advice. (This is a language function.)
- Knowing when to pay a compliment. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- increase, decrease, improve, worsen (These are vocabulary items.)
A: I really appreciate your helping me with this.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- A menu (This is a text or discourse type)
- Expressing doubt (This is a language function.)
- Producing words with adequate length in the vowel sounds (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Create a word document on a computer (This is a skill.)
- In the long run. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
A: Expressing doubt

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Send a text message.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Enter your personal details information in the first field then save. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
A: Download and install software to a computer.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- A magazine advice column. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- often, sometimes, rarely (These are vocabulary items.)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
- I'm looking forward to my holidays (This is a grammatical structure)
A: I'm looking forward to my holidays

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- You're getting ahead of yourself. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Expaining how to use cash register (This is a language function.)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
- A poster advertising a community event (This is a text or discourse type)
- I'm playing tennis with Georgie on Saturday. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: I'm playing tennis with Georgie on Saturday.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Identifying signs and symbols (No, this is a skill.)
- A conversation between two friends (No this is a text or discourse type)
- Making small talk (Yes, this is a language function.)
- It's dead easy. (No, this is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Linking words E.g. He’s_eaten a lot_of junk food today. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: Making small talk

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
- If required, enter information about the location in the first box. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
A: Understanding the need to back up computer files.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Knowing when it is OK to interrupt someone when they are speaking. (This is sujbect matter / cultural knowledge)
- A casual conversation between two people (This is a text type)
- Negation of adjectives (This is a grammatical structure)
- Chatting about recent events (This is a language function.)
- Intonation and stress when giving opinions to be more polite (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: A casual conversation between two people

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Using intonation when disagreeing that indicates politeness (This is related to pronunciation)
- diagnosis, treatment (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding that it is OK to question a doctor's advice. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
- I'm not very comfortable with that / I'd really rather not have to do that / Is there an alternative to that? (These are grammatical structures)
- A consultation with a doctor (This is a text type)
A: A consultation with a doctor

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- I really don’t like the way that program is organised. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A posting in a blog about places to go to eat in Melbourne. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Use a keyboard. (This is a skill.)
- I’d rather watch a movie than go to the party. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Awareness of the history of European settlement in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Use a keyboard.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- assessment criteria, references, referees, resume, cv. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding the structure and purpose of a job interview. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- I'm thinking of changing jobs. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A job interview. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Present information about yourself at a job interview. (This is a skill.)
A: Present information about yourself at a job interview.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- Submit your essay to the assignment dropbox. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: A recipe.

Q: Which of the following is text or discourse type?
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- Let’s make it Saturday. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
A: A text message.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list (This is a skill.)
- Persuading someone to do something. (This is a language function)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- I am writing to let you know .... (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: I am writing to let you know ....

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- I really appreciate your helping me with this. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Knowing when to pay a compliment. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- A job interview. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Holding a pen (This is a skill.)
- Asking for clarification. (This is a language function.)
A: Asking for clarification.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Thanks very much / Thanks a lot. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Using the topic of the weather as small talk. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Opening a book from right to left (This is a skill.)
- Recounting an event. (This is a language function.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
A: Recounting an event.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- It's dead easy. (No, this is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Radio talkback (No this is a text or discourse type)
- Making small talk (Yes, this is a language function.)
- Linking words E.g. He’s_eaten a lot_of junk food today. (No, this is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Identifying symbols (No, this is a skill.)
A: Making small talk

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list (This is a skill.)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- At the end of the day (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
A: Requesting information

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I used to get up early (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A spoken interaction between an employee of a telphone company and and a customer. (This is a text or discourse type)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Interrupting a conversation. (This is a language function.)
- Typing (This is a skill.)
A: I used to get up early

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Don't forget to ring me. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- The diphthong sound in the words: boy, toy oil, etc. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- He's off his head. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Buying a train ticket (This is a language function.)
- A bus timetable (This is a text or discourse type)
A: Don't forget to ring me.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I'm looking forward to my holidays (This is a grammatical structure)
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- often, sometimes, rarely (These are vocabulary items.)
- A magazine advice column. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
A: I'm looking forward to my holidays

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list (This is a skill.)
- Persuading someone to do something. (This is a language function)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- I am writing to inform you about changes to the program. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
A: I am writing to inform you about changes to the program.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Understanding the need to back up computer files. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Instruction for installing software. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Download and install software to a computer. (This is a skill.)
- If required, enter information about the location in the first box. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- click, right-click, enter, open, browse to, tab. (These are vocabulary items.)
A: Download and install software to a computer.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- You’ve missed the deadline therefore we cannot accept your submission. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
A: Write an academic essay.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Awareness of the history of European settlement in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- A posting in a blog about places to go to eat in Melbourne. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- I’d rather watch a movie than go to the party. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Use a keyboard. (This is a skill.)
- I really don’t like the way that program is organised. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Use a keyboard.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
A: Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Road signs. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- It’s neither easy nor difficult. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list. (This is a skill.)
- There will be a bus to take you to the venue departing from the front of the conference centre. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Sensitivity to different religious observances. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Look up words in an alphabetically organised list.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
A: Send a text message.

Q: Choose the most correct answer in relation to peer reviewed journal articles
- Peer reviewed journal articles are usually found in newspapers
- Peer reviewed journal articles have been checked by experts within the field before they are published
- Peer reviewed journal articles always have the label ‘peer reviewed’ at the top
A: Peer reviewed journal articles have been checked by experts within the field before they are published

Q: The Factiva database is best used:
- To find statistics related to health and welfare
- To find newspaper articles
- To find scholarly journal articles
A: To find newspaper articles

Q: Choose the most correct answer in relation to peer reviewed journal articles
- Peer reviewed journal articles have been checked by experts within the field before they are published
- Peer reviewed journal articles always have the label ‘peer reviewed’ at the top
- Peer reviewed journal articles are usually found in newspapers
A: Peer reviewed journal articles have been checked by experts within the field before they are published

Q: Briefly explain the difference between ‘hazard’ and ‘risk’

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: a hazard specific object or finite event with the potential to cause harm or a loss of some kind. / The risk is is a combination of the likelihood of the hazard being realised and the severity of it's consequences.; a hazard specific object or finite event with the potential to cause harm or a loss of some kind. / The risk is is a combination of the likelihood of the hazard being realised and the severity of it's consequences.

Q: In the context of extraneous variables, "history" refers to
- differences in participants' knowledge of the subject matter of the experiment in which they are participating.
- events that can influence how accurately one can control the independent variable.
- events that can influence the dependent variable, that occur between the first and second measurement of that variable.
- variables from one's childhood that influence behaviour.
A: events that can influence the dependent variable, that occur between the first and second measurement of that variable.

Q: In 1803, _______________ was the first black nation to gain independence from European colonial rule.
- Nigeria
- Trinidad and Tobago
- Haiti
- Kenya
- Angola
A: Haiti
Feedback: Haiti was the first black nation to gain independence from European colonial rule. Independence for other black nations came much later: Nigeria (1960), Trinidad & Tobago (1962), Kenya (1963), and Angola (1975).

Q: What is the best technique to use to control for sequencing effects?
- counterbalancing
- yoked matching
- precision control matching
- random assignment to groups
A: counterbalancing

Q: Dr. Toris wants to test an incentive program to increase attendance in her classes. For the first 8 weeks of the semester she does not use the program, and records attendance rates each week. Then she institutes the incentive program for the last 8 weeks and continues to record attendance rate each week. She detects an increase in attendance over the last 8 weeks. This is an example of which experimental design?
- multiple baseline
- non-equivalent control group
- interrupted time series
- one group before-after
A: interrupted time series

Q: If one were using the multiple-baseline design to examine the effect of treatment across a number of different behaviours, one must take care to insure that the behaviours examined are
- independent of each other.
- common to the majority of members of the population.
- unique or rarely reported in the literature.
- really problem behaviours.
A: independent of each other.

Q: The main objectives of science are said to be description, explanation, prediction, and control. Of all the nonexperimental research techniques studied, correlational research is particularly well suited for which objective?
- control
- prediction
- explanation
- description
A: prediction

Q: Of these, how many copies were held in the reserve collection in Bendigo campus library?
- 1
- 2
- 4
A: 2

Q: Dr. Kaiser, a sports psychologist, wants to know if he can improve the cardiovascular endurance in elementary school children. He is allowed to study two physical education classes at a local school, one boys’ class and one girls’ class. On the pretest, the girls on average have slightly better cardiovascular endurance as measured on the step test. He administers the year-long aerobic dancing program to the girls’ class. The posttests revealed that the girls’ cardiovascular endurance improved much more than the boys.’ Dr. Kaiser must now decide if the program really worked or
- if the boys just didn’t want to compete with the girls.
- if there was a selection-maturation effect.
- if there was a statistical-regression effect.
- if girls always do better in aerobic exercises.
A: if there was a selection-maturation effect.

Q: Of these, how many copies were held in the reserve collection in the Albury Wodonga library?
- 1
- 2
- 4
A: 1

Q: An urban community clinic wants to try a new method of getting drug addicts to kick their addiction. They advertise for participants in their lobby, and start the first 20 volunteers on the program. Three months later, they find that 65% of the volunteers are off drugs. This example illustrates the possibility of ________________ as a plausible rival hypothesis.
- selection
- statistical regression
- maturation
- history
A: selection

Q: How many copies of this title are in the Bendigo Campus library?
- 4
- 6
- 2
A: 2

Q: What are the major sources of extraneous influence that cannot be controlled by random assignment to groups?
- experimenter and participant effects
- instrumentation and mortality
- selection and statistical regression
- history and maturation
A: experimenter and participant effects

Q: In some experimental designs participants are tested under more than one condition. A sequence effect may confound the results if
- more than one independent variable.
- the participants have been in other psychology experiments.
- some of the participants only receive the first condition.
- performance under the later conditions is altered by participating in the prior conditions.
A: performance under the later conditions is altered by participating in the prior conditions.

Q: What is the common purpose of using the techniques double blinding and deception?
- They eliminate experimenter bias.
- They eliminate the effects of most known extraneous variables.
- They are more economical and easier to use than randomization or matching.
- They keep participants' perceptions of the experiment constant across different condition of the experiment.
A: They keep participants' perceptions of the experiment constant across different condition of the experiment.

Q: How many copies of this title are in the Albury Wodonga Campus library?
- 4
- 6
- 2
A: 2

Q: The “third variable” issue refers to
- confounding factors in quantitative experimental research.
- not considering “age” as a variable when doing developmental research.
- the ambiguity introduced when doing more complex research with more than two variables.
- the possibility that two variables are correlated because each is caused by a third variable
A: the possibility that two variables are correlated because each is caused by a third variable

If we analyse David’s excerpt from an attachment theory perspective what can we say about his past and present attachment styles? Are they the same or different? If they are different, name the past and present attachment styles. Give a reason for your answer.

Q: What type of attribution bias explains Georgia’s comment?
- False consensus effect
- Self-serving bias
- Actor-observer effect
- Fundamental attribution error
A: Self-serving bias

Q: A psychotherapist has three clients all of whom suffer from agoraphobia. He wants to see if his new behavioral therapy is effective in treating this fear. In the beginning of his experiment, he measures number of times each client goes out in public. The next week, he starts one client on the therapy while withholding it from the other two, and, for all three clients measures number of times each goes out in public that week. Then he keeps the first client on the therapy, starts it with the second client, and again measures number of times out in public for all three. Finally, in week four he starts the therapy with the third client, so now all three are experiencing the therapy. This is an example of which kind of single-case design?
- changing criterion design
- multiple baseline design
- interaction design
- A-B-A design
A: multiple baseline design

Q: Which of the following do we use as our interval estimate for [mu]?
- the sample mean, plus or minus the standard error.
- the confidence interval.
- the margin of error (MOE).
- a range of values centred on [mu].
A: the confidence interval.

Q: In many practical situations, the paired design is likely to:
- require more participants than other simple designs.
- offer a sensitive assessment of the effect of the independent variable.
- offer scope for the correlation of the independent variable to be maximised.
- suffer because of large differences between people.
A: offer a sensitive assessment of the effect of the independent variable.

Q: Select the TITLE option. Type in the title below.

Click on SUBMIT SEARCH

Rosenzweig, M.R., Breedlove, S.M., Watson, N.V. (2005) Biological psychology: An introduction to behavioural and cognitive neuroscience. Sunderland, M.S: Sinauer Associates

How many copies of this title are in the Bundoora Campus Library?
- 4
- 6
- 2
A: 4

Q: Of these, how many copies were held in the reserve collection in the Bundoora campus library?
- 1
- 2
- 4
A: 4

List some of the negative effects of sensory and social deprivation.

Duck (1988, 1992) proposed a relationship dissolution model comprising of four stages. List and describe the four stages of this model and name which stage Georgia is in and why?

Vaughan and Hogg (2002) define attraction as feelings of positivity about another and a sense of wanting to get to know a person and spend time with them. What reasons would you give for Theresa being attracted to Nicholas?

What elements of the advertisement have persuaded Pete to want to eat whacky snacks (list and describe)?

Clue: Think about this in relation to the three factors identified in the Yale approach to communication and persuasion (the communicator, the message and the audience).

After her conversation with Pete, Theresa is upset and is thus experiencing physiological arousal. It seems that her own view of whacky snacks is in conflict with that of Pete’s. While she disagrees about buying whacky snacks, she doesn’t like upsetting Pete. By holding these opposing views in her mind she is experiencing cognitive dissonance. In what ways can she resolve the dissonance?

List some reasons why humans need to affiliate with others.

How has self-disclosure affected the relationship between Theresa and Nicholas?

From a social exchange perspective, why did Theresa engage in such a friendship with Nicholas given that she was already in a long-standing marriage with her husband David?

Clue: Think of comparison level of alternatives, see Box 13.6 on p. 377 of Vaughan and Hogg (2002).

In the context of the elaboration-likelihood model of persuasion (Petty & Cacioppo, 1986) why does wrtiting a letter force Josh to use a central and more careful route of information processing?

Clue: Think about why you process information more carefully when you read it. See Figure 6.5 p. 156, Vaughan and Hogg (2002).

Q: In terms of self schemata, how would we characterise Georgia as a basketball player and as a big sister?
- aschematic basketball player, schematic big sister
- aschematic basketball player, aschematic big sister
- schematic basketball player, aschematic big sister
- schematic basketball player, schematic big sister
A: schematic basketball player, aschematic big sister

Jane has committed the “ultimate attribution error” (Pettigrew, 1979). Describe this bias in intergroup attribution in terms of the scenario involving Jane, Alicia and the yard duty teacher?

Why was Pete happily satisfied in exchanging toys with the unfamiliar children, but was only satisfied when he received a hug from his best friend Billy?

Clue: Think about this in relation to the resources exchanged and the associated levels of satisfaction.

How is this tactic different to other tactics that involve rational decision making?

What compliance tactic has David used?

The revised model of cognitive dissonance (see Figure 6.15 on p. 170 of Vaughan and Hogg (2002)) suggests that when actions resulting in serious negative outcomes are deemed as voluntary and the responsibility of the self, the individual is forced to change his/her attitude. Why?

It is obvious that David and Theresa are not very satisfied with their marriage. How can social exchange theory provide a reason for this lack of marital satisfaction?

Clue: Think of cost-reward ratios, p. 375 of Vaughan and Hogg (2002).

List the five different means through which attitudes are formed.

Please list and describe the ABC of attitudes.

Q: You take a sample of size n, then you take a few more samples, each of size n. You observe the variation from sample mean to sample mean (the Dance of the Means). To DECREASE this variation (to make the dance less frenetic), you could:
- increase [sigma].
- decrease n.
- increase n.
- change [mu]
A: increase n.

Q: You calculate the 95% confidence intervals for the pre-test and post-test scores, for a single group of participants. You notice that the two intervals show large overlap. You can justifiably conclude that:
- the correlation of pre-test and post-test was probably low.
- there is little if any evidence of a difference in the population.
- you have reasonable evidence of a difference in the population.
- analysis of the differences is needed before drawing a conclusion.
A: analysis of the differences is needed before drawing a conclusion.

Q: Your experiment involves measuring response time (RT) in ms for the index finger of the dominant hand (e.g., the right hand, in right handers), and for the index finger of the non-dominant hand. For every participant you calculate the difference between those two RTs (i.e., non-dominant RT minus dominant RT). You calculate the 95% confidence interval for that difference to be [16, 25]. You can conclude that:
- this confidence interval is not relevant for a conclusion about difference.
- there is good evidence of a population difference in RT.
- there is some evidence of a population difference in RT.
- there is no evidence of a population difference in RT.
A: there is good evidence of a population difference in RT.

Q: The 95% confidence interval is [27, 45]. You would expect the 99% confidence interval to be:
- about half as wide.
- somewhat narrower.
- somewhat wider.
- about 4 times as wide.
A: somewhat wider.

Q: Suppose your sample of size n=25 has mean M=30.0, and you are assuming that [sigma]=10.0. The 95% confidence interval is approximately:
- [26, 34].
- [10, 50].
- [28, 32].
- [29.2, 30.8].
A: [26, 34].

Q: In many practical situations, the paired design is likely to:
- require more participants than other simple designs.
- offer scope for the correlation of the independent variable to be maximised.
- suffer because of large differences between people.
- offer a sensitive assessment of the effect of the independent variable.
A: offer a sensitive assessment of the effect of the independent variable.

Q: A researcher reports that the correlation between happiness (high score = very happy) and number of words correctly classified in a fixed time is, under certain circumstances, .70. It is justifiable to conclude that, under these circumstances, a very happy person will most likely classify:
- almost no words.
- few words.
- about 30% of the words.
- many words.
A: many words.

Q: Your two independent groups experiment gives 95% confidence intervals that are [24, 36] and [16, 26]. You can justifiably conclude that:
- the confidence intervals provide insufficient evidence to reach any conclusion.
- there is little if any evidence that the two population means differ.
- you have reasonable evidence that the two population means differ.
- you have quite strong evidence that the two population means differ.
A: you have reasonable evidence that the two population means differ.

Q: Consider the 95% confidence interval on a correlation value, r. Which is the most justifiable statement?
- For small to medium sample sizes, intervals tend to be quite short.
- Intervals are more asymmetric for correlation values near zero.
- The arm of the interval closer to zero is generally longer than the other arm.
- For larger sample sizes, we expect the interval to be wider.
A: The arm of the interval closer to zero is generally longer than the other arm.

Q: The sampling distribution of sample means has a standard deviation that is:
- not of much use to researchers.
- usually about equal to [sigma].
- almost always smaller than [sigma].
- equal to [sigma]/n.
A: almost always smaller than [sigma].

Q: You calculate the 95% confidence intervals for the pre-test and post-test scores, for a single group of participants. You notice that the two intervals show large overlap. You can justifiably conclude that:
- the correlation of pre-test and post-test was probably low.
- you have reasonable evidence of a difference in the population.
- analysis of the differences is needed before drawing a conclusion.
- there is little if any evidence of a difference in the population.
A: analysis of the differences is needed before drawing a conclusion.

Q: The 95% confidence interval is [27, 45]. You would expect the 99% confidence interval to be:
- about 4 times as wide.
- about half as wide.
- somewhat narrower.
- somewhat wider.
A: somewhat wider.

Q: Consider the correlation between a student’s ENTER (a score summarising performance at Year 12) and their first year university performance. This correlation is .45 for Course A, which enrols students with ENTER scores in the range 70-100. The correlation is .20 for Course B, which enrols students with ENTER scores in the range 96-100. The difference between these two correlations could easily be an example of:
- the influence of sample size on correlation.
- the influence of range restriction on correlation.
- a floor effect.
- regression to the mean.
A: the influence of range restriction on correlation.

Q: Monday 2-5 (indicate preference)
- 9th
- 8th
- 7th
- 6th
- 5th
- 4th
- 3rd
- 2nd
- 1st

Q: Friday 10-1 (indicate preference)
- 9th
- 8th
- 7th
- 6th
- 5th
- 4th
- 3rd
- 2nd
- 1st

Q: What type of attribution bias explains Georgia’s comment?
- False consensus effect
- Actor-observer effect
- Fundamental attribution error
- Self-serving bias
A: Self-serving bias

Q: Compared with the paired design, the two independent groups design has the disadvantage that it generally:
- gives shorter confidence intervals on the two means.
- subjects every participant to both experimental conditions.
- requires more participants.
- may have carry-over effects.
A: requires more participants.

Q: Your experiment has a two independent groups design. You calculate the 95% confidence interval for the mean for each of the groups. You note that the two confidence intervals do not overlap, but almost touch end-to-end. You can justifiably conclude that:
- your study is likely to be more sensitive than a repeated-measure (paired) design addressing the same issue.
- there is little if any evidence that the two population means differ.
- you have reasonable evidence that the two population means differ.
- you have quite strong evidence that the two population means differ.
A: you have quite strong evidence that the two population means differ.

Q: Friday 2-5 (Occ Therapy Classes - you will only be allocated to these classes as a last resort)
- 9th
- 8th
- 7th
- 5th
- 4th
- 3rd
- 2nd
- 1st
- 6th

Q: In practical research situations, a distinct disadvantage of a repeated-measure design is likely to be that:
- carry-over effects are possible.
- it gives narrow confidence intervals for the mean, on the two measures.
- it gives small overlap of the confidence intervals for the mean, on the two measures.
- it gives a narrow confidence interval on the difference scores.
A: carry-over effects are possible.

Q: Compared with the paired design, the two independent groups design has the disadvantage that it generally:
- subjects every participant to both experimental conditions.
- requires more participants.
- may have carry-over effects.
- gives shorter confidence intervals on the two means.
A: requires more participants.

Q: You have a two independent groups design, and calculate for each group the 95% confidence interval for the mean. If you reduced the two sample sizes markedly, you would expect that the two confidence intervals would become:
- longer, and would be likely to overlap less.
- longer, and would be likely to overlap more.
- shorter, and would be likely to overlap less.
- shorter, and would be likely to overlap more.
A: longer, and would be likely to overlap more.

Q: In terms of self schemata, how would we characterise Georgia as a basketball player and as a big sister?
- aschematic basketball player, schematic big sister
- aschematic basketball player, aschematic big sister
- schematic basketball player, schematic big sister
- schematic basketball player, aschematic big sister
A: schematic basketball player, aschematic big sister

Q: School census data suggest that the correlation between children’s number of hours of sports participation in a month, and school academic performance, is .25. The most justifiable conclusion is that:
- it is unclear what variable is (or variables are) the underlying cause.
- playing sport has a weak positive influence on school academic performance.
- children should be offered increased opportunities to engage in sport.
- playing sport leads to children being more alert in the classroom.
A: it is unclear what variable is (or variables are) the underlying cause.

Q: Monday 10-1 (indicate preference)
- 9th
- 8th
- 7th
- 6th
- 5th
- 4th
- 3rd
- 2nd
- 1st

Q: Consider the 95% confidence interval on a correlation value, r. Which is the most justifiable statement?
- For small to medium sample sizes, intervals tend to be quite short.
- Intervals are more asymmetric for correlation values near zero.
- For larger sample sizes, we expect the interval to be wider.
- The arm of the interval closer to zero is generally longer than the other arm.
A: The arm of the interval closer to zero is generally longer than the other arm.

Q: You can check your writing for smoothness of expression by
- Doing a and b.
- Doing all of the above
- Reading the paper aloud
- Having a peer search the paper for inconsistencies
- Looking for sudden shifts in topic, tense, or person
A: Doing all of the above

Q: Order the citations of two or more works within the same set of brackets in order of their
- None of the above are correct
- Dates of publication
- Importance
- Appearance in the reference list
A: Appearance in the reference list

Q: Electronic Reserve titles can be electronic journal or newspaper articles, web documents, PDF documents or digitised pages from a print source.

• Carry out the same steps as above to display the Reserve lists for your course.

• From the list select the one with ELECTRONIC RESERVE as part of the title

You will need a Library PIN to access electronic sources. To Create Your Library PIN go to the Create Pin Page

What is the title of the first item on the list?
- The course of adult intellectual development
- Television and the child’s developing imagination
- Neonatal limitation
A: The course of adult intellectual development

Q: Redundancy, wordiness and jargon contribute to
- A more readable style of writing
- Smoothness of expression
- Clear scientific writing
- Poor economy of expression
A: Poor economy of expression

Q: Select KEYWORD

• Type in the word anxiety

• Click on Modify Search and click on the arrow beside Material Type.

• Select VIDEO from the drop-down menu.

Submit

• Change the COLLECTION to your campus Library

How many videos were listed in Bundoora?
- 3
- 10
- 42
A: 42

Q: Which of the following is a good strategy for improving writing style?
- Do all of the above
- Ask a peer to read it
- Use an outline
- Revise the first draft after a delay
A: Do all of the above

Q: A reference list
- Should never be used in short articles
- Should include only the references cited anywhere is the article
- Is a synonym for bibliography
- Cites all works supportive or contradictory to the text
A: Should include only the references cited anywhere is the article

Q: Single Author search

• Select the AUTHOR option

• Type in the author’s name – last name first followed by first name or initial

• Search for the author : Simon Crowe

How many items by this author does the library hold?
- 9
- 6
- 1
A: 9

Q: Click on the START OVER box to return to the main catalogue screen to locate online journals and articles about brain behaviour relationships.

Under the heading Search In… select the ONLINE COLLECTION option.

• Carry out a KEYWORD search using the term neuropsychology

• Select Modify Search from the tool bar at the top of the screen

• Select SERIAL from the Book/Serial option

How many online journals about neuropsychology are there?
- 11
- 2
- 15
A: 11

Q: How many videos were listed in Bendigo?
- 3
- 10
- 42
A: 10

Q: Edit the following for punctuation:

The participants were introduced to each of the trainers, but they were not allowed to choose their own trainer.
- The participants were introduced to each of the trainers. But they were not allowed to choose their own trainer.
- The participants were introduced to each of the trainers; but they were not allowed to choose their own trainer.
- The participants were introduced to each of the trainers but they were not allowed to choose their own trainer.
- Leave as is
A: Leave as is

Q: Eighteen-month-old Joshua accidentally taps his whiffle ball and it rolls a few inches. He stares at it but it doesn't move any more, so he hits it purposely but gently. It rolls again. He hits it harder and it rolls farther. He smacks it and it rolls into the next room. Josh laughs; he just figured out what causes balls to roll. Which of John Stuart Mill’s canons did Josh use?
- method of concomitant variation
- joint method of agreement and differences
- method of differences
- method of agreement
A: method of concomitant variation

Q: What campus are you from?
- Bendigo
- Albury Wodonga
- Bundoora

Q: To locate journals about “child development”

Select Entire Collection
NOTE: Use inverted commas to indicate a phrase.

• Carry out a KEYWORD search for the phrase “child development”.

• Select Modify Search on the tool bar at the top of the screen

• Select SERIAL from the Book/Serial option.

OR

• Carry out a SUBJECT search for “Child Development”

• Select Modify Search from the tool bar at the top of the screen

• Select SERIAL from the Book/Serial option

There are 85 seriels about child development in the entire collection?
- FALSE
- TRUE
A: FALSE

Q: When a work has more than two authors and fewer than six authors, cite
- None of the above
- The surname of the first author followed by et al. every time the reference occurs in text.
- All of the authors the first time the reference occurs in text; use the surname of the first author followed by et al. in subsequent citations
- All of the authors every time the reference occurs in text
A: All of the authors the first time the reference occurs in text; use the surname of the first author followed by et al. in subsequent citations

Q: Edit the following for nonsexist language:

Accumulating evidence suggests that a supervisor will be more effective if he allows his workers to participate in decision making in a meaningful way.
- Both b and c are correct
- Accumulating evidence suggests that a supervisor who allows workers to participate in decision making in a meaningful way will be more effective.
- Accumulating evidence suggests that a supervisor will be more effective if he or she allows workers to participate in decision making in a meaningful way.
- Leave as is
A: Both b and c are correct

Q: Edit the following for the punctuation of a reference citation in text:

Masters and Johnson, 1966, found a similarity in the phases of the hormonal response of men and women.
- Masters and Johnson (1966) found a similarity in the phases of the hormonal response of men and women.
- Masters and Johnson, 1966, found a similarity in the phases of the hormonal response of men and women.
- Masters and Johnson, in 1966, found a similarity in the phases of the hormonal response of men and women.
- Leave as is
A: Masters and Johnson (1966) found a similarity in the phases of the hormonal response of men and women.

Q: A writer must be careful when using the pronouns this, that, these, and those. The writer can eliminate or reduce the vagueness of these pronouns by
- All of the above except c may be done
- Clarifying what is being referred to for the reader
- Using them frequently
- Referring the reader to a specific previous sentence
- Using them to modify a noun (e.g., this study, that structure, these electrodes, those mice)
A: All of the above except c may be done

Q: Click on the START OVER box to return to the main catalogue screen.

Exercise 2. To find print and electronic Reserve material for your course.

Many of the recommended reading titles will be held in the Reserve Collection as books or photocopied journal articles. A number will be available as electronic documents that you can access from the Electronic Reserve list for your course.

Select RESERVE BY UNIT option in the Catalogue:

• Type in your course code PSY11PYA or the title of the course Psychology A. Click on SUBMIT SEARCH and select the appropriate lecturer

OR

Select RESERVE BY LECTURER option in the Catalogue

• Type in your lecturer’s name. (Your lecturer may have a number of course lists.)

Select the appropriate course list

How many hours can you borrow Reserve items for?
- 5
- 3
- 1
A: 3

Q: How many videos were listed in Albury Wodonga?
- 3
- 10
- 42
A: 3

Q: For essays and lab reports you will want to find more information than is on your reading lists. These include the important concepts, key authors, theories and information about the topic and can be a guide for your own research.

When you do not know authors or titles carry out a KEYWORD search.

Research the topic ‘children’s memory and abuse’ across the Entire Collection

Select KEYWORD

• Type in child memory abuse

• Click on Modify Search and limit the publication date to Year. After 2000.

Submit

How many entries were listed for that search?
- 4
- 10
- 25
A: 4

Q: A finished report should possess
- Inferential statistical tests of the data
- An orderly presentation of ideas
- Disconnected but logical sections
- No recognizable theme or logical structure
A: An orderly presentation of ideas

Q: When quoting,
- Do a, b, and c
- Do only a and c
- Include a complete reference in the reference list
- Provide the year and the page number in text
- A provide the authors name in text
A: Do a, b, and c

Q: Qualitative research is interpretive, which involves
- observing
- quantifying non-numerical data.
- using objective measurements.
- extracting information from non-numerical data.
A: extracting information from non-numerical data.

Q: Edit the following for punctuation:

Damage to the left temporal cortex may impair language comprehension; whereas damage to the left frontal cortex may impair language production.
- Damage to the left temporal cortex may impair language comprehension, whereas damage to the left frontal cortex may impair language production.
- Damage to the left temporal cortex may impair language comprehension. Whereas damage to the left frontal cortex may impair language production.
- Leave as is
- Damage to the left temporal cortex may impair language comprehension - whereas damage to the left frontal cortex may impair language production.
A: Damage to the left temporal cortex may impair language comprehension, whereas damage to the left frontal cortex may impair language production.

Q: A phenomenologist who is interested in the effects of separation is most likely to ask of a person after a divorce
- “How do you like the divorce laws in this state?”
- “How many children do you have?”
- “How would you describe the feelings you are experiencing?”
- “How long were you married?”
A: “How would you describe the feelings you are experiencing?”

Q: Please Indicate who you would like to represent the interests of PSY11PYA/12PYB on the Staff Student Consultative Committee?
- Ben Addison (Thank you for your response)
- Katherine Crea (Thank you for your response)

Q: The variable that measures the influence of the experimental manipulation is called the
- controlled variable.
- antecedent variable.
- dependent variable.
- independent variable
A: dependent variable.

Q: Which of the following illustrates a necessary (but not sufficient) condition?
- setting your alarm clock to awaken
- eating fats to gain weight
- a cue stick to make a billiard ball roll
- a source of electrical power to operate your computer
A: a source of electrical power to operate your computer

Q: Which of the following phrases is an example of economical writing?
- The reason is because
- One and the same
- Four groups saw
- Absolutely essential
A: Four groups saw

Q: Jeanne takes reading aptitude scores from a samples of 2nd, 4th, 6th, and 8th graders in her local school district, and notes improvement with age. Hank tests his little brother's 2nd grade class, then tests them again when they're 4th graders, 6th graders, and 8th graders. He observes no improvement with age.

Which is a cross-sectional study?
- neither
- Jeanne's
- both
- Hank's
A: Jeanne's

Q: For experiments that use pretests and posttests you need to be especially concerned about
- both instrumentation and statistical regression.
- both statistical regression and mortality.
- both history and selection.
- both history and maturation
A: both history and maturation

Q: If we find that two variables are correlated, which of the following conclusions would be unjustified?
- We know that we have quantified a relationship between the two variables.
- We know that the two variables covary, i.e., change in value together.
- We know that we can predict to some extent the value of one variable if we know the value of the other.
- We know that changes in one of the variables cause changes in the other.
A: We know that changes in one of the variables cause changes in the other.

Q: Please select the course you are enrolled in?
(Note: if you are in the Bachelor of OT you do not need to complete this survey)
- Other Degree
- Bachelor of Arts
- Bachelor of Science (Nutrition)
- Bachelor of Law/Behavioural Science
- Graduate Diploma of Psychology
- Bachelor of Behavioural Science

Q: Which essay have you chosen?
- Social Psychology - Emi Kashima
- Growth & Development Through the Life Span - Helen Skouteris
- Cognitive Psychology - Graeme Galloway & Ben Williams
- Brain Behaviour Relationships - Simon Crowe

Q: Are you a full time or part-time student?
- Part-time
- Full-time

Q: According to your text book, what is probably the most commonly cited disadvantage of using laboratory experiments to learn about human behaviour?
- Because they tend to use other species, the results are usually irrelevant to human behaviour.
- They are too difficult to design properly and too time consuming to execute.
- With their mechanistic approach to human behaviour, they ignore the participants' thoughts and emotions.
- Because they tend to be done in highly controlled settings, their results may not be generalizable to the real world.
A: Because they tend to be done in highly controlled settings, their results may not be generalizable to the real world.

Q: A third grade teacher is having trouble with a student who wants only her attention will not interact with the other children. The school psychologist suggests ignoring the child's attempts to get her attention and praising the child's interactions with other children. Before doing this, the teacher takes a week's worth of measures, each day, of how often the child interacts with other children. She then institutes the "ignore and praise" program for a week and measures interactions with others, then withdraws the program in the third week and again measures interactions. This is an example of which single-case design?
- changing criterion design
- multiple baseline design
- interaction design
- A-B-A design
A: A-B-A design

Q: Jeanne takes reading aptitude scores from a samples of 2nd, 4th, 6th, and 8th graders in her local school district, and notes improvement with age. Hank tests his little brother's 2nd grade class, then tests them again when they're 4th graders, 6th graders, and 8th graders. He observes no improvement with age.

Which is a longitudinal study?
- neither
- Jeanne's
- Hank's
- both
A: Hank's

How is love different to liking?

Weiner extended the concept of self-attribution further to task performance. Name and describe the three performance dimensions put forward by Weiner in making an attribution about achievement?

Why do the children stay together when the parents argue?

Clue: Think about this from the an attachment theory perspective, lecture 2 notes.

Given that Georgia regards herself as a very good basketballer, how would you rate her self-attribution across Weiner’s three dimensions?

What is the term given to the self serving bias that Georgia uses in the circumstance? What is its purpose?

Briefly list and describe the explanations that have been proposed for the “Fundamental Attribution Error”.
Feedback: Please type in your answer and then press SAVE ANSWER then FINISH and move to the next section.

If you have extenuating circumstances which require you to be placed in a particular class, please indicate them here.

Please type in your reason for choosing this answer:

A member of the (David and Theresa) dyad is committing the “Fundamental Attribution Error”. The question is who and why?

Given what we know about Georgia, we could safely assume that being a basketball player is an important aspect of her self-concept. In terms of her abilities as a basketball player, would you say that she attributes her abilities internally or externally? – explain your answer.

Briefly list and describe the explanations that have been proposed for the “Fundamental Attribution Error”.

Although the attachment bond between Georgia and her siblings is less secure than the bond between Pete and Jane, why do Pete and Jane stay with their sister Georgia while the parents argue?

Are Nicholas and Theresa in love?

Clue: Think of the different types of love and the distinction between ‘love’ and ‘being in love’, see pp. 379-380 of Vaughan and Hogg (2002).

Q: The increase in maximal oxygen consumption following training is caused solely by an increase in maximal cardiac output.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: The increase in maximal oxygen consumption following training is caused by an increase in both maximal cardiac output and the arteriovenous oxygen difference.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- often, sometimes, rarely (These are vocabulary items.)
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- A magazine advice column. (This is a text or discourse type)
- I'm looking forward to my holidays (This is a grammatical structure)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
A: I'm looking forward to my holidays

Explain how sport consumers can derive psychological benefit from attending a sport event. Provide an example to illustrate each motive.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Give way to pedestrians. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Read and interpret road signs. (This is a skill.)
- Road signs. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- congestion, detour, merge, overtake. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Knowing which side of the road to drive on. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Knowing which side of the road to drive on.

Q: Ventilation would be expected to be higher during dynamic exercise on the treadmill than during isometric hand grip exercise because there would be a larger oxygen requirement during dynamic exercise on the treadmill.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The increase in maximal oxygen consumption following training is caused by an increase in maximal heart rate and an increase in the capillary density of muscle.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a patient with severe pulmonary disease is approximately 45 ml/kg/min.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Which Microscope component regulates the depth of focus of a Compound Microscope?
- Condenser
- Diffusing plate
- Iris diaphragm
- Mechanical stage
- All of the above
A: Iris diaphragm

Q: Which of the following proffessions use a Microscope in their daily work?
- Biologist
- Art restorations expert
- Geologist
- Botanist
- All of the above
A: All of the above

Q: Machiavelli is the author of Il Principe, which describes the means by which a prince may gain and maintain his power.
- true
- false
A: true
Feedback: Machiavelli's Il Principe ("the prince") describes how to gain and maintain political power.

As we have seen, controlling the core product (i.e. consistently fielding a winning team) is difficult. Wakefield and Blodgett (1994) found that the servicescape (or, for us sport marketers, sportscape) is important for fans. What was the key implication of the study for managers of sport organisations?

Q: Minute ventilation increases in direct proportion to the increase in dynamic exercise intensity.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Who are the first two European mariners credited for sailing to the "New World."
- Leif Ericson
- Christopher Columbus
- Thorfinn Karlsefni
- Amerigo Vespucci
- Wheris Waldo
A: Leif Ericson; Thorfinn Karlsefni
Feedback: Leif Ericson (also known as Leiv Eiriksson, and "Eirik the Red") became the first European to set foot on the shores of North America (modern-day New Foundland). Several years later (in 1006), fellow Norwegian Thorfinn Karlsefni lead a colonizing expedition to New Foundland.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Arguing for particular course of action (This is a language function.)
- A persuasive essay (This is a text or discourse type)
- It is clearly argued that... (This is a grammatical structure)
- The expectation that writers will tell their readers where they got their information from. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge.)
A: A persuasive essay

Q: Which of the following is text or discourse type?
- Let’s make it Saturday. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: A text message.

Using one of the examples in the lecture, briefly discuss the importance of general market data for sport marketers.

Q: Who is credited for discovering the antibacterial medicine penicillin?
- Alexander Fleming
- Louis Pastuer
- Edward Jenner
- Jonas Salk
A: Alexander Fleming
Feedback: In 1928, Alexander Fleming noticed that mold inhibited the growth of bacteria, which led to the isolation of penicillin in 1940. Fleming later won the Nobel prize in medicine in 1945.

According to the Craddock newspaper article, how did market research help Cricket Australia improve its product offerings and help improve its financial position?

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Linking consonants produces a new sound: e.g. Could___you? We get a dz sound when these words are said together. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- A leaflet advertising short courses (This is a text or discourse type)
- He's a hard nut to crack. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
A: Offering help

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Please advise.... (This is a grammatical structure)
- The importance of excursion in Australian school programs (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge.)
A: A letter from a school to parents

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Submit your essay to the assignment dropbox. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Write an academic essay. (This is a skill.)
- An academic essay. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- although, so, therefore, hence, as a result. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding the need to indicate the source of all the references you quote in a piece of academic writing.

According to the example used in the lecture, the NFL Denver Broncos should be able to safely raise their season ticket prices? (True/False) How would you describe their price elasticity of demand?

Q: With increasing dynamic exercise intensities, breathing frequency goes up but tidal volume remains unchanged.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: An increase in maximal cardiac output and decreased vascular resistance in trained muscle partially explains the increase in maximal oxygen consumption after an endurance training program.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
- An email to a work colleague (This is a text or discourse type)
- A milk bar doesn’t serve alcohol (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Providing information

What is the key difference between primary and secondary data? Describe how a sport organisation might collect primary and secondary data.

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- They’re intelligent but lazy. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Use a table of contents. (This is a skill.)
- A table of contents. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Click on the link. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Understand the difference between a table of contents and an index. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understand the difference between a table of contents and an index.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Typing (This is a skill.)
- Interrupting a conversation. (This is a language function.)
- A spoken interaction between an employee of a telphone company and and a customer. (This is a text or discourse type)
- The way that Australians value and prefer an apparently friendly approach to what may in some places be relatively formal interactions with people working in an official capacity in an institution. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- I used to get up early (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: I used to get up early

Why do Stewart, Smith and Nicholson (2003) claim that sport consumer typologies are a valuable tool for sport marketers? Which of the typologies presented in the article do you consider the most valuable for this purpose?

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- There will be a bus to take you to the venue departing from the front of the conference centre. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list. (This is a skill.)
- Road signs. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- It’s neither easy nor difficult. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Sensitivity to different religious observances. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Look up words in an alphabetically organised list.

Given the different sport distribution channels (Figure 7.5), which (and why) do you think is the most likely future distribution channel for spectator sport?

Q: Physical inactivity is considered to be a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Hypercholesterolemia is considered to be a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 25 L/min

FEO2: .161

FECO2: .035

Temp: 21 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 5 minutes of this activity? (use whole numbers in your answer)

5. How many METS was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
A: 27 / 1.09 / 14.5 / 0.72 / 4.1; 27 / 1.09 / 14.5 / 0.72 / 4.1; 0.72 / 27 / 1.09 / 14.5 / 4.1; 1.09 / 27 / 14.5 / 0.72 / 4.1; 27 / 1.09 / 14.5 / 0.72 / 4.1

Q: The increase in maximal oxygen consumption following training is caused solely by an increase in maximal stroke volume.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: John offered to be the team subject in a physiology practical class. Your team collected John’s expired gas into a Douglas bag for a period of 3 minutes. You used the Aichi Tokei metre to measure the volume of gas in the bag and it was determined that 90 L were collected. The temperature in the laboratory was 20°C and the ambient barometric pressure was 760 mmHg at the time the gas was collected. Use 1 decimal point in your answers for 1. and 2. Use a whole number for your answer to 3. Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was John’s minute ventilation in L/min ATPS?

2. What was John’s minute ventilation L/min BTPS?

3. Assuming a breathing frequency of 20 breaths per minute, what was the average tidal volume in ml, ATPS?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: 1500 / 30.0 / 33.1; 1500 / 30.0 / 33.1; 1500 / 30.0 / 33.1

Q: Most of the increase in mean arterial blood pressure that occurs during dynamic incremental exercise is due to an increase in diastolic blood pressure.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Diastolic blood pressure increases during isometric handgrip exercise due to an increase in peripheral resistance.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for an elite male cross country skier is approximately 55 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for an elite male cross country skier is approximately 84 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The increase in maximal oxygen consumption following training is caused solely by an increase in the the maximal arteriovenous oxygen difference.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: An increase in skeletal muscle capillary density is the mechanism to explain the increased maximal arteriovenous oxygen difference after endurance training.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The mechanism to explain the endurance training-induced increase in stroke volume is a decrease in peripheral resistance.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Resting oxygen consumption for a 110 kg male is [...] L/min.
A: .39 / .38 / .385

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a patient with severe pulmonary disease is approximately 45 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: The increase in maximal oxygen consumption following training is caused by an increase in stroke volume and the arteriovenous oxygen difference.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The increase in maximal oxygen consumption following training is caused solely by an increase in maximum heart rate.
- true
- false
A: false

Provide an example of a sport product (ideally not one discussed in the lecture) to explain each stage of the product life cycle.

Explain two key differences between qualitative and quantitative market research. When should each approach be used to gather data on consumers?

Burton & Howard (1999) argued that the U.S. big four sport leagues are in the decline stage of the product life cycle and discussed four reasons for their decline in popularity. Think about the organisation you have chosen for your assignment. Considering the arguments put forth by the authors, do you think that your league faces the same challenges?

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: A weather report.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Sometimes the final consonant in a word is deleted when 3 or more consonants are pronounced together. E.g. Sorry, I didn’t get that. She phoned me and told me to come. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Apologising for arriving late (This is a language function.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- The use of words like ‘please’ and ‘thank you’. Some adult ESL speakers believe that Australians overuse these and say that it makes them sound obsequious, weak or insincere. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- I’m having my hair cut tomorrow (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Apologising for arriving late

You are the marketing manager for a new team and are trying to decide key components of the marketing mix: ticket prices, logo design, name, etc. What research method would you adopt and why?

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a young sendentary female is approximately 83 ml/kg/min.
- false
- true
A: false

Define branding and describe why it is important in sport marketing. Use an example to illustrate your answer.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Could you pass the salad? (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Reading a recipe and understanding and being able to carry out the measurements of the ingredients. (This is a skill.)
- A recipe. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cut, dice, slice, grate, peel, cube, chop. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Knowledge about customs around meal times. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: A recipe.

Q: Overall, the workshop was well organised.
- Strongly agree
- Agree
- Disagree
- Strongly disagree
A: Strongly agree; Agree; Disagree; Strongly disagree

Q: John offered to be the team subject in a physiology practical class. Your team collected John’s expired gas into a Douglas bag for a period of 4 minutes. You used the Aichi Tokei metre to measure the volume of gas in the bag and it was determined that 60 L were collected. The temperature in the laboratory was 25°C and the ambient barometric pressure was 760 mmHg at the time the gas was collected. Use 1 decimal point in your answers for 1. and 2. Use a whole number for your answer to 3. Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was John’s minute ventilation in L/min ATPS?

2. What was John’s minute ventilation L/min BTPS?

3. Assuming a breathing frequency of 20 breaths per minute, what was the average tidal volume in ml, ATPS?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: 750 / 15.0 / 16.1; 750 / 15.0 / 16.1; 15.0 / 750 / 16.1

Q: John offered to be the team subject in a physiology practical class. Your team collected John’s expired gas into a Douglas bag for a period of 2 minutes. You used the Aichi Tokei metre to measure the volume of gas in the bag and it was determined that 60 L were collected. The temperature in the laboratory was 24°C and the ambient barometric pressure was 760 mmHg at the time the gas was collected. Use 1 decimal point in your answers for 1. and 2. Use a whole number for your answer to 3. Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was John’s minute ventilation in L/min ATPS?

2. What was John’s minute ventilation L/min BTPS?

3. Assuming a breathing frequency of 25 breaths per minute, what was the average tidal volume in ml, ATPS?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: 1200 / 30.0 / 32.4; 1200 / 30.0 / 32.4; 1200 / 30.0 / 32.4

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Opening a book from right to left (This is a skill.)
- Recounting an event. (This is a language function.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Using the topic of the weather as small talk. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Thanks very much / Thanks a lot. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Recounting an event.

Based on the analysis conducted by Keohane and Sommers (2008), why do you think Major League Baseball (MLB) fans accept higher ticket prices under certain circumstances?

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for an elite male cross country skier is approximately 35 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- It’s really cold today. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Read a weather chart. (This is a skill.)
- A weather report. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cloudy, rainy, cool, stormy, frosty. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding that the weather is a common topic of small talk in Australia. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Read a weather chart.

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a patient with severe pulmonary disease is approximately 60 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: The highest maximal oxygen consumption possible for a given individual is usually measured running on a treadmill with an incline.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a patient with severe pulmonary disease is approximately 13 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Hypertension is considered to be a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: The mechanisms to explain the endurance training-induced increase in stroke volume are an increase in plasma volume and a decrease in arteriolar contriction in the trained muscles.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: You would expect both heart rate and ventilation to be higher during isometric hand grip exercise than during dynamic exercise on the treadmill as there is a larger muscle mass active during the isometric exercise.
- true
- false
A: false

The ground floor of the Psychological Continuum Model (PCM) is the awareness stage. Provide an example of a socialisation agent and how it helps an individual develop an initial connection with their sport team.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- I'm playing tennis with Georgie on Saturday. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Expaining how to use cash register (This is a language function.)
- A poster advertising a community event (This is a text or discourse type)
- You're getting ahead of yourself. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
A: I'm playing tennis with Georgie on Saturday.

Q: Who is credited for inventing the wireless radio?
- Vladimar Zworykin
- Thomas Edison
- Guglielmo Marconi
- David Sarnoff
- Edwin Armstrong
A: Guglielmo Marconi
Feedback: In 1895 Italian inventor Guglielmo Marconi built the equipment and transmitted electrical signals through the air from one end of his house to the other, and then from the house to the garden. These experiments were, in effect, the dawn of practical wireless telegraphy or radio.

Product quality is important to consumers; however, sport marketers are unable to control certain elements of the sport product. Discuss how the XFL failed in terms of this problem.

Q: The highest maximal oxygen consumption possible for a given individual is usually measured during maximal isometric exercise.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: If a 20 year old male was to undergo a YMCA submaximal cycle ergometer test to predict maximal oxygen consumption when he was dehydrated, his predicted maximal oxygen consumption would be underestimated.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: If a 25 year old male was to undergo a YMCA submaximal cycle ergometer test to predict maximal oxygen consumption when he was dehydrated, his predicted maximal oxygen uptake would be overestimated.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Asking for assistance (This is a language function.)
- A report about the repairs that are needed to house. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Train tickets can be bought at a newsagent (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Minimum payment due: $25

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Intonation patterns of polite requests (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Asking for assistance (This is a language function.)
- A report about the repairs that are needed to house. (This is a text or discourse type)
- Knowing that train tickets can be bought at a newsagent or other location, not just at train stations. (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Minimum payment due: $25 (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Minimum payment due: $25

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Chatting about your weekend (This is a language function.)
- A telephone conversation between friends (This is a text or discourse type)
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Excuse me. Could you tell me where X is, please?

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Asking for permission (This is a language function.)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Please advise.... (This is a grammatical structure)
- The importance of excursion in Australian school programs (This is cultural knowledge .)
A: Asking for permission

Q: what is this test
- it's something really good
- it's a test
- it's nothing
A: it's something really good

What is the sport consumer? Provide examples to illustrate your answer.

Discuss the consumer’s decision-making process and how it might change when a new professional sport team enters the marketplace.

Let’s argue that the AFL Brisbane Lions recently reported a record profit. This had been due to the club raising ticket prices and corporate hospitality packages by 100% during the past year, but surprisingly demand remained strong. Based on your understanding of market sensitivity, what would you expect to see in the Brisbane sport market?

Physical evidence is a key variable component of place. Think of some of the sport stadia you have visited; how do you think they have ‘tangilised’ the facility?

What value does the creation of the Netball Diamonds brand provide Netball Australia? Please note that this question is worth three marks as there was no article/lecture chapter to read.

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 25 L/min

FEO2: .161

FECO2: .035

Temp: 21 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 5 minutes of this activity? (use whole numbers in your answer)

5. How many METS was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
A: 27 / 1.09 / 14.5 / 0.72 / 4.1; 27 / 1.09 / 14.5 / 0.72 / 4.1; 1.09 / 27 / 14.5 / 0.72 / 4.1; 27 / 1.09 / 14.5 / 0.72 / 4.1; 27 / 1.09 / 14.5 / 0.72 / 4.1

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- there’ll, she’ll, we’ll. (These are vocabulary items. The pronunciation of each of these might also be the focus of some teaching or practice.)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list. (This is a skill.)
- Classroom notice. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Today’s class is cancelled. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Sensitivity to different religious observances. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Sensitivity to different religious observances.

Q: The pace of the class was .....
- Faster than I expected.
- About what I expected.
- Slower than I expected.
- Strongly disagree
A: Faster than I expected.; About what I expected.; Slower than I expected.; Strongly disagree

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Sometimes the final consonant in a word is deleted when 3 or more consonants are pronounced together. E.g. Sorry, I didn’t get that. She phoned me and told me to come. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Advising someone about a healthy lifestyle. (This is a language function.)
- A spoken interaction with a service provider: speaking to someone unfamiliar. (This is a text or discourse type)
- please, thank you (These are vocabulary items.)
- I’m having my hair cut tomorrow (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: I’m having my hair cut tomorrow

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes. (This is a text type)
- Expressing opinions (This is a language function.)
- Past continuous verbs (This is a grammatical structure)
- Awareness of what kind of relationships and perceptions that people hold between the people from the south of Ireland and the north of Ireland. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
- Using a bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
A: An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- I'm not very comfortable with that / I'd really rather not have to do that / Is there an alternative to that? (These are grammatical structures)
- A consultation with a doctor (This is a text type)
- Understanding that it is OK to question a doctor's advice. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
- diagnosis, treatment (These are vocabulary items.)
- Using intonation when disagreeing that indicates politeness (This is related to pronunciation)
A: A consultation with a doctor

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Linking consonants produces a new sound: e.g. Could___you? We get a dz sound when these words are said together. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Offering help (This is a language function.)
- A poster advertising a community event (This is a text or discourse type)
- He's a hard nut to crack. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Scanning a newspaper for items of interest (This is a skill.)
A: Offering help

Q: In 1946, J. Presper Eckert and John Mauchly created the first large general-purpose electronic computer. It was given the name _________.
A: ENIAC
Feedback: J. Presper Eckert and John Mauchly called their general-purpose electronic computer the ENIAC, which stood for Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer.

Q: Diastolic blood pressure remains relatively unchanged during incremental dynamic exercise because, despite an increase in cardiac output, there is a decrease in peripheral resistance.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a young sedentary female is approximately 22 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: In 1803, the U.S. negotiated the Louisiana Purchase from _______________ for $15 million. With this purchase, the U.S. doubles its domain, increasing its territory by 827,000 sq. mi. (2,144,500 sq km), from the Mississippi River to the Rockies and from the Gulf of Mexico to British North America.
- Great Britain
- Spain
- Mexico
- France
- Russia
A: France
Feedback: The Louisiana Purchase has been described as the greatest real estate deal in history. In 1803 the United States paid France $15 million for the Louisiana Territory--827,000 square miles of land west of the Mississippi River. The lands acquired stretched from the Mississippi River to the Rocky Mountains and from the Gulf of Mexico to the Canadian border. Thirteen states were carved from the Louisiana Territory. The Louisiana Purchase nearly doubled the size of the United States, making it one of the largest nations in the world.

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a young sedentary female is approximately 22 ml/kg/min.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Who is credited as being the first person to reach the South Pole?
- Frederick Cook
- Roald Amundsen
- Robert E. Peary
- Ernest Shackleton
- Edmund Hillary
A: Roald Amundsen
Feedback: Roald Amundsen is credited as being the first person to reach the South Pole (1911). As far as the others... Frederick Cook claimed that he reached the North Pole in 1909 (which would have made him the first to do so) but this was later determined to be fraudulent... Ernest Shackleton led a failed Antarctica expedition in 1914 that resulted in an amazing tale of survival by Shackleton and 27 of his men (read the story "Endurance" by Alfred Lansing)... Edmund Hillary (and Nepalese Tenzing Norgay) was the first to reach the top of Mt. Everest.

Q: The facilitator was responsive to participants' questions and concerns.
- Strongly agree
- Agree
- Disagree
- Strongly disagree
A: Strongly agree; Agree; Disagree; Strongly disagree

Professional sport leagues have been able to operate as monopolies because they have been able to control elite-calibre competition in their sport. This has been achieved through two mechanisms. What are the two mechanisms and give an example of each.

Name the four distinct groups that the sport product is sold to. Which of these do you think is the most important to the sport organisation?

In 1990, Quiksilver, a company known predominately for its line of surfwear clothing, launched a sister brand for young women, Roxy. Explain which segmentation strategy Quiksilver adopted, and discuss whether this was a smart marketing strategy.

Define the concept of positioning in sport marketing. Choose either the Melbourne Heart (new A-League team), the Gold Coast FC (new AFL team), or the Melbourne Rebels (new Super 15 Rugby Union team).

Discuss how you would position the brand against its key competitor. Please note, you should probably use the Sport Marketing Strategy lecture to answer this question.

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a young sendentary female is approximately 45 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: If a man was to undergo a YMCA submaximal cycle ergometer test to predict maximal oxygen consumption when he was taking propranolol, his predicted result would be overestimated.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: If a 35 year old female was to undergo a YMCA submaximal cycle ergometer test to predict maximal oxygen consumption when she was dehydrated, her predicted result would be accurate.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Who was the sculptor of Bacchus, Sleeping Cupid, Madonna of the Stairs, and David?
- Donatello
- Leonardo da Vinci
- Giotto
- Michaelangelo
A: Michaelangelo
Feedback: Michaelangelo was the sculptor of Bacchus, Sleeping Cupid, Madonna of the Stairs, and David

Describe the two angles of sport marketing and provide an example of each type.

Explain why sport marketing is so important to sport organisations. How has this importance developed to its current stage?

Did the Facilitator seem confident with features of the software being demonstrated?

Q: Which of the following is subject matter or a cultural concept?
- Place your orders at the counter. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Reading a menu. (This is a skill.)
- A menu. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- Ordering food at a café or restaurant. (This is a language function.)
- Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Understanding how to politely get the attention of waiting staff in a restaurant.

Q: Who discovered the vaccine for smallpox?
- Louis Pastuer
- Edward Jenner
- Alfred Nobel
- Jonas Salk
A: Edward Jenner
Feedback: Edward Jenner inoculated people with the related "cow-pox" virus which helped them build an immunity against the deadly scourge of smallpox.

Q: Resting oxygen consumption for a 100 kg male is [...] ml/kg/min.
A: 3.5

Q: Resting oxygen consumption for a 70 kg female is [...] ml/kg/min.
A: 3.5

Q: Expand and simplify the following algebraic expression.

$$ (3x + 1)^{2} - 3(x - 2) + 4(x - 7) - 8x^{2} $$
- $$ -5x^{2} + 4x - 21 $$
- $$ x^{2} + 7x - 21 $$ (Well done!)
- $$ 11x^{2} + x - 14 $$
- $$ x^{2} + 7x - 33 $$
- None of these
A: $$ x^{2} + 7x - 21 $$

Q: Introduction
What are the following abbreviations for?
SR: [...].
ASGs: [...].
SGO: [...].
TF: [...].
UM: [...].
A: sweating rate; activated sweat glands; sweat output per gland; trained female; untrained male

Q: Who authored Summa theologica?
- Martin Luther
- Thomas Acquinas
- St. Augustine
- John Calvin
A: Thomas Acquinas
Feedback: Summa theologica was authored by Thomas Acquinas.

By using one of the examples from the lecture, briefly identify how a sport product positioned itself as elite or high-quality against its sporting competitors.

Q: This German composer is known for the following works: Magnificat, Christmas Oratorio, and the Brandenburg Concertos.
- Handel
- Beethoven
- Mozart
- Bach
- Brahms
A: Bach
Feedback: The German composure is Bach. He is probably best known for the Brandenburg Concertos.

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Producing words with adequate length in the vowel sounds (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Expressing doubt (This is a language function.)
- A menu (This is a text or discourse type)
- In the long run. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Create a word document on a computer (This is a skill.)
A: Expressing doubt

You are a consultant for a popular AFL team that is considering raising the price of season tickets for 2011. While the team has not won a premiership for a few years, nonetheless they are consistently a contender for the title. Considering the implications of raising ticket prices, what advice would you give the club? Do they go ahead and raise the price of season tickets?

Q: Rick is a 38 year old man who weighs 70 kg. He participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. He completed the 3rd stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 140 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Rick’s predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Rick's fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: Excellent / 48.2; Excellent / 48.2

Q: Resting oxygen consumption for a 60 kg female is [...] ml/kg/min.
A: 3.5

Q: The mechanism to explain the endurance training-induced increase in stroke volume is an increase in end systolic volume.
- true
- false
A: false

Porter identified two generic strategies: cost leadership and differentiation. Give a sport specific example of where each might be used.

Q: The remains of the Inca empire can be found in the modern-day country of __________.
A: Peru
Feedback: The Inca empire was located in the modern-day country of Peru, South America.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- I'm thinking of changing jobs. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Present information about yourself at a job interview. (This is a skill.)
- A job interview. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- assessment criteria, references, referees, resume, cv. (These are vocabulary items.)
- Understanding the structure and purpose of a job interview. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Present information about yourself at a job interview.

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for an elite male cross country skier is approximately 35 ml/kg/min.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Who is considered to be the founder of psychoanalysis?
- Sigmund Frued
- Emile Durkheim
- C. G. Jung
- Eugen Bleuler
- Josef Breuer
A: Sigmund Frued
Feedback: Sigmund Frued was the founder of psychoanalysis.

Q: Systolic blood pressure increases during isometric handgrip exercise due to a decrease in peripheral resistance.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for an elite male cross country skier is approximately 45 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Reducing the weakened / unstressed syllables in a word while emphasising the stressed syllables. E.g. imPORtant (not imporTANT) (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Providing information (This is a language function.)
- A telephone conversation with a service provider (This is a text or discourse type)
- The different customs around eye contact – how much, when, to whom? (This is information about the subject matter and the cultural context.)
- Could you tell me how to get to X, please? (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Providing information

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- I am writing to inform you about changes to the program. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Persuading someone to do something. (This is a language function)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list (This is a skill.)
A: I am writing to inform you about changes to the program.

Q: Diastolic blood pressure increases during dynamic incremental exercise due to an increase in cardiac output.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: The hands-on activities contributed to my understanding of the workshop's content.
- Strongly agree
- Agree
- Disagree
- Strongly disagree
A: Strongly agree / Disagree
Partly right: Agree (25%); Strongly disagree (25%)

Tapp and Clowes (2000) highlighted five important variables in their segmentation of football supporters. Identify two of these variables and provides examples revealed in the article.

Q: Cardiac output would be expected to be higher during dynamic exercise on the treadmill than during isometric hand grip exercise because there would be a larger oxygen requirement during dynamic exercise on the treadmill.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Thomas is a 20 year old university student who weighs 80 kg. He participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. He completed the 2nd stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 120 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Tom’s predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Tom’s fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: Excellent / 50.4; Excellent / 50.4

Outline the Psychological Continuum Model (PCM) and describe how it can benefit sport marketing.

Q: Which of the following is a skill?
- Let’s make it 8pm. (This is a grammatical structure.)
- Send a text message. (This is a skill.)
- A text message. (This is a text or discourse type.)
- cu l8tr (These are vocabulary items – the spelling of these words is common in text message. This could also be considered to be a grammatical structure as it is a sequence of words which forms a complete sentence.)
- Being aware of when and where it’s appropriate to answer your mobile phone. (This is subject matter or a cultural concept.)
A: Send a text message.

Q: Systolic blood pressure increases during dynamic incremental exercise due to an increase in cardiac output.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: John offered to be the team subject in a physiology practical class. Your team collected John’s expired gas into a Douglas bag for a period of 3 minutes. You used the Aichi Tokei metre to measure the volume of gas in the bag and it was determined that 60 L were collected. The temperature in the laboratory was 25°C and the ambient barometric pressure was 760 mmHg at the time the gas was collected. Use 1 decimal point in your answers for 1. and 2. Use a whole number for your answer to 3. Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was John’s minute ventilation in L/min ATPS?

2. What was John’s minute ventilation L/min BTPS?

3. Assuming a breathing frequency of 25 breaths per minute, what was the average tidal volume in ml, ATPS?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: 20.0 / 21.5 / 800; 20.0 / 21.5 / 800; 20.0 / 21.5 / 800

The W-League, the highest level women’s football (soccer) league in Australia, commenced in 2008. It comprises eight teams (seven of them affiliated with the A-League). Which product-market expansion strategy do you think the A-League adopted?

Q: Current cigarette smoking is considered to be a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Newton's three famous laws of motion include these concepts (select three):
- Speed
- Velocity
- Mass
- Vector
- Energy
- Gravity
A: Speed; Velocity; Vector
Feedback: Speed, Velocity, and Vector are the concepts Newton used in his three laws of motion.

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a patient with severe pulmonary disease is approximately 35 ml/kg/min.
- true
- false
A: false

Assume that a) the fixed costs of playing a match at Olympic Park are $250,000 and AAMI Park are $500,000 and the variable costs are $10 irrespective of the venue, and b) the break-even attendance figure is 10,000 fans.

What is the minimum ticket price that the NRL Melbourne Storm should charge for i) Olympic Park? ii) AAMI Park? iii) Do these ticket prices suggest that the Storm make a profit? Please explain your analysis.

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- I am writing to let you know .... (This is a grammatical structure.)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Persuading someone to do something. (This is a language function)
- Look up words in an alphabetically organised list (This is a skill.)
A: I am writing to let you know ....

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- A letter from a school to parents (This is a text or discourse type)
- Please advise.... (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- The importance of excursion in Australian school programs (This is a skill.)
A: Requesting information

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Linking words E.g. He’s_eaten a lot_of junk food today. (No, this is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Making small talk (Yes, this is a language function.)
- Radio talkback (No this is a text or discourse type)
- It's dead easy. (No, this is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Identifying symbols (No, this is a skill.)
A: Making small talk

The U.S. magazine, Sports Illustrated, produces Sports Illustrated for Kids (for children aged 8 and above) and SI Golf Plus (for golfing enthusiasts). Which type (category) of segmentation does Sports Illustrated use to segment its readers?

Q: Which of the following is a language function?
- Placing stress or emphasising the keywords in an utterance (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Requesting information (This is a language function.)
- A menu (This is a text or discourse type)
- In the long run. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Create a word document on a computer (This is a skill.)
A: Requesting information

Q: Which of the following is a grammatical structure?
- The diphthong sound in the words: boy, toy oil, etc. (This is related to the phonology (pronunciation).)
- Buying a train ticket (This is a language function.)
- A bus timetable (This is a text or discourse type)
- He's off his head. (This is an idiomatic phrase. We would classify this as a vocabulary item.)
- Don't forget to ring me. (This is a grammatical structure.)
A: Don't forget to ring me.

Which product-market expansion strategy do you believe NASCAR adopted with its decision to aggressively expand ‘south of the border’?

Q: For each of the following dates, match the event or person associated with it.
- 1347 | Bubonic Plague spreads in Europe
- 1066 | Norman Conquest of Britain
- 1100s | Angkor Wat is built
- 1215 | Magna Carta signed
- 1455 | Gutenberg's movable-type printing press produces the Bible
- 1517 | Martin Luther initiates the Reformation
- 1664 | Newton's theory of universal gravitation
- 1764 | Mozart (aged 8) writes first symphony
- 1867 | Japan ends 675-year shogun rule
- 1947 | Gandhi's civil disobedience movement leads to an independent India

Q: Heart rate increases in direct proportion to the metabolic rate.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: With increasing dynamic exercise intensities, both breathing frequency and tidal volume increase.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The mechanismsto explain the endurance training-induced increase in stroke volume is an increase in peripheral resistance.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Resting oxygen consumption for a 65 kg male is [...] ml/min.
A: 227.5 / 228 / 227

Q: Most of the increase in mean arterial pressure that occurs during dynamic incremental exercise is due to an increase in systolic blood pressure.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Systolic blood pressure increases during isometric handgrip exercise due to a decrease in peripheral resistance.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: A typical maximal oxygen uptake value for a patient with severe pulmonary disease is approximately 60 ml/kg/min.
- false
- true
A: false

Explain how sport marketing differs from marketing.

Q: High levels of HDL is considered to be a negative risk factor for coronary heart disease.
- true
- false
A: true

During recent years, many sport organisations have built state-of-the-art facilities with improved corporate hospitality amenities and comfort for fans. We discussed how game-day attendance usually rose for a period of time after these new facilities were open to the public. What was the name of this phenomenon (or effect)?

Explain the introduction stage of the product life cycle by using one of the two examples discussed in the lecture.

Q: Bill Veeck is widely recognised as one of the founding fathers of sport promotion. Which of the following game-day promotions were discussed in the lecture?
- None of the above
- Both B and C
- ‘Disco Demolition’ Night
- Eddie Gaedel, the ‘batting midget’
- Free bat day
A: Both B and C

The Melbourne Rebels are set to join the Super 15 rugby union competition in 2011. Who (and why) are some of its immediate and indirect competitors?

Highly-identified fans are a valuable asset to a sport organisation. Discuss.

Q: Which of the following is a text or discourse type?
- An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes. (This is a text type)
- Expressing opinions (This is a language function.)
- Past continuous verbs (This is a grammatical structure)
- Awareness of what kind of relationships and perceptions that people hold between the people from the south of Ireland and the north of Ireland. (This is subject matter or cultural knowledge)
- Using an electronic bilingual dictionary. (This is a skill.)
A: An abridged short novel of the book, Angela’s Ashes.

Which U.S. league was described in the lecture as a perfect example of how sport organisations simultaneously compete and cooperate?

What pricing strategy is used for MLB Toronto Blue Jay merchandise?

Q: During dynamic incremental exercise systolic blood pressure remains relatively unchanged.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: During dynamic incremental exercise diastolic blood pressure remains relatively unchanged.
- true
- false
A: true

What is a mission statement and why is it so important for an organisation to have one?

Q: Creating quizzes in the LMS is simple
- True (Yes, that's correct ...)
- False (No, if you believe that to be true ...)
A: True

Describe some of the problems in distinguishing fatigue from related states that may also cause performance to deteriorate

Describe some of the problems in distinguishing fatigue from related states that may also cause performance to deteriorate.

Q: Which American President declared "I am not a crook"?
- President Obama (Sorry, wrong century)
- president lincoln
- president nixon (asdfasdf)
A: president nixon

Q: which three of shakespeare's plays etc ...
- The Taming of the Shrew
- Much ado about nothing
- Comedy of errors
- Romeo and Juliet
- Hamlet
A: The Taming of the Shrew; Much ado about nothing; Comedy of errors

Q: Match the movie with the year in which it was released.
- The Wizard of Oz | 1939
- Citizen Kane | 1941
- Gone with the wind | 1939
- Casablanca | 1942

Q: Budapest is the capital of ?
A: Hungary
Partly right: Hungry (25%); ***gary (5%)
Feedback ("Hungary"): That's correct. Congratulations!!
Feedback ("Hungry"): Not quite ..... did you have lunch?
Feedback ("Angry"): Not happy? You need to study your geography

Q: what is the area of a rectangle with a length of {l} cm and a width of {w} cm? please include the unit of measurement in your answer.
A: {l}*{w} (formula; values not in the backup's text)

Q: The capital city of Victoria is [...]

It is situated on the [...] River

The population is [...] million people
A: Melbourne; Yarra; 4
Gap 1 offers: Canberra; Melbourne

Briefly explain the difference between ‘hazard’ and ‘risk’

Q: The sole trader form of business organisation:

Q: An advantage of the partnership form of organisation is mutual agency.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Company shareholders, whose shares are fully paid, have no personal liability for company debts.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: For accounting purposes a sole trader does not need to keep business and personal transactions separate.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: If the assets owned by a business total $50000 and the liabilities total $37000 equity must equal $87000.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In Australia a private company will pay less income tax on an income of $20,000 than a sole trader.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: One of the advantages of a partnership compared to a company is the ease with which partnerships can be set up.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Dividends paid are reported on the:
- Income statement
- Retained earnings statement
- Balance sheet
- All of the above
- None of the above
A: Retained earnings statement
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: Dividends paid:
- increase assets.
- increase expenses.
- decrease income.
- decrease retained earnings.
- None of the above
A: decrease retained earnings.
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: Of the two broad types of trust a family trust is known as a _____________ trust.
A: discretionary

Q: If total liabilities increased by $25000 and equity increased by $5000 over a period, then total assets must have changed by?
- $30 000 increase
- $25 000 increase
- $20 000 increase
- $20 000 decrease
- None of the above
A: $30 000 increase
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: If total liabilities decreased by $14000 and equity increased by $6000 over a period, then total assets must have changed by?
- $14 000 increase
- $20 000 increase
- $8000 decrease
- $8000 increase
- None of the above
A: $8000 decrease
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: It is true that a company:
- has limited liability.
- is one of the easiest types of business entities to set up.
- is less risky to supply goods or services to than a partnership.
- A and C.
- all of the above are true.
A: has limited liability.
Feedback: Section: Definition and features of a company

Q: It is true that a partnership:
- has limited liability.
- has an unlimited life.
- is a common structure for service type businesses.
- must have a partnership agreement
- None of the above is true
A: is a common structure for service type businesses.
Feedback: Section: Definition and features of a partnership

Q: Limited liability for a company applies to:
- the managers
- the board of directors collectively
- the individual directors
- the shareholders
- the bank
A: the shareholders
Feedback: Section: Definition and features of a company

Q: Resources owned by a business are referred to as:
- assets.
- income.
- equity.
- liabilities.
- A and C
A: assets.
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: Retained earnings at the end of the period is equal to:
- assets plus liabilities.
- profit earned for the period plus retained earnings at the start of the period.
- retained earnings at the beginning of the period plus profit earned for the period minus dividends.
- retained earnings at the beginning of the period plus profit earned for the period minus liabilities.
- None of the above
A: retained earnings at the beginning of the period plus profit earned for the period minus dividends.
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: The profit for a partnership must be split:
- 50/50
- according to the contribution of each partner
- according to the capital contributions of each partner
- equally
- None of the above
A: None of the above
Feedback: Section: Definition and features of a partnership

Q: The sole trader form of business organisation:
- is classified as a separate legal entity.
- combines the records of the business with the personal records of the owner.
- must apply for an Australian Business Number.
- must have at least two owners.
- None of the above.
A: must apply for an Australian Business Number.
Feedback: Section: Definition and features of a sole trader

Q: Under the Corporations Act which of these is not true for a disclosing entity?
- They are required to be listed on the stock exchange
- They are required to adopt Australian Accounting Standards
- They are required to have their financial reports audited
- Their financial reports must be lodged with ASIC and be on the public record
- No statement is untrue, i.e. all are true statements
A: They are required to be listed on the stock exchange
Feedback: Section: The financial reporting requirements of disclosing entities

Q: Under the Corporations Act which of these tests is not one that must be met for a company to be considered a small proprietary company?
- Consolidated gross operating revenue of less than $10 million
- Consolidated gross liabilities of less than $1 million
- Less than 50 employees
- Consolidated gross assets less than $5 million
- None of the above, i.e. all are tests that must be considered
A: Consolidated gross liabilities of less than $1 million
Feedback: Section: The financial reporting requirements of disclosing entities

Q: Which financial statement must be prepared before others can be completed?
- Statement of cash flows
- Income statement
- Balance sheet
- Statement of financial position
- All are prepared at the same time
A: Income statement
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: Which financial statement is concerned with the enterprise at a point in time?
- Cash flow statement
- Income statement
- Retained earnings statement
- Balance sheet
- A and C
A: Balance sheet
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: Which of these entities are required, under the Corporations Act, to prepare a full set of financial statements in accordance with the accounting standards?
- A large proprietary company
- A public company
- A disclosing entity
- A registered scheme
- All are required to prepare a full set of financial statements
A: All are required to prepare a full set of financial statements
Feedback: Section: Types of companies

Q: Which of these is a disadvantage of a partnership compared to a sole trader?
- More expensive to set up
- Limited life
- Accounting entity
- Mutual agency
- Unlimited liability
A: Mutual agency
Feedback: Section: Advantages and disadvantages of a partnership

Q: Which of these is not true for a public company?
- It must be listed on the stock exchange
- It can issue shares to the public at large
- It must prepare financial reports in accordance with the accounting standards
- It must have an Australian Company Number
- None of above is untrue, i.e. all are true statements
A: It must be listed on the stock exchange
Feedback: Section: Types of companies

Q: Which of these is the most numerous type of company registered in Australia?
- A proprietary company limited by shares
- A public company limited by shares
- A public company limited by guarantee
- An unlimited public company
- A public No-liability company
A: A proprietary company limited by shares
Feedback: Section: Types of companies

Q: A business that is owned by shareholders and is a separate legal entity is a _______________.
A: company

Q: A major (advantage/disadvantage) _________________ of a company is that its shareholders have limited liability.
A: advantage

Q: A major (advantage/disadvantage) ____________________ of a partnership is mutual agency.
A: disadvantage

Q: Private companies are generally smaller than public companies.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Private companies in Australia must have at least two shareholders.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Shareholders in companies decide at their annual general meeting on the amount of dividends they want to be paid for the year.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Small proprietary companies are not generally required, under the Corporations Act, to prepare annual financial reports.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The main advantages of trusts are tax benefits and limited liability.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A major (advantage/disadvantage) ____________________ of a sole trader is unlimited liability.
A: disadvantage

Q: A business which is a separate legal entity can be a:
- sole trader.
- partnership.
- company.
- none of the above.
- all of the above.
A: company.
Feedback: Section: Definition and features of a company

Q: A company has which of these set of characteristics?
- Harder to raise funds and gives the owner full control
- Shared control, tax advantages for family members, limited life
- Simple to set up and control will always remain with the founder
- Easier to transfer ownership and raise funds, and no personal liability
- None of the above
A: Easier to transfer ownership and raise funds, and no personal liability
Feedback: Section: Definition and features of a company

Q: A company is a legal entity. Which of these is a feature of a legal entity?
- Has shareholders
- Must pay dividends
- Can own assets
- Must prepare reports
- All of the above are features of a legal entity
A: Can own assets
Feedback: Section: Definition and features of a company

Q: A partnership has which of these set of characteristics?
- Harder to raise funds and gives the owner full control.
- Shared control, tax advantages for family members, increased skills and resources.
- Simple to set up but increased government regulation.
- Easier to transfer ownership and raise funds, and no personal liability.
- None of the above.
A: Shared control, tax advantages for family members, increased skills and resources.
Feedback: Section: Definition and features of a partnership

Q: A small neighbourhood handyman service that is operated by its owner would most likely be organised as a:
- company.
- trust.
- sole trader.
- joint venture.
- A & C.
A: sole trader.
Feedback: Section: Definition and features of a sole trader

Q: ABC Restaurant Pty Ltd started the year with total assets of $60000 and total liabilities of $40000. During the year the business earned $100000 in income and incurred $55000 in expenses. Dividends paid were $10000.
The profit for ABC for the period was:
- $35000.
- $45000.
- $20000.
- $90000.
- $15000.
A: $45000.
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: ABC Restaurant Pty Ltd started the year with total assets of $60000 and total liabilities of $40000. During the year the business earned $100000 in income and incurred $55000 in expenses. Dividends paid were $10000.
Equity at the end of the period was:
- $55000.
- $35000.
- $65000.
- $45000.
- None of the above
A: $55000.
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: An additional expense in a company's income statement compared to a partnership is:
- Income tax expense
- Dividends paid
- Depreciation
- Earnings per share
- A and B
A: Income tax expense
Feedback: Section: Comparison of business reports

Q: An advantage of a private company becoming a public company is:
- Separation of ownership and control
- Increased disclosure
- The opportunity costs of underpricing a share offer
- The potential to reduce the cost of equity
- All are advantages
A: The potential to reduce the cost of equity
Feedback: Section: Types of companies

Q: An advantage of a trust is
- ease of set up and administration.
- tax minimisation.
- a simple legal structure.
- A and B.
- All of the above.
A: tax minimisation.
Feedback: Section: Advantages and disadvantages of a trust

Q: An advantage of the company form of business is that:
- it has a limited life.
- its owner's personal resources are at stake.
- its ownership is transferable through the sale of shares.
- it is simple to establish.
- none of the above.
A: its ownership is transferable through the sale of shares.
Feedback: Section: Advantages and disadvantages of a company

Q: A single form used by entities registered for GST to report their business tax obligations to the Australian Tax Office is the ______________ _____________ statement.
A: business activity

Q: _____________ __________ is that part of a company's equity representing profits that have been retained in the business and not paid out as dividends.
A: Retained earnings

Q: The accounting report that lists assets, liabilities and equity is the _______________ _____________.
A: balance sheet

Q: The accounting report that shows income less expenses is the _____________ statement.
A: income

Q: When a partnership is established it is good business practice for a written partnership ____________ to be drawn up.
A: agreement

Q: A company can retain profits in its own name because of its separate accounting entity status.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: A partnership is a business organised as a separate legal entity that is owned by a number of shareholders.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: An advantage of a company is that the directors have limited liability.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: An advantage of the company form of organisation is the unlimited liability of its shareholders.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: what colour is the sky?
- red
- white
- blue
A: red

Q: languages?
- true
- false
A: false
Feedback: this can be used for student feedback on answer

Q: Brick tells us that deductive argument is generally preferred in Anglo academic and business cultures, so it is important to know what it is like.

From the first column below, select each item:

1.Identifies the writer’s position and then presents evidence for it [...]

2.Presents a series of reasons and then concludes with a position  [...]

3.Gives a lot of background information [...]

4.Sticks to limited, most relevant information  [...]

5.Explicitly gives the writer’s position  [...]

6.Leaves it to the reader to infer the writer’s position  [...]

7. Often seems crude and overly directive to people from non-Anglo academic cultures  [...]

8.Often seems unclear and unstructured to people from Anglo academic cultures  [...]
A: Deductive argument; Inductive argument; Inductive argument; Deductive argument; Deductive argument; Inductive argument; Deductive argument; inductive argument
Gap 1 offers: inductive argument; Deductive argument
Gap 2 offers: Inductive argument; Deductive argument
Gap 3 offers: Inductive argument; Deductive argument
Gap 4 offers: Inductive argument; Deductive argument
Gap 5 offers: Inductive argument; Deductive argument
Gap 6 offers: Inductive argument; Deductive argument
Gap 7 offers: Inductive argument; Deductive argument
Gap 8 offers: inductive argument; Deductive argument
Feedback: Great attempt

Q: Analysis could involve discussing (click on only those that apply):
- How something works
- How you feel about something
- How useful some idea is for understanding the world
- How important something is (and why)
- Why something happens
A: How something works; How useful some idea is for understanding the world; How important something is (and why); Why something happens

Q: Brick suggests that you can read more efficiently if you (click only on those that apply)
- think critically about how the material relates to your assignment and to other texts on the same topic
- copy out long passages to use as quotations in your assignment
- select the texts, or parts of texts, most relevant to your assignment
- skim the argument by reading the introduction and conclusion, and then the topic sentences
- include readings that support your view and discard those that don’t
- search what a text covers by reading the title, contents, and headings (of a book), or the title, abstract, and headings (of a journal)
A: think critically about how the material relates to your assignment and to other texts on the same topic; select the texts, or parts of texts, most relevant to your assignment; skim the argument by reading the introduction and conclusion, and then the topic sentences; search what a text covers by reading the title, contents, and headings (of a book), or the title, abstract, and headings (of a journal)

Q: In Chapter 3, Brick discusses what academics mean by “analysis” – a very important aspect of many assignments you will do. Brick notes that lecturers often complain that students’ work has “too much description and not enough analysis”. This means that (click on one):
- Essays should use description to make a point
- Essays should not use description
A: Essays should use description to make a point

Q: Like "opinion" and "argument", another word whose meanings in and out of uni are not quite the same is "critical". At uni, being critical can mean (click on only those that apply):
- evaluating how useful a theory is for understanding what it tries to explain
- questioning what we read
- trying to find fault with other people's positions
A: evaluating how useful a theory is for understanding what it tries to explain; questioning what we read

Q: what colour is the sky?
- white
- blue
- red
A: red

Q: languages?
- false
- true
A: false
Feedback: this can be used for student feedback on answer

Q: Wikipedia is OK to use as a source for the reference list in university assignments for your health sciences course
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Expand and simplify the following algebraic expression.

$$(2x-1)^{2}-2(x-1)+3(x-7)-4x^{2}$$
- NONE OF THESE
- $$ 4x^{2}+3x-9 $$
- $$ 3(8-x) $$
- $$ 3x+24 $$
- $$ x^{2} - 5x + 7 $$
A: $$ 3(8-x) $$

Q: Expand and simplify the following algebraic expression.

$$(3x+2)^{2}-2(x+1)+3(x-7)+2x^{2}$$
- NONE OF THESE
- $$18x^{2}-x+1$$
- $$9x^{2}-4x+12$$
- $$ x^{2}+13x-21$$
- $$ 7x^{2}+13x-19 $$
A: $$ 7x^{2}+13x-19 $$

Q: Expand and simplify the following algebraic expression.

$$ (4x-2)^{2}+2(x-1)+3(x+1)-7x^{2} $$
- $$ 9x^{2} + 5x + 1 $$
- $$ 9x^{2} + 5x + 5 $$
- NONE OF THESE
- $$ 16x^{2} + 5x - 7 $$
- $$ 9x^{2} - 11x + 5 $$
A: $$ 9x^{2} + 5x + 5 $$ / $$ 9x^{2} - 11x + 5 $$

Q: Expand and simplify the following algebraic expression.

$$(x-2)^{2}+(x-1)^{2}-2x^{2}+6x$$
- $$5+6x$$
- $$5$$
- $$3+6x$$
- NONE OF THESE
- $$4x^{2}+5$$
A: $$5$$

Q: Expand and simplify the following algebraic expression.

$$(4x-1)^{2}+(4x-2)+2(3-x)+7x$$
- NONE OF THESE
- $$16x^{2}-x-7$$
- $$16x^{2}-8x+3$$
- $$ 16x^{2}+x+5$$
- $$16x^{2}+1$$
A: $$ 16x^{2}+x+5$$

Q: Expand and simplify the following algebraic expression.

$$ (3x + 1)^{2} - 3(x - 2) + 4(x - 7) - 8x^{2} $$
- NONE OF THESE
- $$ x^{2} + 7x - 33 $$
- $$ 11x^{2} + x - 14 $$
- $$ x^{2} + 7x - 21 $$
- $$ -5x^{2} + 4x - 21 $$
A: $$ x^{2} + 7x - 21 $$

Name three activities where the worker is exposed to whole body vibration and three where the worker is exposes to hand-arm vibration. Briefly describe how such exposure could be managed to reduce the likelihood of trauma.

The eye changes with age. Describe some of these changes and the subsequent visual changes. What types of modifications might be required in the workplace setting to compensate for these changes?

What are some positive and negative factors associated with auditory alarms?

In work areas where glare is an issue what strategies might you employ to improve the situation?

In designing alarm systems outline the criteria that you need to address.

Bob is a 55 year old male who has worked in construction for most of his working life. In the past few years he has had a change of focus and is working inside doing some call centre work. He doesn’t like it but finds the hours good and enjoys not being exposed to the elements. For the past six months Bob has had a new partner and they have been enjoying going out to dinner.

However, Bob has been having difficulty in hearing what his new friend has been saying. At some restaurants it is better than others but he is worried about the impact this might have on his new relationship.

Describe what might be happening to Bob in terms of his hearing. Why might he find the situation worse at some restaurants compared to others? Is there anything that Bob can do about this?

Jane is 22 and a university student. She works at a bar three nights a week and plays bass in a band as a hobby.

Last week Jane left work on Sunday, which was the third night she had worked in a row. She had also been in rehearsals for most of the weekend as her band has an upcoming gig. Normally Jane leaves work with a loud ringing in her hears which usually dissipates by Monday, sometimes depending on who was the guest band at the bar the ringing might last until Tuesday. On this particular week, the ringing has not gone away and she is left with a buzzing in her ears, She is finding it difficult to concentrate at University and sometimes can’t hear what her lecturers are saying.

What is happening to Jane in terms of her hearing? What advice would you provide for her in regards to the very short term and then the longer term?

A friend of yours has rung you because she is going to work at the Big Day Out Music Festival. She has been “goggling” and found some information on noise levels at the festival, discovering that they average between 85-100dB(A).

She is very concerned about the potential for long term hearing loss and wants your opinion on this and what should she do.

How will you respond to her concerns and what do you advise her to do to reduce her exposure during the day.

You have been asked by an architect to give a presentation titled, “What do you need to consider in the design of a safe and comfortable visual environment”

Provide a high level outline of the key points you would raise in your presentation. You do not need to go into extensive detail just an overview of the key points you will deliver

Q: Which of the following statements is true?

(Careful: There might be more than one correct answer...)
- Relative clauses are non-finite. (Incorrect.)
- Subordinate clauses headed by a past participle verb form are non-finite. (Correct.)
- Subordinate clauses can be finite or non-finite. (Correct.)
- All of the statements are false. (Incorrect.)
A: Subordinate clauses headed by a past participle verb form are non-finite.; Subordinate clauses can be finite or non-finite.

Q: Analysis could involve discussing (click on only those that apply):
- Why something happens
- How important something is (and why)
- How useful some idea is for understanding the world
- How you feel about something
- How something works
A: Why something happens; How important something is (and why); How useful some idea is for understanding the world; How something works

Q: In Chapter 3, Brick discusses what academics mean by “analysis” – a very important aspect of many assignments you will do. Brick notes that lecturers often complain that students’ work has “too much description and not enough analysis”. This means that (click on one):
- Essays should not use description
- Essays should use description to make a point
A: Essays should use description to make a point

Q: In thinking about scholars’ claims, it’s important to understand one particular word that Brick uses, ‘qualified’, because it’s a word with two meanings and only one of them is relevant here. Brick says a ‘qualified’ claim is one that (click on only those that apply):
- A person is qualified to make
- Is always true
- Indicates how broadly it is true by using words like may, some, most, few, usually
A: Indicates how broadly it is true by using words like may, some, most, few, usually

Q: It is situated on the [...] River

The poulation is [...] million people
A: Yarra; 4
Partly right: gap 2 4 (50%)

Q: Match the following cities with the correct state:

Melbourne[...]

Sydney[...]

Brisbane[...]

Hobart[...]
A: Victoria; Victoria; QLD; QLD
Gap 1 offers: Victoria; NSW
Gap 2 offers: Victoria; NSW
Gap 3 offers: QLD; Tasmania
Gap 4 offers: QLD; Tasmania

Q: What is the surface of a rectangle in m^2 with a base of {B} m and a height {H} m?
A: {B}*{H} (formula; values not in the backup's text)

Q: Who is the future wife of Prince William?
A: *ate *iddleton / Ms Middleton
Partly right: Kate (50%)

Q: Match the following authors with their novels:
- James Joyce | Ulysses
- Chinua Achebe | Things Fall Apart
- Michael Ondaajte | The English Patient
- Thomas Hardy | Jude the Obscure
- F. Scott Fitzgerald | The Great Gatsby

Q: Which of the following Shakespeare plays are considered comedies?
- Taming of the Shrew
- Romeo and Juliet
- Hamlet
- Much ado about nothing
- Comedy of errors
A: Taming of the Shrew; Much ado about nothing; Comedy of errors

Q: Which American President declared " I am not a crook"?
- President Nixon (Yes indeed, it was President Nixon. Well done!)
- President Lincon (Wrong)
- President Obama (Wrong)
A: President Nixon

Q: The quiz actvity in Moodle is easy to use.
- True (Yes, that's correct. The quiz activity in Moodle is simple to use.)
- False (No, that's incorrect. If you believe this to be true, consult you trainer.)
A: True

Q: Who is buried in Grant's tomb in New York City?
- Grant
- not Grant `another Grant
A: Grant

Q: Who is sang in Grant's tomb in New York City?
- Grant
- not Grant
- `another Grant
A: not Grant

Q: Which is the best option?
- Option A
- Option B
A: Option A

Q: A patient presents to you complaining of low back pain.  The referral from his doctor states that he has a disc prolapse at the level of L3 that is compressing the left spinal nerve.You must complete a full neurological examination on your patient to assess for damage to sensory and motor nerves. What is the first sensory modality that you will test? [...]

What pattern of reduced sensation would you expect for this patient?[...]

You assess his ability to detect light touch, and it is normal. What modalities can you assume are also normal and therefore do not need to test? [...]

Do you need to test kinaesthesia?[...]

Do you need to test stereognosis?[...]

What motor reflex could be decreased or abnormal in this patient? [...]

What movement would you resist to test the L3 myotome on this patient? [...]
A: 3. Light Touch; 4. Sensation would be reduced in the distribution of the L3 dermatome; 3. Pressure; 2. No; 2. No; 2. Patellar tendon reflex; 1. Knee extension
Partly right: gap 3 1. Pinprick (50%)
Gap 1 offers: 1. Pinprick; 2. Pressure; 3. Light Touch; 4. Tactile localisation
Gap 2 offers: 1. Sensation in the entire lower limb would be reduced with area around the hip and trunk more affected than the foot and ankle; 2. Sensation in the entire lower limb would be reduced with the foot and ankle more affected than the area around the hip and trunk; 3. Sensation would be reduced in the cutaneous distribution of the femoral nerve; 4. Sensation would be reduced in the distribution of the L3 dermatome; 5. Sensation would be reduced in the distribution of the L4 dermatome
Gap 3 offers: 1. Pinprick; 2. Temperature; 3. Pressure; 4. Kineasthesia
Gap 4 offers: 1. Yes; 2. No
Gap 5 offers: 1. Yes; 2. No
Gap 6 offers: 1. Babinski sign; 2. Patellar tendon reflex; 3. Tendocalcaneous reflex; 4. Biceps reflex
Gap 7 offers: 1. Knee extension; 2. Knee flexion; 3. Ankle plantarflexion; 4. Ankle dorsiflexion; 5. Hip flexion; 6. Hip extension

Q: brachioradialis%20reflex%20video.mpg

achilles%20reflex%20video.swf

What reflex is being tested in this video?
- biceps reflex
- triceps reflex
- achilles reflex
- brachioradialis
A: brachioradialis

Q: A patient presents to you complaining of low back pain.  Radiological examination confirms that he has a disc prolapse at the level of L3 that is compressing the left spinal nerve.You must complete a full neurological examination on your patient to assess for damage to sensory and motor nerves.
What pattern of reduced sensation would you expect for this patient? [...]
What motor reflex would you expect to be decreased or abnormal? [...]
What movement would you resist to test the appropriate myotome on this patient? [...]
A: 4. Sensation would be reduced in the distribution of the L3 dermatome; 2. Patellar tendon reflex; 1. Knee extension
Gap 1 offers: 1. Sensation in the entire lower limb would be reduced with area around the hip and trunk more affected than the foot and ankle; 2. Sensation in the entire lower limb would be reduced with the foot and ankle more affected than the area around the hip and trunk; 3. Sensation would be reduced in the cutaneous distribution of the femoral nerve; 4. Sensation would be reduced in the distribution of the L3 dermatome; 5. Sensation would be reduced in the distribution of the L4 dermatome
Gap 2 offers: 1. Babinski sign; 2. Patellar tendon reflex; 3. Tendocalcaneous reflex; 4. Biceps reflex
Gap 3 offers: 1. Knee extension; 2. Knee flexion; 3. Ankle plantarflexion; 4. Ankle dorsiflexion; 5. Hip flexion; 6. Hip extension

Q: Where would you expect sensation to be reduced in this patient?
- entire lower limb
- entire lower limb with increased deficit distally (foot and ankle)
- entire lower limb but increased deficit proximally (hip and trunk)
- in the distribution of the L3 dermatome
- in the cutaneous distribution of the femoral nerve
A: in the distribution of the L3 dermatome

Q: You should always test the strength of S1/S2 myotome in supine.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: When assessing reflexes, it is important NOT to tell the patient what you are doing to ellicit a true reflex response.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: You are asked to perform a neurological test on a person following a right shoulder dislocation.  His right triceps reflex is very minimal and you can barely detect a flicker.  Assessment of his left triceps reflex is similar.  Would you assess this patient's triceps reflex as normal or abnormal?
- normal
- abnormal
A: normal

What is a membrane channel made up of?

Once an antagonist binds to a receptor, how can it be removed?

How does a receptor antagonist work?

What's the difference between a G-protein and a G-string?

Q: The joint reaction forces is a single force which represents
- the compressive force between the two articular surfaces
- the net moment resulting from all of the tissue forces around a joint multiplied by their respective lever arms around a specified reference point
- the vector sum of all the forces acting around a joint.
- the muscle force which reacts against the weight of the limb and the supported load.
A: the vector sum of all the forces acting around a joint.

Q: The joint moment is a single torque which represents
- the muscle moment which reacts against the weight of the limb and the supported load.
- the compressive force acting between the joint surfaces.
- the vector sum of all the forces acting around a joint.
- the net moment resulting from all of the tissue forces around a joint multiplied by their respective lever arms around a specified reference point
A: the net moment resulting from all of the tissue forces around a joint multiplied by their respective lever arms around a specified reference point

Q: Resting oxygen consumption for a 65 kg male is [...] ml/min.
A: 227 / 227.5 / 228

Q: Rick is a 38 year old man who weighs 70 kg. He participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. He completed the 3rd stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 140 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Rick’s predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Rick's fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: 48.2 / Excellent; 48.2 / Excellent

Q: Maria is a 65 year old female who weighs 48 kg. She participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. She completed the 1st stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 125 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Maria’s predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Maria’s fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: Fair / 21.0; Fair / 21.0

Q: Sally is a 20 year old university student who weighs 55 kg. She participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. She completed the 2nd stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 130 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Sally’s predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Sally’s fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: 47.2 / Superior; 47.2 / Superior

Q: Jim is a 40 year old man who weighs 100 kg. He participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. He completed the 1st stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 118 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Jim's predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Jim's fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: 28.0 / Very poor; Very poor / 28.0

Q: Thomas is a 20 year old university student who weighs 80 kg. He participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. He completed the 2nd stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 120 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Tom’s predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Tom’s fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: 50.4 / Excellent; 50.4 / Excellent

Q: John offered to be the team subject in a physiology practical class. Your team collected John’s expired gas into a Douglas bag for a period of 3 minutes. You used the Aichi Tokei metre to measure the volume of gas in the bag and it was determined that 90 L were collected. The temperature in the laboratory was 20°C and the ambient barometric pressure was 760 mmHg at the time the gas was collected. Use 1 decimal point in your answers for 1. and 2. Use a whole number for your answer to 3. Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was John’s minute ventilation in L/min ATPS?

2. What was John’s minute ventilation L/min BTPS?

3. Assuming a breathing frequency of 20 breaths per minute, what was the average tidal volume in ml, ATPS?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: 33.1 / 30.0 / 1500; 33.1 / 30.0 / 1500; 33.1 / 30.0 / 1500

Q: John offered to be the team subject in a physiology practical class. Your team collected John’s expired gas into a Douglas bag for a period of 3 minutes. You used the Aichi Tokei metre to measure the volume of gas in the bag and it was determined that 60 L were collected. The temperature in the laboratory was 25°C and the ambient barometric pressure was 760 mmHg at the time the gas was collected. Use 1 decimal point in your answers for 1. and 2. Use a whole number for your answer to 3. Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was John’s minute ventilation in L/min ATPS?

2. What was John’s minute ventilation L/min BTPS?

3. Assuming a breathing frequency of 25 breaths per minute, what was the average tidal volume in ml, ATPS?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: 800 / 21.5 / 20.0; 800 / 21.5 / 20.0; 800 / 21.5 / 20.0

Q: John offered to be the team subject in a physiology practical class. Your team collected John’s expired gas into a Douglas bag for a period of 1 minute. You used the Aichi Tokei metre to measure the volume of gas in the bag and it was determined that 30 L were collected. The temperature in the laboratory was 23°C and the ambient barometric pressure was 760 mmHg at the time the gas was collected. Use 1 decimal point in your answers for 1. and 2. Use a whole number for your answer to 3. Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was John’s minute ventilation in L/min ATPS?

2. What was John’s minute ventilation L/min BTPS?

3. Assuming a breathing frequency of 23 breaths per minute, what was the average tidal volume in ml, ATPS?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: 32.6 / 30.0 / 1304; 32.6 / 1304 / 30.0; 32.6 / 1304 / 30.0

Q: John offered to be the team subject in a physiology practical class. Your team collected John’s expired gas into a Douglas bag for a period of 2 minutes. You used the Aichi Tokei metre to measure the volume of gas in the bag and it was determined that 60 L were collected. The temperature in the laboratory was 24°C and the ambient barometric pressure was 760 mmHg at the time the gas was collected. Use 1 decimal point in your answers for 1. and 2. Use a whole number for your answer to 3. Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was John’s minute ventilation in L/min ATPS?

2. What was John’s minute ventilation L/min BTPS?

3. Assuming a breathing frequency of 25 breaths per minute, what was the average tidal volume in ml, ATPS?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: 32.4 / 30.0 / 1200; 32.4 / 30.0 / 1200; 30.0 / 1200 / 32.4

Q: John offered to be the team subject in a physiology practical class. Your team collected John’s expired gas into a Douglas bag for a period of 4 minutes. You used the Aichi Tokei metre to measure the volume of gas in the bag and it was determined that 60 L were collected. The temperature in the laboratory was 25°C and the ambient barometric pressure was 760 mmHg at the time the gas was collected. Use 1 decimal point in your answers for 1. and 2. Use a whole number for your answer to 3. Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was John’s minute ventilation in L/min ATPS?

2. What was John’s minute ventilation L/min BTPS?

3. Assuming a breathing frequency of 20 breaths per minute, what was the average tidal volume in ml, ATPS?

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: 16.1 / 750 / 15.0; 16.1 / 15.0 / 750; 16.1 / 15.0 / 750

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 30 L/min

FEO2: .163

FECO2: .035

Temp: 23 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. What was the percentage of fatty acid usage during the exercise bout? (answer with no decimal places)

5. What was the percentage of glucose usage during the exercise bout? (answer with no decimal places)

6. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 15 minutes of this activity? (answer using whole numbers)

7. How many mets was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
6. [...]
7. [...]
A: 16.6 / .75 / 16 / 4.7 / 93 / 84 / 1.25; 84 / 16.6 / .75 / 16 / 1.25 / 4.7 / 93; 16.6 / .75 / 16 / 4.7 / 93 / 84 / 1.25; 16.6 / .75 / 16 / 1.25 / 4.7 / 93 / 84; 16.6 / .75 / 16 / 1.25 / 4.7 / 93 / 84; 16.6 / .75 / 16 / 4.7 / 93 / 84 / 1.25; 16.6 / .75 / 16 / 1.25 / 4.7 / 93 / 84

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 25 L/min

FEO2: .161

FECO2: .035

Temp: 21 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 5 minutes of this activity? (answer using whole numbers)

5. How many mets was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
A: 14.6 / .72 / 94 / 1.09 / 4.2 / 6 / 27; 14.6 / .72 / 94 / 4.2 / 6 / 27 / 1.09; 14.6 / .72 / 94 / 1.09 / 4.2 / 6 / 27; .72 / 94 / 1.09 / 4.2 / 6 / 27 / 14.6; 14.6 / .72 / 94 / 1.09 / 4.2 / 6 / 27

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 25 L/min

FEO2: .162

FECO2: .035

Temp: 22 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. What was the percentage of fatty acid usage during the exercise bout? (answer with no decimal places)

5. What was the percentage of glucose usage during the exercise bout? (answer with no decimal places)

6. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 10 minutes of this activity? (answer using whole numbers)

7. How many mets was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
6. [...]
7. [...]
A: 1.07 / 14.2 / 4.1 / .73 / 89 / 53 / 11; 1.07 / 14.2 / 4.1 / .73 / 53 / 11 / 89; 14.2 / 4.1 / .73 / 89 / 53 / 11 / 1.07; 1.07 / 14.2 / 4.1 / .73 / 89 / 53 / 11; 1.07 / 14.2 / 4.1 / .73 / 89 / 53 / 11; 1.07 / 14.2 / .73 / 89 / 53 / 11 / 4.1; 1.07 / 14.2 / 4.1 / .73 / 89 / 53 / 11

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 40 L/min

FEO2: .165

FECO2: .035

Temp: 25 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. What was the percentage of fatty acid usage during the exercise bout? (answer with no decimal places)

5. What was the percentage of glucose usage during the exercise bout? (answer with no decimal places)

6. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 25 minutes of this activity? (answer using whole numbers)

7. How many mets was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
6. [...]
7. [...]
A: 72 / 6.0 / 1.57 / 21.0 / 28 / 197 / .78; 72 / 6.0 / 1.57 / 21.0 / .78 / 28 / 197; 72 / 6.0 / 1.57 / .78 / 28 / 197 / 21.0; 72 / 6.0 / 1.57 / 21.0 / .78 / 28 / 197; 72 / 6.0 / 21.0 / .78 / 28 / 197 / 1.57; 72 / 6.0 / 1.57 / 21.0 / .78 / 28 / 197; 1.57 / 72 / 6.0 / 21.0 / .78 / 28 / 197

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 30 L/min

FEO2: .164

FECO2: .035

Temp: 24 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. What was the percentage of fatty acid usage during the exercise bout? (answer with no decimal places)

5. What was the percentage of glucose usage during the exercise bout? (answer with no decimal places)

6. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 20 minutes of this activity? (answer using whole numbers)

7. How many mets was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
6. [...]
7. [...]
A: 4.6 / 78 / 1.21 / 16.2 / .77 / 22 / 121; 121 / 4.6 / 78 / 1.21 / 16.2 / .77 / 22; 121 / 4.6 / 78 / 1.21 / 16.2 / .77 / 22; 121 / 4.6 / 78 / 1.21 / 16.2 / .77 / 22; 121 / 4.6 / 78 / 1.21 / 16.2 / .77 / 22; 121 / 4.6 / 78 / 1.21 / 16.2 / 22 / .77; 121 / 4.6 / 78 / 1.21 / .77 / 22 / 16.2

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 25 L/min

FEO2: .161

FECO2: .035

Temp: 21 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 5 minutes of this activity? (use whole numbers in your answer)

5. How many mets was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
A: 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 27 / 1.09; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 25 L/min

FEO2: .161

FECO2: .035

Temp: 21 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 5 minutes of this activity? (use whole numbers in your answer)

5. How many mets was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
A: 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 27 / 1.09; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 0.72 / 4.1 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27

How can a hormone be selective in its actions when it contacts almost every cell in the body?

Q: Methodology: Protocol
(v) For how many minutes was data collected during the following periods?

Baseline: [...].
Exercising at 35% VO_2 max: [...].
Exercising at 50% VO_2 max: [...].
Exercising at 65% VO_2 max: [...].
A: 5 / 20; 20; 20; 20

Q: Methodology: Protocol
(v) For how many minutes was data collected during the following periods?

Baseline: [...].
Exercising at 35% VO_2 max: [...].
Exercising at 50% VO_2 max: [...].
Exercising at 65% VO_2 max: [...].
A: 20; 20; 20; 20

What is a second messenger?

Q: References

The article written by Tomoko Ichinose-Kuwahara et al. contains 18 references. The authors may have used a program such as EndNote to assist with referencing.

(i) What is the complete web address for the La Trobe University page containing EndNote user guides, tutorials and help? [...].

(ii) According to the "Getting started" tab in the EndNote tutorial linked to on the page referred to in question (i), EndNote is useful because it: [...].
A: http://www.lib.latrobe.edu.au/help/endnote-help.php; e. All of the above.
Gap 2 offers: a. Imports references from library databases and catalogues, e.g., Medline, Biological Abstracts, Current Contents etc.; b. Sorts and stores references.; c. Creates in-text citation in Word documents.; d. Creates formatted bibliographies.; e. All of the above.

Q: References

The article written by Tomoko Ichinose-Kuwahara et al. lists 18 references. The authors may have used a program like EndNote to assist with referencing.

(i) What is the complete web address for the La Trobe University page containing EndNote user guides, tutorials and help? [...].

(ii) According to the “Getting started” tab in the EndNote tutorial linked to on the page described above in (i), EndNote is useful because it:
[...].

(iii) There are numerous methods for adding references to your EndNote library, including:
[...].
A: http://www.lib.latrobe.edu.au/help/endnote-help.php; e. All of the above; d. All of the above
Gap 2 offers: a. Imports references from library databases and catalogues, e.g. Medline, Biological Abstracts, Current Contents etc.; b. Sorts and stores references.; c. Creates in-text citations in Word documents.; d. Creates formatted bibliographies.; e. All of the above
Gap 3 offers: a. By typing in your references.; b. By downloading references from an online database or website.; c. By downloading your references from the library catalogue.; d. All of the above

Q: References

The article written by Tomoko Ichinose-Kuwahara et al. lists 18 references. The authors may have used a program such as EndNote to assist with referencing.

(i) What is the complete web address for the La Trobe University page containing EndNote user guides, tutorials and help? [...].

(ii) According to the “Getting started” tab in the EndNote tutorial linked to on the page described above in (i), EndNote is useful because it:
[...].

(iii) There are numerous methods for adding references to your EndNote library, including:
[...]
A: http://www.lib.latrobe.edu.au/help/endnote-help.php; e. All of the above; d. All of the above
Gap 2 offers: a. Imports references from library databases and catalogues, e.g. Medline, Biological Abstracts, Current Contents etc.; b. Sorts and stores references.; c. Creates in-text citations in Word documents.; d. Creates formatted bibliographies.; e. All of the above
Gap 3 offers: a. By typing in your references.; b By downloading references from an online database or website.; c. By downloading your references from the library catalogue.; d. All of the above

Q: Scientific American Mind would be considered a credible source for certain university assignments?
- False
- True
A: True

Q: Scientific American Mind is a scholarly journal.
- False
- True
A: False

Q: Background Information: Go to Google scholar and enter the article title "Trained Men Display Increased Basal Heat Shock Protein Content of Skeletal Muscle".

You cannot access a full text copy of this article via Google scholar.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: PubMed has links to full-text content.
- False
- True
A: True

Q: Who is the Editor in Chief of the 2010 September/ October issue of Scientific American Mind?
A: Mariette DiChristina

Q: What is Step 2 of the scientific method?
A: Form a hypothesis

Q: The abstract should refer to figures and tables that are in the main text of the paper.
- False
- True
A: False

Q: References to the literature should be cited in the abstract.
- False
- True
A: False

Q: How many individuals comprise the Board of Advisors?
A: twelve / 12

Q: What is the name of the Board Advisor who is an Associate Professor of Psychology, from the University of Arizona?
A: Hal Arkowitz

Q: Who did the authors thank?
A: andrew hulton*dave stokes*students / andrew hulton*students*dave stokes / dave stokes*students*andrew hulton / dave stokes*andrew hulton*students / students*andrew hulton*dave stokes / students*dave stokes*andrew hulton
Partly right: *students*dave stokes* (67%); *andrew hulton*dave stokes* (67%); *andrew hulton*students* (67%); dave stokes*students* (67%); *dave stokes*andrew hulton* (67%); *students*andrew hulton* (67%); *students* (33%); *dave stokes* (33%); *andrew hulton* (33%)

Q: What was the conclusion of the study?
A: Styrofoam is the best insulator for keeping the hot chocolate hot the longest

Q: What is Step 5 of the scientific method?
A: *Conclusion*

Q: Use the comic to answer the following question. Researchers think that it is difficult to publish an article in a peer reviewed journal?
- False
- True
A: True

Q: Did the results of the study support or fail to support the hypothesis?
A: *fail*

Q: What was the question asked in the video?
A: Which of the 3 materials will keep drinks hot the longest / Which of the three materials will keep drinks hot the longest / Which of the 3 materials will keep drinks hot the longest? / Which of the three materials will keep drinks hot the longest?

Q: Name the two universities involved in this work.
A: Liverpool*John Moores* / John Moores*Liverpool*
Partly right: *Liverpool* (50%); *John Moores* (50%)

Q: What is Step 4 of the scientific method?
A: Analyse the results of the experiment

Q: What was the hypothesis in the video?
A: The paper will hold the heat in longer because it is a better insulating material

Q: What is Step 3 of the scientific method?
A: Design & conduct an experiment / Design and conduct an experiment

Q: By registering with ________ you will gain access to online modules covering career planning, job seeking, resume writing, and interview skills.
A: Career Hub / CareerHub

Q: When the only limit is review articles, how many are review articles?
- Between 10,000 and 15,000.
- Between 7,500 and 10,000.
- Between 5,000 and 7,500.
- Between 2,500 and 5,000.
- Between 0 and 2,500.
A: Between 2,500 and 5,000.

Q: What is the year of publication?
A: 2008

Q: From the following list, select the individuals that may be involved in the creation of an article in Scientific American Mind:
- Journalists.
- Engineers from diverse fields.
- Inventors.
- Leading scientists.
A: Journalists.; Engineers from diverse fields.; Inventors.; Leading scientists.

Q: What journal is the article published in (write it out in full)?
A: Medicine & Science in Sports & Exercise. / Medicine and Science in Sports and Exercise. / Medicine & Science in Sports & Exercise / Medicine and Science in Sports and Exercise

Q: What is the number of the first page?
A: 1255

Q: SCIENTIFIC METHOD

What would be an appropriate control group for an experiment testing the effectiveness of antioxidant treatment on dementia in elderly patients?
- Elderly patients with dementia receiving antioxidant treatment.
- Elderly patients without dementia receiving antioxidant treatment.
- Young patients receiving antioxidant treatment.
- Young healthy patients not receiving antioxidant treatment.
- Elderly dementia patients that don’t receive antioxidant treatment.
A: Elderly dementia patients that don’t receive antioxidant treatment.

Q: When the "title" is the only limit, how many articles are located when the key words are found only in the Title of the paper?
- Between 12,500 and 15,000.
- Between 10,000 and 12,500.
- Between 7,500 and 10,000.
- Between 5,000 and 7,500.
- Between 0 and 5,000.
A: Between 0 and 5,000.

Q: FINDING JOURNAL ARTICLES BY TOPIC

What are scholarly journals also known as?
A: Academic journals

Q: MEDLINE DATABASE

Using the medline database, download the pdf full text article with title: Trained Men Display Increased Basal Heat Shock Protein Content of Skeletal Muscle
Who is the first author (exactly as it appears in the article)?
A: JAMES P. MORTON

Q: Which of the following best describes the section that doesn't have a heading?
- Consists of a critical analysis of the current literature on the topic
- Consists of the aim and hypothesis of the study
- Consists of general background information on heat shock proteins
A: Consists of a critical analysis of the current literature on the topic

Q: If you JUST Google as a way of gathering information for your university assignments:
- you may miss out on accessing significant amounts of scholarly information.
- you will probably gain access to information that is not considered trustworthy.
- you may only get to search the “tip of the ice berg” on a particular topic.
- all of the above are correct.
A: all of the above are correct.

Q: A hypothesis is a prediction or an [...][...].
A: educated; guess
Partly right: gap 1 Answer that gives half the credit (50%); gap 2 Answer that gives half the credit (50%)

Q: Prefixes
- What is the prefix for one-millionth (10-6)? | micro
- What is the prefix for one billionth (10-9)? | nano
- What is the prefix for one trillionth (10-12)? | pico
- What is the prefix for one thousandth (10-3)? | milli

Q: There is a section on page 1255 that doesn’t have a heading.
What would be an appropriate heading for this section?
- Methodology
- Experimental Design
- Data analysis
- Introduction
A: Introduction

Q: In two words, state the target audience of Scientific American Mind.

[...][...].
A: general; public
Partly right: gap 1 Answer that gives half the credit (50%); gap 2 Answer that gives half the credit (50%)

Q: On the [...][...] web page you will find useful events and services that can assist you in planning your career such as lunchtime seminars, workshops, and information sessions.
A: events; calendar
Partly right: gap 1 Answer that gives half the credit (50%); gap 2 Answer that gives half the credit (50%)

Q: As a general rule, when completing university assignments, unless you are given specific instructions regarding the type of information to access, it is generally accepted that you should access:
- the library catalogue only.
- the library journal databases only.
- the library journal databases and the library catalogue only.
- the library journal databases, the library catalogue, google scholar, and google.
- google and the library catalogue only.
- google only.
A: the library journal databases, the library catalogue, google scholar, and google.

Q: Which of the following are true of scholarly journals?
- Includes magazines such as Time, Newsweek, and Cosmopolitan
- They are popular periodicals published by for profit publishing firms.
- They are periodicals widely available at book stores.
- They are periodicals written for a general audience.
- May include details of where the journal is indexed eg. MEDLINE.
- Information about how to format and submit papers is clearly stated.
- Rarely contain advertising.
- Use terminology and jargon specific to the field.
- Original articles always cite sources and contain a reference list.
- The articles contain graphs and tables.
- Generally published by a professional organisation.
- The main purpose is reporting of original research or experimentation.
- Contain articles written by and for scholars and researchers in the field.
A: May include details of where the journal is indexed eg. MEDLINE.; Information about how to format and submit papers is clearly stated.; Rarely contain advertising.; Use terminology and jargon specific to the field.; Original articles always cite sources and contain a reference list.; The articles contain graphs and tables.; Generally published by a professional organisation.; The main purpose is reporting of original research or experimentation.; Contain articles written by and for scholars and researchers in the field.

Q: The Student Career ________ Program links penultimate and final year students as well as recent graduates with qualified industry professionals, La Trobe University staff, and alumni for a career mentoring relationship.
A: Mentoring

Does the initial cutaneous vasoconstriction at the beginning of exercise serve any useful purpose?

Q: Currently enrolled students and recent graduates (within last six months) are eligible to book an individual ________________ with a Careers Consultant to speak to about career advice, resume or job applications, interview preparation and job seeking strategies.
A: consultation / appointment / meeting

Q: CAREER SERVICES

_________ provides you with a range of resources such as a comprehensive jobs database, and links to external careers and employment sites.
A: Career Hub / CareerHub

Q: The length of an abstract is commonly _____ words.
A: 250

Q: How many e journals does La Trobe University subscribe to that start with the letter M?
- Between 20,000 and 25,000.
- Between 15,000 and 20,000.
- Between 10,000 and 15,000.
- Between 5,000 and 10,000.
- Between 0 and 5,000.
A: Between 0 and 5,000.

Q: PEER REVIEWED JOURNAL ARTICLES

The following question relates to the peer review process for publication of a scientific journal article. Sort the following into the correct order.
- 6 | Other researchers, scholars, or research students locate and read the article which informs scholars of up-to-date research findings
- 5 | An accepted paper is published, then usually listed in appropriate databases
- 4 | The paper can be accepted, accepted subject to modifications, or rejected
- 3 | The expert critically reads the article
- 2 | The editor sends a copy to an expert or experts in the field to review
- 1 | A scientist/author writes an article and submits it to a journal

Q: How many articles are located when the only limit is when the key words are found only in the Title and Abstract?
- Between 8,000 and 10,000.
- Between 6,000 and 8,000.
- Between 4,000 and 6,000.
- Between 2,000 and 4,000.
- Between 0 and 2,000.
A: Between 6,000 and 8,000.

Q: At the top of the PubMed homepage enter the key words: exercise and skeletal muscle.

How many journal articles are listed?
- Over 50,000 Citations.
- Between 15,000 and 50,000.
- Between 1,500- 5,000.
- Between 0-1,000.
A: Between 15,000 and 50,000.

Q: You are asked to write a critique on the effects of Ecstasy (E) on the long term emotional health of an individual. Which of the following sources would generally be considered credible?
- Wikipedia site dedicated to Ecstasy (E).
- A website containing a personal account of a parent who has a child that takes Ecstasy regularly.
- New Idea Magazine.
- Google scholar.
- Scientific journal articles.
- La Trobe library databases.
- La Trobe library catalogue.
A: New Idea Magazine.; Google scholar.; Scientific journal articles.; La Trobe library databases.; La Trobe library catalogue.

What is the difference between "modulation" of a receptor protein and "up-regulation" or "down-regulation" of a receptor?

Q: When the only limit is "animal studies", how many are animal studies?
- Between 10,000 and 15,000.
- Between 7,500 and 10,000.
- Between 5,000 and 7,500.
- Between 2,500 and 5,000.
- Between 1 and 2,500.
A: Between 5,000 and 7,500.

Q: What is the volume?
A: 40

Q: Now click on “limits” to limit your search. The following 5 questions relate to the "limits" options using the key words "exercise and skeletal muscle".
How many articles are available as free full text?
- Between 16,000 and 20,000.
- Between 7,000 and 9,000.
- Between 2,000 and 7,000.
- Between 0 and 1,000.
- Between 10,000 and 15,000.
A: Between 2,000 and 7,000.

Q: Put the following components of an abstract in the correct order:
- 4 | state the principle conclusions
- 3 | summarise the results
- 2 | describe the methods employed
- 1 | state the principal objectives and scope of the investigation

Q: The most common fault with writing an abstract is the inclusion of [...][...].
A: extraneous; detail
Partly right: gap 1 Answer that gives half the credit (50%); gap 2 Answer that gives half the credit (50%)

Q: ANALYSIS OF A RESEARCH ARTICLE
- What is the heading of the section that would be considered to be a critical analysis of the results? | Discussion
- What is the heading of the section where the data that was generated is presented? | Results
- What is the heading of the section that covers the main points of the journal article? | Abstract
- What is the heading of the section where the conclusion is stated? | Discussion
- What is the heading of the section that is also called a bibliography, and contains the citations for all of the other works referred to (cited) by the author in their work? | References

From which cutaneous blood vessels is most heat lost and why?

How long does it take for core temperature to stabilize during maintained exercise?

Q: JOURNAL OF APPLIED PHYSIOLOGY ONLINE

What is the title of the journal article located in volume 85 on pages 154-159?
A: Effects of caffeine on blood pressure, heart rate, and forearm blood flow during dynamic leg exercise / Effects of caffeine on blood pressure, heart rate, and forearm blood flow during dynamic leg exercise.

Q: EJOURNALS

How many e journals starting with the letter B does La Trobe University subscribe to?
- Between 20,000 and 25,000.
- Between 15,000 and 20,000.
- Between 10,000 and 15,000.
- Between 5,000 and 10,000.
- Between 0 and 5,000.
A: Between 0 and 5,000.

Q: SCIENTIFIC AMERICAN MIND

Scientific American Mind is a peer reviewed journal.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: SCIENTIFIC METHOD

What is Step 1 of the scientific method?
A: Ask a question

Q: HOW TO WRITE AN ABSTRACT

An abstract should be viewed as a [...][...] of the [...].
A: miniature; version; paper
Partly right: gap 1 Answer that gives half the credit (34%); gap 2 Answer that gives half the credit (34%); gap 3 Answer that gives half the credit (32%)

Q: REFERENCING WITH APA STYLE

Access the library catalogue and type in the key words "exercise physiology" and then locate the book with call no 612.044M115.
Provide the reference using APA style in the space provided.
A: McArdle, W., Katch, F., & Katch, V. (2010). Exercise physiology: nutrition, energy, and human performance (7th ed.). Baltimore, MD:Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.

Q: GOOGLE SCHOLAR

Which of the following are you likely to find if you do a search on a particular topic using Google Scholar?
- Articles printed in popular newspapers.
- Articles from academic publishers and societies.
- Scholarly articles that you could also access via Google
- Honours thesis.
- Masters thesis.
- Peer reviewed journal articles.
- PhD thesis.
A: Articles from academic publishers and societies.; Honours thesis.; Masters thesis.; Peer reviewed journal articles.; PhD thesis.

What is a "binding site" on a protein?

What are membrane channels good for?

Q: CANT I JUST GOOGLE?

Which encyclopedia can be updated by anyone, and is therefore not a credible source for university assignments?
A: Wikipedia

Q: What was the hypothesis of the study?
A: Caffeine induced augmentations in blood pressure during dynamic exercise are associated with reductions in regional blood flow and increases in plasma ANG II concentrations / Caffeine-induced augmentations in blood pressure during dynamic exercise are associated with reductions in regional blood flow and increases in plasma ANG II concentrations / Caffeine-induced augmentations in blood pressure during dynamic exercise are associated with reductions in regional blood flow and increases in plasma ANG II concentrations. / caffeine-induced augmentations in blood pressure during dynamic exercise are associated with reductions in regional blood flow [i.e., forearm blood flow (FBF)] and increases in plasmaANG II concentrations. / caffeine-induced augmentations in blood pressure during dynamic exercise are associated with reductions in regional blood flow [i.e., forearm blood flow (FBF)] and increases in plasmaANG II concentrations / caffeine-induced augmentations in blood pressure during dynamic exercise are associated with reductions in regional blood flow [i.e., forearm blood flow (FBF)] and increases in plasma ANG II concentrations.

Q: PUBMED

What is PubMed comprised of?
A: More than 20 million citations for biomedical literature from MEDLINE life science journals and online books / more than 20 million citations for biomedical literature from MEDLINE, life science journals, and online books / PubMed comprises more than 20 million citations for biomedical literature from MEDLINE, life science journals, and online books

A drug called "naloxone" is a competitive antagonist for the opiate receptor. When might this drug be useful?

At high work rates, particularly under warm conditions, the skin may become vasoconstricted. Suggest why.

What happens to skin blood flow during maintained exercise? What causes this and what purpose does it serve?

What normally happens to core temperature during exercise?

Suggest why exercise may be more tiring when it is performed under warm conditions than under cool conditions, at the same work rate?

Which parts of the nervous system are most important in automatic (involuntary) temperature regulation during exercise?

If an antagonist binds to a receptor, why does it not also activate the receptor?

What is the difference between a hormone and a paracrine agent?

What makes the gates in a membrane channel swing?

What is allosteric modulation of a protein?

What's the difference between a membrane channel and a pump?

What is the difference between a ligand and a chemical messenger?

How is allosteric modulation of a protein different from covalent modulation?

Some receptors are linked to an intracellular enzyme called tyrosine kinase. What is their special role in life?

What does a G-protein do?

What's the difference between a hormone and a neurotransmitter?

Why do heroin addicts tend to increase the dose they take?

Under what physiological circumstances might receptors be up-regulated?

Does all cell to cell communication work through membrane channels? What if the chemical messenger is highly lipid soluble?

What sorts of channels are involved in synaptic transmission?

What is a receptor?

What is a G-protein? Why G?

What makes a membrane ion channel selective about the ions that can get through it?

During pregnancy and the luteal phase of the menstrual
cycle (after ovulation and before menstruation) there is a drop in the
thresholds for thirst and ADH release. Predict the changes in plasma
volume and concentration.

Give two reasons why the adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla can be regarded as two distinct glands located within the same organ.

If hormone levels are within the normal range, then a person will not show any signs or symptoms of an endocrine disease.
True or false? Why?

What is circadian rhythm? What is an example?

A person who has suffered a head injury in an accident is subsequently found to be excreting very large volumes of urine, and complains that he is constantly thirsty. What is the likely cause of these signs and symptoms?

What is the danger to health of lack of ADH?

Explain how regulation occurs by means of 'negative feedback'.

How does 'neuroendocrine' differ from 'endocrine'?

How does a hormone have very specific effects?

Hormone-secreting tumours frequently don't cause problems associated with the space occupied by the tumour tissue. What other problems might a hormone-secreting tumour present?

List five factors which are likely to influence results in a study of aspects of endocrine function.

How can a single hormone have a number of different effects?

Q: Maria is a 65 year old female who weighs 48 kg. She participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. She completed the 1st stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 125 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Maria’s predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Maria’s fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: Fair / 21.0; 21.0 / Fair

Q: Jim is a 40 year old man who weighs 100 kg. He participated in a sub-maximal treadmill test to predict maximal oxygen consumption. He completed the 1st stage of the Bruce protocol with a heart rate of 118 bpm. Regarding your answers to the questions below, please don’t write the units in your answer, and provide an answer with 1 decimal place.

1. What is Jim's predicted maximal oxygen consumption in ml/kg/min?

2. What is Jim's fitness rating category?

1. [...]
2. [...]
A: Very poor / 28.0; Very poor / 28.0

Q: Resting oxygen consumption for a 110 kg male is [...] L/min.
A: .385 / .38 / .39

Q: Provide a title for your article of no more than 20 words.

Q: Fat composed of glycerol and 3 fatty acids
A: triglyceride

Q: In an oxidation reduction reaction, the atom or molecule that donates electrons (2 words)
A: reducing agent

Q: The end product of glycolysis that enters the mitochondria for further oxidation (1 or 2 words)
A: pyruvic acid / pyruvate

Q: The addition of a phosphate group to a molecule
A: Phosphorylation

Q: A compound found in skeletal muscle and used to resynthesise ATP from ADP anaerobically
A: phosphocreatine

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 25 L/min

FEO2: .161

FECO2: .035

Temp: 21 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 5 minutes of this activity? (use whole numbers in your answer)

5. How many METS was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
A: 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 1.09 / 27 / 14.5; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27

Q: Your team performed open circuit spirometry in a physiology practical class at La Trobe Bundoora to determine oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during a given exercise bout. Phil, who weighs 75 kg volunteered to be the team subject. The same exercise class was being conducted at the same time by some students who had travelled to the Beechworth Campus. The barometric pressure and temperature were both lower at Beechworth than they were at Bundoora. You are to perform the necessary calculations to determine Phil’s oxygen uptake, fuel usage, and caloric expenditure during exercise with the intention that you will compare your data with that of the students who conducted the same experiment at Beechworth.

Your team data is shown below.

VE ATPS: 25 L/min

FEO2: .161

FECO2: .035

Temp: 21 degrees C

Pressure: 760 mmHg

Please don’t include units in your answers.

1. What was Phil’s absolute oxygen consumption L/min? (answer with 2 decimal places)

2. What was Phil’s relative oxygen consumption ml/kg/min? (answer with 1 decimal place)

3. What was the respiratory exchange ratio for this exercise bout? (answer with 2 decimal places)

4. How many kilocalories would Phil expend during 5 minutes of this activity? (use whole numbers in your answer)

5. How many mets was the intensity equivalent to? (answer with 1 decimal point)

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
4. [...]
5. [...]
A: 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 27 / 1.09; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 1.09 / 27; 4.1 / 0.72 / 14.5 / 27 / 1.09

Q: The gaining of an electron or hydrogen atom
A: reduction

Q: An enzyme that regulates the rate of a metabolic pathway and catalyses reactions early in the pathway (3 words)
A: rate limiting enzyme

1. This task is to be completed under exam conditions.
2. You will be provided with an original research paper at the beginning of your In-Class laboratory.
3. You will have 2 hours to write a title of no more than 20 words, an abstract of no more than 250 words and 3-5 key words for a paper provided to you.
4. An abstract should contain the objectives of the research, an outline of the methods, key results and general conclusions drawn from the work.
5. The following headings should be used: Objective, Method, Results, Conclusions, and Key Words.
6. You can access the MedlinePlus online medical dictionary (http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/mplusdictionary.html) if you need to find definitions of any unfamiliar terms used in your paper.
7. Any submissions received after 4pm will not be marked; ensure that your assignment is successfully submitted.

Provide a title for your article of no more than 20 words:

Provide an abstract for your paper of no more than 250 words.

Provide 3-5 key words for your article.

Q: Provide 3-5 keywords for your paper.

Q: In an oxidation reduction reaction, the atom or molecule that accepts electrons (2 words)
A: oxidising agent

Q: Mitochondrial process in which inorganic phosphate is coupled to ADP as energy is transferred along the electron transport chain in which oxygen is the final electron acceptor (2 words)
A: oxidative phosphorylation

Q: The removal of an amine group from an amino acid (2 words)
A: oxidative deamination

Q: Loss of electrons or hydrogen atoms from an atom or molecule
A: oxidation

Q: Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide; serves as an electron transporter in bioenergetics
A: NAD

Q: A series of chemical reactions catalysed by enzymes and are connected by their intermediates (2 words)
A: metabolic pathway

Q: The breakdown of triglycerides in adipose tissue to free fatty acids and glycerol for subsequent transport to tissues for metabolism
A: lipolysis

Q: The synthesis of fat
A: lipogenesis

Q: An enzyme responsible for the breakdown of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids
A: lipase

Q: The  end product of anaerobic glucose metabolism in the glycolytic pathway (2 words)
A: lactic acid

Q: The metabolic pathway in the mitochondria in which energy is transferred from carbohydrates, fats, and amino acids to NAD and FAD for subsequent production of ATP in the electron transport chain (2 words)
A: Krebs cycle

Q: An atom consisting of one proton and one electron
A: hydrogen

Q: A metabolic pathway in the cytoplasm of the cell that results in the degradation of glucose to lactate or pyruvate
A: glycolysis

Q: The breakdown of glycogen into glucose
A: glycogenolysis

Q: The formation of glycogen from glucose
A: glycogenesis

Q: A simple sugar that is used in bioenergetic pathways to produce ATP
A: glucose

Q: The making of new glucose in the liver from non-carbohydrate sources such as lactic acid, glycerol, and amino acids
A: gluconeogenesis

Q: Flavin adenine dinucleotide; serves as an electron transporter in bioenergetics
A: FAD

Q: Hydrocarbon chains that form chemical bonds with glycerol to produce a triglyceride molecule (2 words)
A: fatty acids

Q: The rate at which enzymes convert substrate into product (2 words)
A: enzyme activity

Q: A biological catalyst
A: enzyme

Q: A series of cytochromes in the inner membrane of the mitochondria that pick up electrons from NADH and FADH and pass them in a definite sequence and direction and are responsible for oxidative phosphorylation (3 words)
A: Electron transport chain

Q: The direct production of ATP in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle (2 or 3 words)
A: direct phosphorylation / substrate level phosphorylation

Q: An enzyme that catalyses the reversible conversion of ADP and phosphocreatine into ATP and creatine (2 words)
A: creatine kinase

Q: The cycle of lactate-to-glucose between the muscle and liver (2 words)
A: Cori cycle

Q: The breakdown of free fatty acids to acetyl-CoA  in the mitochondrial matrix (2 words)
A: Beta oxidation

Q: A term used to describe the metabolic pathway involving muscle stores of ATP and the use of phosphocreatine to rephosphorylate  ADP; this pathway is used at the onset of exercise and during short-term high-intensity work (2 words)
A: ATP-PC system

Q: An enzyme that catalyses the reaction where ATP is formed from  ADP + P_i within the electron transport chain of the mitochondria
A: ATPsynthase / ATP synthase

Q: An enzyme that breaks down ATP to ADP + P_i + energy
A: ATPase

Q: The high energy phosphate molecule synthesised and used by cells to release energy for cellular work
A: ATP / adenosine triphosphate

Q: A molecule that combines with inorganic phosphate to form ATP
A: ADP

Q: Without oxygen
A: anaerobic

Q: The building blocks of protein which can provide a source of energy to the cell
A: amino acid

Q: In the presence of oxygen
A: aerobic

Q: Molecule produced from the oxidation of pyruvic acid and is the initial substrate of the Krebs cycle
A: Acetyl-CoA / AcetylCoA / Acetyl CoA

Q: The term to describe elevated metabolism above resting conditions for several minutes during recovery from exercise (5 words or an acronym).
A: EPOC / Excess post exercise oxygen consumption

Q: The greatest rate of oxygen uptake by the body measured during severe dynamic exercise; dependent on maximal cardiac output and the maximal arteriovenous oxygen difference.
A: Maximal oxygen consumption / VO2max / VO2 max

Q: The ratio of carbon dioxide production to oxygen consumption; indicative of substrate use during steady state exercise in which a value of 1 represents 100% carbohydrate metabolism and 0.7 represents 100% fat metabolism (3 words).
A: Respiratory exchange ratio

Q: The enzyme that catalyses the production of glucose-6-phosphate from glycogen.
A: Phosphorylase

Q: The lag in oxygen uptake at the beginning of steady state exercise; the difference between oxygen uptake in the first few minutes of exercise and an equal time period after steady state has been reached (2 words).
A: Oxygen deficit

Q: A neurotransmitter and hormone released from postganglionic nerve endings and the adrenal medulla, respectively; similar to epinephrine; some of it's functions are to cause an increase in heart rate and vasoconstriction.
A: Norepinephrine

Q: An expression of the rate of energy expenditure at rest; equal to approximately 3.5 mL/kg/min.
A: MET

Q: The sudden rise in blood lactic acid concentration during incremental exercise (2 words).
A: Lactate threshold

Q: A hormone released from the islets of Langerhans in response to elevated blood glucose and amino acids; inhibited by epinephrine.
A: Insulin

Q: An exercise test involving a progressive increase in work rate over time (3 words)
A: Incremental exercise test

Q: A hormone synthesised and released by the adrenal medulla; some of it’s functions are to enhance lipolysis and glycogenolysis, increase heart rate, and inhibit insulin release.
A: epinephrine

Q: The shift from fat to carbohydrate metabolism as exercise intensity increases (2 words).
A: crossover concept

Q: A calcium binding protein that is part of the second messenger system involving calcium that results in the activity of intracellular enzymes.
A: Calmodulin

Q: Muscle fibres that have a relatively small number of mitochondria, a limited capacity for aerobic metabolism, and are less resistant to fatigue than slow fibres (3 words).
A: Type IIx fibre

Q: Fast oxidative-glycolytic muscle fibres containing moderate amounts of mitochondria (3 words).
A: Type IIa fibre

Q: Muscle fibres that contain large numbers of oxidative enzymes and are highly fatigue resistant (3 words).
A: Type I fibre / Type 1 fibre

Q: The cytoplasm of a muscle cell.
A: Sarcoplasm

Q: The cell membrane of a muscle cell / fibre.
A: Sarcolemma

Q: Thick filament of a myofibril that contains the cross bridge that can bind actin and split ATP to cause tension development.
A: Myosin

Q: The portion of the muscle cell containing the thick and thin contractile filaments; a series of sarcomeres where the repeating pattern of the contractile proteins gives the striated appearance to skeletal muscle.
A: Myofibril

Q: Protein in muscle that can bind oxygen and release it at low PO2 values; aids in diffusion of oxygen from capillary to mitochondria.
A: Myoglobin

Q: The enzyme that catalyses the conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid (2 words or acronym).
A: Lactate dehydrogenase / LDH

Q: A structural protein of muscle that binds with myosin to permit muscular contraction.
A: Actin

Q: A form of conductive heat loss in which heat is transmitted to either air or water molecules in contact with the body.
A: Convection

Q: Transfer of heat from the body to cooler objects in contact with it’s surface.
A: Conduction

Q: Heat loss in the form of infrared rays with no physical contact between objects.
A: Radiation

Q: Skin temperature; may be 20°C lower than core body temperature (2 words).
A: Shell temperature

Q: The average relatively constant temperature of 37°C ± 0.5°C of the brain and organs within the abdominal and thoracic cavities (2 words).
A: Core temperature

Q: The change of water (sweat) from a liquid form to a vapour form, resulting in the loss of heat from the body.
A: Evaporation
Feedback ("Evaporation"): The change of water from a liquid form to a vapour form, resulting in the loss of heat.

Q: The breakpoint at which pulmonary ventilation increases exponentially during an incremental exercise test (2 words).
A: Ventilatory threshold

Q: The decrease in stroke volume and increase in heart rate observed during prolonged exercise (2 words).
A: Cardiovascular drift

Q: The product of heart rate and systolic blood pressure; estimate of work of the heart (2 words).
A: Double product

Q: This theory states that the initial cardiovascular changes at the beginning of dynamic exercise are due to motor signals developed within the brain (3 words).
A: Central command theory

Q: Did your team establish clear goals?
- Yes
- No
- Somewhat
A: Yes / No / Somewhat

Q: Did your team establish and maintain processes that allowed the team goals to be achieved?
- Yes
- No
- Somewhat
A: Yes / No / Somewhat

Q: Was there any behaviour from team members that was unacceptable?
- Yes
- No
A: Yes / No

If you answered yes to the question above, what was the unacceptable behaviour, and were you able to successfully address this within the team?

What worked well in your team?

What changes are required to ensure your team is more effective in the future?

What is your team number? Make sure you include the letter (either A, B, or C) and then the number.

List the full name of all team members that participated in the review of the team process for this enquiry.

You need to view the lectopia recording of the Careers Seminar presented by Carly Scott. On at least a couple of occasions during the seminar, Carly asked students to write answers to questions that were on the slide. You need to write down all of these questions, and your answers, and then submit the quiz.

This 46 year old woman presented with a two day history of severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting. There was no history of gastrointestinal bleeding. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease. Other PMHx: Renal Calculi, Cellulitis,

On physical examination she was found to have a HR of 76bpm, BP 110/70mmHg. She was afebrile, had a tender epigastrium without guarding and normal bowel sounds.

CXR and AXR were unremarkable. WCC was 5.6 with a neutrophil count of 2.91 and the remaining FBC was normal. Serum biochemistry was normal. Amylase was marginally elevated.

Gastroscopy with biopsy to duodenum under IV sedation was performed which revealed gastritis of the fundus and body of the stomach. The duodenum was normal. Histology findings were NAD. Urease test was negative for H. Pylori.

She was managed with IV and then oral H2 antagonists. Her pain gradually settled and she was discharged to be reviewed in the GI OP clinic in one week.

This 36 year old man presented with a two day history of severe epigastric pain, nausea and haematemesis. There was a history of gastrointestinal bleeding related to past large alcohol intake.

PMHx:  Hypertension, Alcoholic liver disease, Vitamin B deficiency, Malnutrition.

On physical examination he was found to have a HR of 126bpm, BP 95/50mmHg. He was pyrexic, had a rigid abdomen with guarding and absent bowel sounds.

CXR was unremarkable and AXR revealed fluid levels in the small intestine suggestive of a SBO. WCC was 25.6. Other blood tests revealed abnormal LFT’s and raised amylase.

Gastroscopy with biopsy to duodenum under IV sedation was performed which revealed chronic gastric ulceration  of the fundus and body of the stomach. The duodenum was normal.

He was managed with IV fluids and then oral H2 antagonists.  His pain had settled by day 2, he was seen by the dietician and discharged home for follow up as an outpatient.

26 year old lady admitted for investigation of fevers and abdominal pain. She reported a two to three day history of nausea, vomiting  and reduced oral intake. She had macroscopic haematuria and positive result on FWT for leukocytes and ketones and reduced urine output. She was found to have and an E.Coli UTI and Chlamydia.

PMHx: Cystitis

Investigations:

Hb 111, WCC 18.4, Plt 349,

Urea 15.0, K 5.0, Na 140,

MSU E.Coli sensitive to ceftriaxone.

A renal ultrasound showed no evidence of obstruction. She improved quickly with AB therapy and rehydration. During the admission, the patient was seen by the women’s health nurse. She was discharged home on day 5 on a course of cephalexin.

61 year old man admitted for investigation of abdominal pain and retention of urine. He reported a two week history of having increasing difficulty passing urine and had noticed an increasing nocturia and poor stream of urine. No dysuria or haematuria.

He was found to have prostatomegaly and an E.Coli UTI.

PMHx hypertension and T2D controlled by diet.

Investigations:

Hb 111, WCC 18.4, Plt 349,

Urea 23.0, K 5.0, Na 140,

MSU E.Coli sensitive to ceftriaxone.

A renal ultrasound showed no evidence of obstruction. He improved quickly with antibiotic therapy and rehydration. During the admission, the patient was seen by the continence nurse and advised how to improve his bladder control and function. and discharged home on day 5 on oral AB’s.

26 year old lady admitted for investigation of fevers and abdominal pain. She reported a two to three day history of nausea, vomiting  and poor oral intake. She had macroscopic haematuria and positive result on FWT for leukocytes and ketones and reduced urine output. She was found to have and an E.Coli UTI.

PMHx: cystitis and coeliac disease. Smokes a pack a day.

Investigations:

Hb 111, WCC 18.4, Plt 349,

Urea 15.0, K 5.0, Na 140,

MSU E.Coli sensitive to ceftriaxone.

A renal ultrasound showed no evidence of obstruction. She improved quickly with AB therapy and rehydration. During the admission, the patient was seen by the women’s health nurse. She was discharged home on day 5 on a course of cephalexin.

61 year old man admitted for investigation of fevers and abdominal pain. He reported a two to three day history of nausea, vomiting and poor oral intake. No dysuria, haematuria or change in urine output. He was found to have a creatinine of ~650 on admission and an E.Coli UTI. PMHx hypertension and IgA nephropathy and T2D controlled by diet.  eGFR on admission 40.  Smokes a pack a day.

Investigations:

Hb 111, WCC 18.4, Plt 349,

Urea 43.0, K 5.0, Na 140,

eGFR (on discharge) 45,

MSU E.Coli sensitive to ceftriaxone.

A renal ultrasound showed no evidence of obstruction. He improved quickly with antibiotic therapy and rehydration. During the admission, the patient was seen by the diabetes educator as he had not been monitoring his blood sugar levels appropriately. Creatinine fell to 530 and he was discharged home on day 5 on a course of cephalexin.

Q: This 46 year old woman presented with a two day history of severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting. There was no history of gastrointestinal bleeding. She has a history of peptic ulcer disease. Other PMHx: Renal Calculi, Cellulitis,

On physical examination she was found to have a HR of 76bpm, BP 110/70mmHg. She was afebrile, had a tender epigastrium without guarding and normal bowel sounds.

CXR and AXR were unremarkable. WCC was 5.6 with a neutrophil count of 2.91 and the remaining FBC was normal. Serum biochemistry was normal. Amylase was marginally elevated.

Gastroscopy with biopsy to duodenum under IV sedation was performed which revealed gastritis of the fundus and body of the stomach. The duodenum was normal. Histology findings were NAD. Urease test was negative for H. Pylori.

She was managed with IV and then oral H2 antagonists. Her pain gradually settled and she was discharged to be reviewed in the GI OP clinic in one week.

Please select true once you have read the Case Study.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Extensor carpi radialis longus and extensor carpi radialis brevis both extend the wrist.  What additional movement could you resist to activate extensor carpi radialis longus more than brevis?
- elbow extension
- elbow flexion
- extension of the 2nd metacarpal
- extension of the 3rd metacarpal
A: extension of the 2nd metacarpal

Q: Trigeminal Neuralgia often affects the pharynx causing a sore throat.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Trigeminal Neuralgia is usually mild
- true
- false
A: false

Q: In autosomal recessive disorders (eg. cystic fibrosis) when both parents are unaffected heterozygous carriers, the chance of  a child being an affected homozygous child is
- 1:3
- 1:4
- 1:2
- about 1:25
A: 1:4

Q: A feature of congestive cardiac failure is low jugulo-venous pressure (JVP).
- true
- false
A: false

Q: A feature of congestive cardiac failure is crackles (crepitations) in the chest.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: A receptor agonist is one where the drug binds to the receptor but does not elicit a response.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: One of the main reasons ester type agents have been replaced by amino-amide type agents is to reduce the risk of allergy.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Methylparaben is a possible culprit in allergic reactions associated with local anaesthetics.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: An ECG can help diagnose acute myocardial infarction.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: An ECG can help diagnose pericarditis.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: An ECG can help diagnose pneumonia.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Competitive irreversible antagonists make target receptors permanently unavailable.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Beta lactamase is an enzyme that can inactivate some antiobiotics
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Clavulanic acid is a potent antibiotic used in resistant infections
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Protein synthesis inhibitors tend to be bactericidal
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Metronidazole is only excreted in urine.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Antidepressant side effects can include dry mouth
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Antidepressant side effects can include teeth grinding
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Antidepressant side effects can include tremor
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Obsessive-compulsive disorder is classified as an anxiety disorder
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Body dysmorphic disorder is classified as an anxiety disorder
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Borderline personality disorder is classified as an anxiety disorder
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Anaethetised patients are at risk of aspiration pneumonia
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Swimmers are at risk of aspiration pneumonia
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Alcoholics are at risk of aspiration pneumonia
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Children are at risk of aspiration pneumonia
- true
- false
A: false

Q: The binding of drugs to proteins is irreversible.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: The cause of a blackout (period of unsciousness) may be neurological
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The cause of a blackout (period of unsciousness) may be be cardiac
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The cause of a blackout (period of unsciousness) may be pharmaceutical
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The cause of a blackout (period of unsciousness) may be endocrinological
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Cancer cells when compared to normal cells stay inthe tissue plane they originate from.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Cancer cells when compared to normal cells are robust against chemical or immunological attack
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Cancer cells when compared to normal cells are usually smaller
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Cancer cells when compared to normal cells often have DNA mutations
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Chest pain due to ischaemic heart disease (angina pectoris) classically has the features of being heavy.             
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Chest pain due to ischaemic heart disease (angina pectoris) classically has the features of being in the centre of the chest
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Chest pain due to ischaemic heart disease (angina pectoris) classically has the features of being a pain that may radiate to the left arm or jaw
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Elevated blood pressure (hypertension) can be treated with beta-blockers.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Elevated blood pressure (hypertension) can be treated with delta-blockers.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Elevated blood pressure (hypertension) can be treated with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Drugs may be excreted via expired air
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Drugs may be excreted in the saliva
- true
- false
A: true

Q: G6PD deficiency can be precipitated by anti-malaria and sulphur-based drugs.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: G6PD deficiency is common in Nordic (Scandanavian) populations.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: G6PD deficiency when inherited as an X-linked conditions females are more affected than males
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Staphylococcus aureus or ‘golden staph’ is called that because it is yellowy gold colour on an agar plate.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Staphylococcus aureus or ‘golden staph’ is called that because it makes microbiologists very rich
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Staphylococcus aureus or ‘golden staph’ is called that because it requires elemental gold to grow
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Half life may be defined as the time it takes for the drug concentration to be reduced to zero
- false
- true
A: false

Q: The half life of a drug has an impact on the dosage.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Symptoms of head and neck cancer often include hoarse voice
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Symptoms of head and neck cancer often include difficulty swallowing
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Symptoms of head and neck cancer often include dentures fitting poorly
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Symptoms of head and neck cancer often include headache
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Influenza A occurs only in adults
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Influenza A can be prevented by a vaccine
- true
- false
A: true

Q: In G6PD deficiency unstable haemoglobin precipitates and the resulting abnormal cells are consumed by the spleen.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: When kidney failure occurs, fluid may be retained in the body. This may be alleviated by taking salt (sodium chloride) tablets.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: When kidney failure occurs, fluid may be retained in the body. This may be alleviated by taking diuretics.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: When kidney failure occurs, fluid may be retained in the body. This may be alleviated by drinking less fluid.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: When kidney failure occurs, fluid may be retained in the body. This may be alleviated by haemodialysis.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Local anaesthetics block nerve fibres in the following order:
1. Large myelinated fibres
2. Non-myelinated fibres
3. Small myelinated fibres
- true
- false
A: false

Q: A dissociation reaction is favoured when local anaethestics are injected into an acidic environment.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Lipid solubility of local anaesthetic is important as it enables the molecules to enter the axons.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The following is a lobe of the brain - frontal
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The following is a lobe of the brain - cervical
- true
- false
A: false

Q: The following is a lobe of the brain - occipital
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The following is a lobe of the brain - olefactory.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Hormonal factors can affect drug metabolism
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Disease status can affect drug metabolism.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Most drugs are metabolised in the kidneys
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Drugs may be metabolised in the intestinal mucosa
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Migraine sufferers often know when a migraine is about to start.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Migraine sufferers may recognise certain triggers for an attack
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Migraine sufferers like bright lghts because their vision is impaired during an attack.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Migraine sufferers are more at risk of a stroke
- true
- false
A: true

Q: 2-acetoxybenzoic acid is more commonly known as paracetamol.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: "Aspirin" is a generic name.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Pharmacology is the study and science of drug dose forms.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: If the pH and pKa are closer together, the absorption of local anaesthetic solution is increased and onset is more rapid.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: A common features of pneumonia is cough
- true
- false
A: true

Q: A common features of pneumonia is fever
- true
- false
A: true

Q: A common features of pneumonia is consolidation on chest X-ray
- true
- false
A: true

Q: A common features of pneumonia is raised white cell in peripheral blood
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Pre-renal failure may be caused by glomerulonephritis
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Pre-renal failure may be caused by cardiac arrest
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Pre-renal failure may be caused by prostate cancer obstructing the urethra.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Pre-renal failure may be caused by acute blood loss
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Poor prognostic factors for cancers include large size of the primary cancer
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Poor prognostic factors for cancers include the involvement of lymph nodes.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Poor prognostic factors for cancers include the size of the individual cancer cells
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Poor prognostic factors for cancers include presence of pleural effusion
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Proteinuria, the excess loss of protein in urine, frequently occurs in urinary tract infection.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Proteinuria, the excess loss of protein in urine, frequently occurs in glomerulonephritis.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Proteinuria, the excess loss of protein in urine, frequently occurs in influenza.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Proteinuria, the excess loss of protein in urine, frequently occurs in the use of anti-hypertenisve medication (eg ACE inhibitors).
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Regarding red blood cells in the urine (haematuria), haematuria is the major feature of nephrotic syndrome
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Regarding red blood cells in the urine (haematuria), haematuria only results from the presence of kidney stones.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Regarding red blood cells in the urine (haematuria), glomerular RBCs are often dysmorphic (misshapen).
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Regarding red blood cells in the urine (haematuria), haematuria by definition makes the urine look red .
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Renal (kidney) failure commonly leads to uraemia.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Renal (kidney) failure commonly leads to hypertension.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Renal failure commonly leads to kidney stones.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Renal failure commonly leads to anaemia.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Diabetes Mellitus is an established risk factor for coronary artery (ischaemic heart) disease.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Crohn's disease is an established risk factor for coronary artery (ischaemic heart) disease.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Smoking is an established risk factor for coronary artery (ischaemic heart) disease.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Squamous cell cancer of the head and neck has been linked to smoking
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Squamous cell cancer of the head and neck has been linked to radiation exposure.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Squamous cell cancer of the head and neck has been linked to alcohol
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Squamous cell cancer of the head and neck has been linked to Epstein Barr Virus
- true
- false
A: true

Q: A seizure or a fit always results in a loss of consciousness
- true
- false
A: false

Q: A seizure or fit is called partial if consciousness is maintained
- false
- true
A: false

Q: A seizure or fit commonly first presents in middle age
- true
- false
A: false

Q: A seizure or fit means a lifetime ban on driving a car
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Some lesions of cardiac structures are considered ‘high risk’ and may require prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures.  These include atrial septal defects.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Some lesions of cardiac structures are considered ‘high risk’ and may require prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures.  These include mitral valve prolapse.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Some lesions of cardiac structures are considered ‘high risk’ and may require prophylactic antibiotics before dental procedures.  These include cyanotic congenital heart disease.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: To help diagnose pneumonia throat swabs are frequently used
- true
- false
A: false

Q: To help diagnose pneumonia blood for culture specimens are frequently used
- true
- false
A: true

Q: To help diagnose pneumonia blood for serology specimens are frequently used
- true
- false
A: true

Q: An ischaemic stroke can be caused by a clot originating in the heart
- true
- false
A: true

Q: An ischaemic stroke can result from high blood pressure
- true
- false
A: true

Q: An ischaemic stroke is more common in diabetics
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Ischaemic strokes are less common than haemorrhagic strokes.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Thalassemia is a genetic haemoglobinopathy.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Thalassemia is always severe.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Thalassemia results in prolonged clotting time.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Thalassemia usually results in anaemia.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The blockage of a coronary artery causing a heart attack (acute myocardial infarction) may comprise of foam cells.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The blockage of a coronary artery causing a heart attack (acute myocardial infarction) may comprise of blood clot.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: The blockage of a coronary artery causing a heart attack (acute myocardial infarction) may comprise of astrocytes.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Treatment of congestive cardiac failure can often include diuretics
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Treatment of congestive cardiac failure can often include treatment of underlying arrythmia (if present).
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Treatment of congestive cardiac failure can often include angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Trigeminal neuralgia is a cause of facial pain.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Trigeminal Neuralgia involves the trigeminal nerve which is the fifth (Vth) cranial nerve.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Typhoid can be prevented by a commercial vaccine.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Staphylococcus aureus can be prevented by a commercial vaccine.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: HIV can be prevented by a commercial vaccine.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Warfarin in reversed by giving vitamin K.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Warfarin in the clotting cascade, interferes with factors II, VII and X
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Warfarin is monitored by measuring drug levels.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Warfarin is monitored by measuring the INR (international normalised ratio)
- true
- false
A: true

Q: Which of these is the name given to the aspect of an experimental study that is knowingly manipulated by the researcher(s)?
- Confounding Variable
- Independent Variable
- Ridiculous Variable
A: Independent Variable

Q: Which of these is the name given to an aspect of an experimental study that is influencing the result but is not part of the researcher’s original design?
- Confounding Variable
- Independent Variable
- Ridiculous Variable
A: Confounding Variable

Q: I find this online learning system offers increased flexibility in this unit / course.
- Strongly Agree
- Somewhat Agree
- Neither Agree or Disagree
- Somewhat Disagree
- Strongly Disagree
- Not Applicable
A: Strongly Agree

- low motivation
- low effort
- complex demanding tasks
- low rate of information input
A: complex demanding tasks

Briefly define how the Job Strain / Demand -Control (support) model can be used to demonstrate the impact of job demands on health (well-being)

Briefly describe 3 of the 5 Core Job Characteristics as defined in the Job Characteristics Model

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Components of the axial skeleton include:
- the clavicle
- the femur
- the sternum
- the patella
- the hip bone
A: the sternum

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Cancellous (= spongy) bone:
- is the major constituent of the shaft of long bones.
- contains osteons.
- has specialized channels to allow blood vessels to enter the bone.
- does not have haversian canals.
- forms the outer shell of most bones.
A: does not have haversian canals.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

In the skeletal system, girdles:
- articulate by ball and socket joints with the proximal bone of their respective limbs.
- are part of the axial skeleton.
- each consist of two bones fused together.
- are comprised of long bones.
- have no muscle attachments.
A: articulate by ball and socket joints with the proximal bone of their respective limbs.

Q: Amaud Company calculates that this year's estimated bad debts expense will be $7500. When Amaud makes the adjusting entry the effect will be:

Bad Debt Expense/Allowance for Doubtful Debts/Gross Accounts Receivable
- No affect / Increase / Decrease
- No affect/ Decrease / No affect
- Increase / Increase / No affect
- Increase / No effect / Decrease
A: Increase / Increase / No affect

Q: Bills of exchange and associated interest are subject to GST.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The statement concerning the Allowance for Doubtful Debts account that is not true is:
- Allowance for Doubtful Debts is used to adjust receivables for estimated bad debts because individual debtors balances cannot be removed from the ledger unless there is indisputable evidence they are bad
- Allowance for Doubtful Debts is a contra-asset account designed to reduce receivables to estimated realisable value
- Allowance for Doubtful Debts represents cash set aside to cover losses incurred as a consequence of customers being declared bankrupt
- None of the above, i.e. all of the statements are true.
A: Allowance for Doubtful Debts represents cash set aside to cover losses incurred as a consequence of customers being declared bankrupt

Q: Cheung Ltd has an account receivable for $12000 from R. Morris that is overdue. Morris requests a 60-day extension of the payment date and Cheung Ltd agrees by accepting a fixed 60-day, 12% promissory note in exchange for the accounts receivable. Cheung Ltd makes which entry to record the collection of the promissory note from R. Morris including interest?
- Debit Cash $12236,71, debit Unearned Interest $236.71; credit Bills Receivable $12236.71, credit Interest Revenue $236.71
- Debit Cash $12236.71; credit Accounts Receivable $12236.71
- Debit Cash $12236.71; credit Bills Receivable $12236.71
- Debit Cash $12236,71; credit Bills Receivable $12000, credit Interest Revenue $236.71
A: Debit Cash $12236,71, debit Unearned Interest $236.71; credit Bills Receivable $12236.71, credit Interest Revenue $236.71

Q: Computerised accounting systems can provide timely information to management by providing a regular, aged analysis of debtors.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: GST on a debt that has become bad can be claimed as a write back to GST collections and is not included in the estimate of allowance for doubtful debts.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: It is true that:
- A credit report from a credit rating agency is an important method of checking on customer credit history
- If the firm is too generous in extending credit bad debts will occur
- If credit policies are too strict valuable customers may be lost
- All of the above are true
A: All of the above are true

Q: Jolly Roger's Seafood Restaurant had bank issued credit card sales of $3,300 including GST. The entry to record the sales is:
- DR Cash 3300 CR GST Collections 300 CR Sales Revenue 3000
- DR Accounts Receivable 3300 CR Sales Revenue 3300
- DR Accounts Receivable 3000 CR GST Collections 300 CR Sales Revenue 3000
- DR Cash 3000 CR Sales Revenue 3000
A: DR Cash 3300 CR GST Collections 300 CR Sales Revenue 3000

Q: On 31 December 2009 Sicuro Enterprises decided that it needed to finally write off as a bad debt a receivable of $4400 (including $400 GST) from Simone Pty Ltd (in liquidation). If Sicuro uses the allowance method the entry to achieve the write off is:
- Debit Allowance for Doubtful Debts $4000, debit GST Collections $400; credit Accounts Receivable $4400
- Debit Bad Debts Expense $4400; credit Accounts Receivable $4400
- Debit Bad Debts Expense $4400; credit GST Collections $400; credit Accounts Receivable $4000
- Debit Allowance for Doubtful Debts $4000; credit Bad Debts Expense $4000
A: Debit Allowance for Doubtful Debts $4000, debit GST Collections $400; credit Accounts Receivable $4400

Q: Poor credit management results in a rise in the number of Accounts Receivable exceeding the normal credit period.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Receivables are valued at net realisable value, i.e. gross receivables plus anticipated future bad debts.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Simpson Ltd recorded sales of $180000 during the year (net of GST). Of these, $80000 were on credit. Bad debts have averaged one half of one percent of credit sales. The entry to estimate bad debt expense for the year is:
- DR Bad Debts Expense 400 CR Allowance for Doubtful Debts 400
- DR Bad Debts Expense 900 CR Allowance for Doubtful Debts 900
- DR Bad Debts Expense 400 CR Accounts Receivable 400
- DR Bad Debts Expense 900 CR Accounts Receivable 900
A: DR Bad Debts Expense 400 CR Allowance for Doubtful Debts 400

Q: The Allowance for Doubtful Debts account has a balance at the start of the year of $1000. At the end of the year debts of $990, including $90 GST, are to be written off and the Allowance for Doubtful Debts is to be adjusted to 10% of the closing Accounts Receivable balance of $22000 (including $2000 GST). The amount for Bad and Doubtful Debts appearing in the Income statement for the year will be:
- $2000
- $1900
- $2100
- $2200
A: $1900

Q: The bills receivable account in the general ledger can be a control account supported by a subsidiary ledger containing details of the actual bills held.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The direct write-off method is the most theoretically sound method of recording bad debts expense.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The income statement approach to estimating bad debts expense is based on an analysis of Accounts Receivable.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: These are the balances for Johnson Co at 12 December:

Accounts receivable | $23 452 |
Allowance for Doubtful Debts | 1 252 | $22 200

If an account for $300 is written off on 15 December what is the estimated realisable value of Accounts Receivable after the write-off? (Ignore any GST adjustment for the purposes of this question).
- $20452
- $25200
- $22200
- $19200
A: $22200

Q: The selling off of accounts receivable as a means of quickly raising cash, minimising debt collecting expenses and minimising bad debt losses is known as:
- Establishing a bill receivable
- Debt factoring
- Ageing of debtors
- Discounting
A: Debt factoring

Q: The statement concerning the receivables turnover ratio that is not true is:
- It is a measure of how many times the average receivables balance is converted into cash in a year
- It is calculated as net credit sales divided by average receivables
- A change in the ratio from 2.8 times to 3.1 times is an unfavourable change
- If the receivables turnover ratio is divided into 365 this gives the average number of days it takes to collect receivables
A: A change in the ratio from 2.8 times to 3.1 times is an unfavourable change

Q: The statement concerning the accounting treatment of credit card sales that is true is:
- The treatment of bank issued credit card sales is the same as the treatment of non-bank issued credit card sales
- A 'merchant fee' is calculated and paid to the card issuer individually for each transaction that occurs
- The business does not retain a copy of the transaction slip
- A bank issued credit card sale is treated like a cash sale and a non-bank issued credit sale is treated like a credit sale
A: A bank issued credit card sale is treated like a cash sale and a non-bank issued credit sale is treated like a credit sale

Q: The statement concerning discounting bills receivable that is incorrect is:
- Before it matures a bills receivable may be sold to a bank in exchange for cash
- In calculating the amount of discount on sale of the bill the discount rate is applied to its maturity value for the period it is held by the discounter
- One of the disadvantages of a bill of exchange is the relative difficulty with which it can be converted into cash
- None of the above, i.e. all of the statements are correct
A: One of the disadvantages of a bill of exchange is the relative difficulty with which it can be converted into cash

Q: The statement that is incorrect is:
- If a debtor fails to pay the receivable on its due date this means that the debt is bad
- An outstanding debt may be turned over to a collection agency
- Bad debts should be deducted as an expense in the same accounting period in which the credit sale is recognised
- Bad debts is a cost of selling on credit
A: If a debtor fails to pay the receivable on its due date this means that the debt is bad

Q: The statement that is not true in relation to bad debts recovered is:
- The entry made following reinstatement of the account receivable to record the recovery is debit Bad Debts recovered and credit Accounts Receivable
- The accounts receivable should be re-established to maintain a complete history of the customer's activity and restore their credit rating
- The entry to reinstate the accounts receivable is debit Accounts Receivable, debit GST Collections and credit Bad Debts Recovered
- The recovery is recorded by reversing the entry originally made to write off the receivable
A: The entry made following reinstatement of the account receivable to record the recovery is debit Bad Debts recovered and credit Accounts Receivable

Q: The text classifies accounts receivables into several broad types. Those types are:
- Accounts receivable, bills receivable, other receivables
- Debtors, accounts receivables, promissory notes
- Trade debtors, other debtors, sundry debtors
- None of the above
A: Accounts receivable, bills receivable, other receivables

Q: To satisfy the matching principle estimated bad debts should be included as an expense in the period when the sale is recognised as income.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Under Australian Income Tax legislation a tax deduction is only allowed when debts are actually written off as uncollectable.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Under the allowance method of accounting for bad and doubtful debts two distinct accounting entries occur, one to estimate the bad debts and a later one to write off the bad debts when it is clear there is no possibility of collection.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Which of these is an issue in a firm's management of its accounts receivable?
- Deciding which customers to offer credit to
- Minimising the costs of carrying accounts receivables
- Following up slow paying customers
- All are issues
A: All are issues

Q: Which of these would be classified as 'other receivables' and be recorded outside the Accounts Receivable Control account and its subsidiary ledger?
- Loans to directors
- Interest receivable
- Amounts receivable from the sale of non-current assets
- All of the above
A: All of the above

Q: While reviewing the books of Edberg Pest Control Service you discover that no adjusting entry was made for estimated bad debts traceable to sales in 2009 (the company's first year of operation). Assuming this error is not corrected which of the following is true at year-end 2009?
- Assets are understated, profit is overstated
- Liabilities are overstated, profit is understated
- Assets are correct, profit is overstated
- Assets are overstated, profit is overstated
A: Assets are overstated, profit is overstated

Q: Why would a business be prepared to accept a bill of exchange in settlement of a debt?
- If a legal dispute arises the bill represents a legal, written acknowledgment of the debt and its amount
- A bill is interest-bearing and thereby produces interest for the business granting credit
- A bill is more easily converted into cash than accounts receivable
- All of the above
A: All of the above

Q: Allowance for Doubtful Debts is a c___________ asset account.
A: contra

Q: A measure of how many times average debtor's balances are turned into cash in a year is called the Receivables T___________ Ratio.
A: Turnover

Q: A promissory note can be issued as a guarantee to pay a receivable at a later date. The person making the promise to pay by signing the note is the (maker/payee) _________ and the person to whom the payment is to be made is called the (maker/payee) ____________.
A: maker; payee

Q: E_______________ is performed by signing on the back of a bill of exchange to assign the rights to another party.
A: Endorsement

Q: The holder of a bill receivable can collect the full amount of the bill at maturity date or can obtain the money sooner by arranging to d____________ the bill.
A: discount

Q: The (maturity/discounted) ________________ value of a short-term, interest-bearing, bills receivable is equal to the sum of the note's face value plus interest.
A: maturity

Q: The sale of accounts receivable to a firm who will then collect the debts on their own behalf is known as f_________________.
A: factoring

Q: The two methods of estimating bad debts expense for a given period are the balance sheet and the _________ statement methods.
A: income

Q: When the balance sheet approach is used to estimate bad debts expense a schedule of debts is prepared. The preparation of this schedule is called the a___________ of accounts receivable.
A: aging

Q: When writing off an account receivable as a bad debt, using the allowance method, a (debit/credit) ____________ is made to the Allowance for Doubtful Debts account and a (debit/credit) _____________ is made to Accounts Receivable.
A: debit; credit

Q: Accounts receivable arise as a result of the sale of goods or the provision of services on credit whereas bills receivable arise as the result of offering extended terms of credit or as a means of obtaining finance.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A sale using a debit card is essentially recorded by the firm as a cash sale.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Cheung Ltd has an account receivable for $12000 from R. Morris that is overdue. Morris requests a 60-day extension of the payment date and Cheung Ltd agrees by accepting a fixed 60-day, 12% promissory note in exchange for the accounts receivable. The entry Cheung Ltd makes on receipt of the note is:
- Debit Accounts Receivable $12000, debit Unearned Interest $236.71; credit Bills Receivable $12,236.71
- Debit Bills Receivable $12236,71; credit Accounts Receivable $12000, credit Unearned Interest $236.71
- Debit Bills Receivable $12,000; credit Accounts Receivable $12000
- Debit Bills Receivable $12236,71; credit Accounts Receivable $12000, credit Interest Revenue $236.71
A: Debit Bills Receivable $12236,71; credit Accounts Receivable $12000, credit Unearned Interest $236.71

Q: How many of these are internal controls relating to accounts receivable?
· Bad debt write-offs should be authorised by a responsible officer.
· Monthly statements of account should be sent to customers.
· The control account and the subsidiary ledger should be regularly reconciled.
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
A: Three

Q: In relation to the direct write-off method of accounting for bad debts, it is not true that:
- Bad debts are charged as an expense at the time an account is determined to be uncollectable
- The entry to write off bad debts is debit Bad Debts Expense, debit GST collected, credit Accounts Receivable
- There is no contra asset account for estimated doubtful debts
- Bad debts expense is matched in the same period with its related sales revenue
A: Bad debts expense is matched in the same period with its related sales revenue

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Girdles:
- articulate by ball and socket joints with the proximal bone of the respective limbs.
- are part of the axial skeleton.
- consist of two bones fused together.
- are freely moveable.
- have no muscle attachments.
A: are part of the axial skeleton. / consist of two bones fused together.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A sagittal plane:
- divides the body into superior and inferior portions.
- divides the body into anterior and posterior portions.
- is a plane in which flexion and extension take place.
- is a plane in which abduction and adduction take place.
- is a plane in which rotation takes place.
A: is a plane in which flexion and extension take place.

Q: For each of the questions or incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given may be correct.

Typical skeletal muscles:

W. consist of muscle cells embedded in epithelial tissue.

X. are attached by tendons to two bones separated by one or more joints.

Y. have an “origin” on the more mobile bone.

Z. act in co-ordinated groups to bring about smooth movement.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Sensory and motor innervation of the skin of the lateral and anterior aspects of the trunk are provided by the:
- dorsal ramus of a spinal nerve.
- sympathetic trunk.
- lateral horn of the spinal cord.
- ventral ramus of a spinal nerve.
- cranial nerves.
A: ventral ramus of a spinal nerve.

Q: For each of the questions or incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given may be correct.

The lymphatic system:

W. helps maintain normal blood volume.

X. eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial (=extracellular) fluid.

Y. fights infection.

Z. transports red blood cells to and away from lymph nodes.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Which of the following IS NOT a function of the intervertebral discs?
- prevent bone-to-bone contact.
- act as shock absorbers.
- lubricate the joint.
- contribute to the height of the individual.
- allow the movements associated with flexion and rotation of the vertebral column.
A: lubricate the joint.

Q: For each of the questions or incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given may be correct.

Structures which contribute to the protection of the spinal cord include:

W. vertebral bodies and arches.
X. cerebrospinal fluid.
Y. meninges.
Z. fat.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The dorsal root ganglia contain:
- axons of motor neurones.
- axons of sensory neurones.
- cell bodies of motor neurones.
- cell bodies of sensory neurones.
- cell bodies of sympathetic neurones.
A: cell bodies of sensory neurones.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for this incomplete statement.

A plane which separates the body into a superior and an inferior part is called a:
- sagittal plane
- lateral plane
- parasagittal plane
- coronal plane
- transverse plane
A: transverse plane

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the statement.

A plane which separates the body into an anterior and a posterior part is called a:
- sagittal plane
- lateral plane
- horizontal plane
- coronal plane
- transverse plane
A: coronal plane

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Natural background radiation in Australia is approximately:
- 500 Sv
- 500 rad
- 1.0 mSv
- 2.6 mSv
- 4 mSv
A: 2.6 mSv

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Non-ionizing radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum includes:
- ultraviolet, visible light, gamma rays, microwaves and radio.
- cosmic radiation, visible light, infrared, microwaves and radio.
- ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, x-rays and radio.
- ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, microwaves and radio.
- gamma rays, x-rays, infrared, microwaves and radio.
A: ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, microwaves and radio.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

General X-rays:
- are not a form of radiation.
- use non-ionizing radiation.
- are at the lowest end of the electromagnetic spectrum.
- use ionizing radiation.
- are safer than ultrasound.
A: use ionizing radiation.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Doppler ultrasound is used to:
- look at blood flow within the vessels.
- check for bone fractures.
- assess a tendon tear.
- measure the length of the femur in a foetus.
- look at electrical transmission in a nerve.
A: look at blood flow within the vessels.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Reducing the activity of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction:
- would lead to a more rapid muscle fibre contraction.
- should result in an increased stimulation of the muscle fibre.
- would cause a reduction in acetylcholine release from the motor neuron axon terminal.
- could lead to a weaker muscle response.
- would increase the rate at which the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is broken down in the synapse.
A: should result in an increased stimulation of the muscle fibre.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Reducing the activity of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction:
- would lead to a more rapid muscle fibre contraction.
- should result in a reduced stimulation of the muscle fibre.
- would cause a reduction in acetylcholine release from the motor neuron axon terminal.
- could lead to a weaker muscle response.
- would decrease the rate at which the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is broken down in the synapse.
A: would decrease the rate at which the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is broken down in the synapse.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Reducing the activity of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase at the neuromuscular junction:
- would lead to a prolonged muscle fibre contraction.
- should result in a reduced stimulation of the muscle fibre.
- would cause a reduction in acetylcholine release from the motor neuron axon terminal.
- could lead to a weaker muscle response.
- would increase the rate at which the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is broken down in the synapse.
A: would lead to a prolonged muscle fibre contraction.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Blocking the voltage-gated calcium channels located at the axon terminal of the motor neuron might result in:
- a decrease in neurotransmitter release.
- an increase in synaptic vesicle fusion with the axonal membrane.
- little change to normal synaptic transmission.
- a decrease in the rate of breakdown of acetylcholine when bound to its receptor on the motor end plate.
- increased stimulation of the muscle fibre.
A: a decrease in neurotransmitter release.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

A single, small motor unit:

W. would cause a weak contraction when stimulated.

X. consists of a single motor neuron and only a few muscle fibres.

Y. would normally be typical of those found in muscles that exert fine control and precise movement.

Z. consist of a single muscle fibre and the few motor neurons that innervate it.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

Large motor units:

W. would be found in muscles such as those controlling the fingers and eyes.

X. are an important feature of muscles capable of weight-bearing but less precise control.

Y. consist of a single muscle fibre and the many motor neurons that innervate it.

Z. consist of a single motor neuron and many hundreds of muscle fibres.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

Small motor units:

W. would be found in muscles such as those controlling the fingers and eyes.

X. are an important feature of muscles capable of movements with fine control.

Y. consist of a single motor neuron and only a few muscle fibres.

Z. consist of a single muscle fibre and the few motor neurons that innervate it.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

Large motor units:

W. would be found in muscles that exert fine control and precise movement.

X. might be found in large weight-bearing muscles.

Y. consist of a single muscle fibre the many hundreds of motor neurons that innervate it.

Z. consist of a single motor neuron and many hundreds of muscle fibres.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

Small motor units:

W. would be found in muscles that exert fine control and precise movement.

X. might be found in large weight-bearing muscles.

Y. consist of a single motor neuron and only a few muscle fibres.

Z. consist of a single muscle fibre and the few motor neurons that innervate it.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Non-ionizing radiation includes:

W. Gamma radiation

X. Visible light

Y. X-rays

Z. Radio waves
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Ionizing radiation is used for:

W. CT

X. Digital Subtraction Angiography

Y. General x-rays

Z. Ultrasound
- if only W, X and Yare correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Yare correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Disadvantages of ultrasound include:

W. highly dependent on body habitus

X. good visualization of soft tissues

Y. operator dependent

Z. very long examination time
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Advantages of x-ray include:

W. useful for visualization of bones

X. low cost

Y. readily available

Z. use of ionizing radiation
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

Advantages of nuclear medicine include:

W. non-ionizing radiation

X. very quick result when compared to x-rays

Y. safe to use on pregnant women

Z. can help to find pathology and assess the extent
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: Refer to the diagrams below. For the incomplete statement, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

As the figure moves from standing (diagram 1) to squatting (diagram 2), the movement at the knee joint is an example of:
[Image]
- Extension
- Hyperextension
- Flexion
- Medial rotation
- Adduction
A: Flexion

Q: Refer to the diagrams below. For the incomplete statement, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

As the figure moves from squatting (diagram1) to standing (diagram 2), the prime mover is at the knee joint:

[Image]
- hamstrings
- quadriceps
- gravity
- gluteus maximus
- none of the above
A: quadriceps

Q: Refer to the diagrams below. For the incomplete statement, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Muscles active at the knee joint as the figure moves from squatting (diagram 1) to standing (diagram 2), include a:
[Image]
- static (isometric) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- dynamic concentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- dynamic eccentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- dynamic eccentric (isotonic) contraction of the gluteus maximus
- static (isometric) contraction of the hamstrings
A: dynamic concentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris

Q: Refer to the diagrams below. For the incomplete statement, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

As the figure moves from squatting (diagram 1) to standing (diagram 2), the action at the hip joint is:

[Image]
- flexion
- occurring in the transverse plane
- occurring in the coronal plane
- extension
- hyperextension
A: extension

Q: Refer to the diagrams below. For the incomplete statement, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

As the figure moves from standing (diagram1) to squatting (diagram 2), the prime mover at the knee joint is:

[Image]
- hamstrings
- quadriceps
- gravity
- triceps surae
- none of the above
A: gravity

Q: Refer to the diagrams below. For the incomplete statement, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Muscles active at the knee joint as the figure moves from standing (diagram 1) to squatting (diagram 2), include a:
[Image]
- static (isometric) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- dynamic concentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- dynamic eccentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- a dynamic concentric (isotonic) contraction of the hamstrings
- static (isometric) contraction of the hamstrings
A: dynamic eccentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A syndesmosis is a:
- fibrous joint
- primary cartilagenous joint
- secondary cartilagenous joint
- synovial joint
- suture
A: fibrous joint

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A suture is an example of a:
- fibrous joint
- primary cartiagenous joint
- secondary cartilagenous joint
- synovial joint
- syndesmoses
A: fibrous joint

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The pubic symphysis is an example of:
- fibrous joint
- primary cartiagenous joint
- secondary cartilagenous joint
- synovial joint
- none of the above
A: secondary cartilagenous joint

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The interphalangeal joints are classified as:
- synovial hinge joints.
- fibrous joints.
- primary cartilagenous joints.
- secondary cartilagenous joints.
- synovial condyloid joints.
A: synovial hinge joints.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Tissues present in a typical synovial joint include:
- periosteum lining the articular surfaces.
- a synovial membrane deep to the fibrous capsule.
- a dense fibrous connective tissue attached to the articular surfaces.
- fibrous cartilage lining the articular surfaces.
- a bursa separating the articular surfaces.
A: a synovial membrane deep to the fibrous capsule.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A joint allowing movements in both the coronal plane and the sagittal planes is a:
- primary cartilagenous joint
- synovial condyloid joint
- synovial hinge joint
- synovial plane joint
- fibrous joint
A: synovial condyloid joint

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

In the skeletal system, girdles:
- are part of the axial skeleton.
- each consist of two bones fused together.
- are comprised of long bones.
- articulate by ball and socket joints with the proximal bone of their respective limbs.
- have no muscle attachments.
A: articulate by ball and socket joints with the proximal bone of their respective limbs.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Components of the axial skeleton include:
- the patella
- the clavicle
- the femur
- the sternum
- the hip bone
A: the sternum

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

 The ventral surface of the trunk is also its:
- anterior surface.
- posterior surface.
- lateral surface.
- medial surface.
- superior surface.
A: anterior surface.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

When standing in the anatomical position:
- the thumb is medial to the little finger.
- the patella is proximal to the hip joint.
- the heart is deep to the sternum.
- the hip joint is adducted.
- the knee joint is superficial to the toes.
A: the heart is deep to the sternum.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The anatomical term that means towards the head is:
- cranial
- caudal
- proximal
- distal
- dorsal
A: cranial

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

On the diagram below, which of the labelled structures has a wall containing smooth muscle?
A: c

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Non-ionizing radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum includes:
- cosmic radiation, visible light, infrared, microwaves and radio.
- ultraviolet, visible light, gamma rays, microwaves and radio.
- ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, x-rays and radio.
- ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, microwaves and radio.
- gamma rays, x-rays, infrared, microwaves and radio.
A: ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, microwaves and radio.

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

On the diagram below, which of the labelled structures contains osteoblasts?
A: e

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Support and muscle attachment are functions of which of the labelled structures?
A: e

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is a thickened band of dense fibrous connective tissue?
A: b

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is composed of a tissue type that has large spaces within its matrix to allow the passage of blood vessels?
A: c

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is primarily composed of neural tissue?
A: b

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is both a ‘hard’ and a ‘living’ tissue?
A: d

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures forms a physical barrier between the body and the external environment?
A: a

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is at the proximal end of a bone and commences ossification after birth?
A: a

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is an example of a primary cartilaginous joint?
A: d

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures commences ossification before birth?
A: b

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is hyaline cartilage?
A: d

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is an example of adipose tissue?
A: e

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is an example of cancellous bone?
A: a

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures attaches muscle to bone?
A: b

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is primarily composed of contractile tissue?
A: e

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Each of the following will tend to result in increased blood flow through the vascular bed to a tissue EXCEPT:
- increased blood volume.
- increased radius of arterioles.
- increased peripheral resistance.
- increased arterial blood pressure.
- relaxation of pre-capillary sphincters.
A: increased peripheral resistance.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

In the systemic vascular circuit, more blood will flow to a tissue if the:
- concentration of lactic acid decreases.
- concentration of oxygen at the tissue increases.
- concentration of cabon dioxide at the tissue increases.
- arterioles and pre-capillary sphincters constrict.
- vessels normally allowing venous drainage from the tissue are occluded (compressed).
A: concentration of cabon dioxide at the tissue increases.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The increase in blood flow to skeletal muscles that are contracting (during physical activity) is due MAINLY to:
- sympathetic vasoconstrictor effects.
- effects of metabolites on smooth muscle in arterioles and pre-capillary sphincters.
- parasympathetic vasodilator effects.
- "skeletal muscle pump" effects.
- increase in heart rate.
A: effects of metabolites on smooth muscle in arterioles and pre-capillary sphincters.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Autoregulation of blood flow through the cerebral circulation describes a mechanism in which the RESISTANCE to cerebral blood flow:
- remains the same despite changing blood pressure.
- increases in response to a build up of metabolites.
- increases in response to less stretch.
- decreases in response to an increase in mean arterial pressure.
- decreases in response to less stretch.
A: decreases in response to less stretch.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The "metabolic mechanism" by which blood flow to a tissue is varied describes a mechanism in which:
- blood flow remains the same despite changes in mean arterial blood pressure.
- cardiac output increases to meet the needs of active tissues.
- resistance to flow decreases in active tissues.
- metabolites cause vasocontriction of arterioles and pre-capillary sphincters.
- blood flow to all tissues in the systemic circuit is proportional to mean arterial pressure.
A: resistance to flow decreases in active tissues.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Which of the following is NOT involved in the formation of a blood clot?
- Fibrin.
- Thrombin.
- Iron atoms.
- Fibrinogen.
- Calcium ions.
A: Iron atoms.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

At resting membrane potential in a nerve cell, the negative interior of the cell is due to:
- a much greater diffusion of K+ out of the cell than Na+ into the cell.
- a much greater diffusion of Na+ out of the cell than K+ into the cell.
- equal diffusion of Na+ and K+ across the cell membrane.
- the impermeability of the cell at rest to both Na+ and K+.
- the increased number of anions (negative ions) in the ECF compared with the ICF.
A: a much greater diffusion of K+ out of the cell than Na+ into the cell.

Q: For each of the questions or incomplete statements related to the diagram below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE in each case.

1. Support, attachment, mineral storage and protection are all functions of tissue type:

2. Contractility is a unique feature of tissue type:

3. The tissue layer that acts as a physical barrier for the body is:

4. The tissue layer composed of loose connective tissue is:
1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]
[Image]
A: a; d; b; c

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Features of acclimatization to a very high altitude, where the partial pressure of oxygen (PO_2) is less than 60mmHg, include:
- small fluctuations in pulmonary ventilation (minute ventilation).
- exhaustion due to sleep deprivation.
- impaired responses to extreme cold.
- an increase in the haematocrit.
- loss of appetite.
A: an increase in the haematocrit.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

On the diagram below, which of the labelled structures:

is part of the brain stem?
A: a

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures is both a ‘hard’ and a ‘living’ tissue?
A: d

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures is an example of adipose tissue?
A: e

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting neurone differs from the external environment in that the interior is:
- positively charged and contains less sodium.
- negatively charged and contains more sodium.
- negatively charged and contains more potassium.
- negatively charged and contains less potassium.
- positively charged and contains more potassium.
A: negatively charged and contains more potassium.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

During the rising phase of the action potential:

W. voltage gated sodium channels are closed.

X. the membrane is said to be hyperpolarizing.

Y. sodium ions move out of the cell.

Z. the voltage gated potassium channels are beginning to open.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

In a neurone at resting membrane potential:
- the potassium leakage channels are closed.
- the potassium leakage channels are open.
- the potassium voltage gated channels are all open.
- the sodium voltage gated channels are all open.
- the sodium leakage channels are all closed.
A: the potassium leakage channels are open.

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures is an example of a primary cartilaginous joint?
A: d

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Features of acclimatization to a very high altitude, where the partial pressure of oxygen (PO_2) is less than 60mmHg, include:
- suppression of breathing.
- a fall in the red blood cell count.
- impaired responses to extreme cold.
- exhaustion due to sleep deprivation.
- changes in acid base balance in response to an increase in ventilation.
A: changes in acid base balance in response to an increase in ventilation.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

VO_2 (maximal oxygen consumption) is:
- the maximal rate at which oxygen can be taken up by the blood.
- a useful measure of renal function.
- reached when oxygen uptake increases despite a constant power output.
- determined by the ability of the cardio-respiratory system to deliver oxygen to the contracting muscle, and the muscle’s ability to take up and use oxygen.
- an indirect measure of pulmonary ventilation (minute ventilation).
A: determined by the ability of the cardio-respiratory system to deliver oxygen to the contracting muscle, and the muscle’s ability to take up and use oxygen.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting neurone differs from the external environment in that the interior is:
- positively charged and contains less sodium.
- negatively charged and contains less sodium.
- negatively charged and contains more sodium.
- negatively charged and contains less potassium.
- positively charged and contains more sodium.
A: negatively charged and contains less sodium.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The most important mechanism/s controlling cardiovascular adjustments at the beginning of exercise is/are:

W. input from baroreceptors to the cardiovascular control centre.

 X. increased PCO_2 and decreased PO_2.

Y. feedback from skeletal muscle chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors.

Z. central command from higher brain centres to the cardiovascular control centre.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Retention of sodium ions (Na^+) by the kidneys will result in:

W. activation of the renin-angiotensin/aldosterone system.

X. retention of water.

Y. a fall in mean arterial blood pressure (MAP).

 Z. an increase in the volume of extracellular fluid.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The fight-or-flight response to a fright includes the following:

W. secretion of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH).

X. reduction in blood flow to the digestive tract and kidneys.

Y. elevation of plasma glucose concentration.

Z. increased heart rate.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The arteriovenous oxygen difference is greater during exercise when compared to rest. This is due to:
- an increase in the amount of oxygen taken up by skeletal muscle and used for the production of ATP
- an increase in oxygen loading at the lungs
- a decrease in carbon dioxide production at the tissues
- a reduction in cardiac output
- a decrease in carbon dioxide removal by the lungs
A: an increase in the amount of oxygen taken up by skeletal muscle and used for the production of ATP

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

 Pregnant women hyperventilate because:

W. oxygen consumption increases.

X. metabolic rate increases.

Y. body temperature increases.

Z. increased progesterone affects the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to PCO_2
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Features of acclimatization to a very high altitude, where the partial pressure of oxygen (PO_2) is less than 60mmHg, include:
- a small decrease in pulmonary ventilation (minute ventilation).
- exhaustion due to the hypoxia.
- an increase in the haematocrit.
- an increase in hunger.
- suppression of thirst.
A: an increase in the haematocrit.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Temporary retention of carbon dioxide (CO_2) results in:
- an increase in the concentration of bicarbonate ions (HC0_3^-)
- a decrease in the concentration of hydrogen ions (H^+)
- a permanent change in the renal handling of (HC0_3^-)
- inhibition of ventilation.
- a respiratory acidosis.
A: a respiratory acidosis.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Thermoregulation in older adults is somewhat compromised compared to young adults. The organ/s that appear to be affected in older adults which compromises their ability to thermoregulate include:

W. sweat glands.

X. blood vessels.

Y. skeletal muscle.

Z. heart.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Heat stroke is a life threatening medical emergency which can lead to death if symptoms are ignored. Signs and symptoms of heat stroke include :

W. brain damage.

X. a core body temperature of 40ºC .

Y. collapse and coma.

Z. a decrease in respiratory rate, blood pressure, and heart rate.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Factors contributing to the maintenance of mean arterial blood pressure (MAP) following loss of blood volume include:

W. conservation of sodium ions (N<sup>+</sup>) and water.

X. inhibition of thirst.

Y. a reduction in blood flow to some organs.

Z. inhibition of the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Hyperventilation for a few minutes at sea level affects acid base homeostasis because it causes:
- a permanent change in the renal handling of bicarbonate (HC0_3^-).
- removal of carbon dioxide at a rate greater than its production.
- a change in the mechanism of transport of CO_2 by the blood.
- a temporary change in the renal handling of acids.
- reduced production of CO_2.
A: removal of carbon dioxide at a rate greater than its production.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The increase in cardiac output during exercise is achieved by:
- a decrease in stroke volume and heart rate.
- an increase in heart rate, and a decrease in stroke volume.
- an increase in stroke volume and heart rate.
- an increase in stroke volume only.
- an increase in heart rate only.
A: an increase in stroke volume and heart rate.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Hormones which contribute in some way to both water retention and vasoconstriction include:

W. glucagon.

X. antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin.

Y. insulin.

Z. angiotensin II.
- if only W, X, and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Activation of the renin-angiotensin/aldosterone system will result in:

W. retention of sodium ions (Na^+) by the kidneys.

X. retention of water.

Y. an increase in the volume of extracellular fluid.

 Z. a fall in mean arterial blood pressure (MAP).
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A person's responses to PHYSIOLOGICAL stressors:

W. occur in response to learning from survival of previous experiences.

X. last for minutes to hours or days depending on duration of the stressor.

Y. are mediated by the parasympathetic nervous system.

Z. include increased arousal and cognitive function, and emotional responses.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Hyperventilation that occurs during pregnancy causes:
- CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production.
- arterial pH to decrease.
- a significant increase in formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries.
- a reduction in the energy expenditure of respiratory muscles.
- stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low arterial PO_2.
A: CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production. / stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low arterial PO_2.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The hypothalamus brings about the body’s ‘fight or flight’ response to a frightening situation by its control of the:

W. hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.

X. secretion of cortisol.

Y. secretion of adrenaline.

Z. sympathetic nervous system.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The increase in cardiac output during exercise is achieved by:
- an increase in heart rate, and a decrease in stroke volume.
- a decrease in stroke volume and heart rate.
- an increase in stroke volume and heart rate.
- an increase in stroke volume only.
- an increase in heart rate only.
A: an increase in stroke volume and heart rate.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

An individual can lose heat via:

W. evaporation.

X. convection.

Y. radiation.

Z. vasoconstriction of skin blood vessels.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

VO_2 (maximal oxygen consumption) is:
- reached when oxygen uptake increases despite a constant power output.
- the maximal rate at which oxygen can be taken up by the blood.
- a useful measure of renal function.
- determined by the ability of the cardio-respiratory system to deliver oxygen to the contracting muscle, and the muscle’s ability to take up and use oxygen.
- an indirect measure of pulmonary ventilation (minute ventilation).
A: determined by the ability of the cardio-respiratory system to deliver oxygen to the contracting muscle, and the muscle’s ability to take up and use oxygen.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The ‘fight or flight’ response to a frightening situation:

W. is an automatic response.

X. begins within seconds of the onset of the frightening situation.

Y. continues for minutes to hours after the original stimulus, depending on the duration of the frightening situation.

Z. increases processes of digestion to maintain the supply of energy substrates to exercising skeletal muscle during the fight or flight.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The generalized response to stressors includes the secretion of:

W. adrenaline.

X. antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Y. cortisol.

Z. insulin.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only X is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

In the later stages of pregnancy, changes in renal function include an increase in:

W. glomerular filtration rate.
X. renal blood flow.
Y. excretion of metabolic wastes.
Z. excretion of hydrogen ions.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

In healthy individuals breathing at sea level, changes in arterial PO_2:
- are the most important stimulus for breathing.
- stimulate the peripheral chemoreceptors.
- have only a small effect on pulmonary ventilation.
- stimulate the central chemoreceptors.
- result in concious control of breathing rather than automatic control.
A: have only a small effect on pulmonary ventilation.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Heat stroke is a life threatening medical emergency which can lead to death if symptoms are ignored. Expected signs and symptoms of heat stroke would include:

W. hot and dry skin.

X. an increase in basal metabolic rate.

Y. collapse and coma.

Z. a core body temperature of 39 degrees C.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The increase in maternal blood plasma volume during the first trimester of pregnancy occurs in response to increased secretion of the hormone(s):

W. adrenalin.
X. aldosterone.
Y. cortisol.
Z. anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The temporary removal of carbon dioxide (CO_2) at a rate greater than its production results in:
- an increase in the concentration of bicarbonate ions (HC0_3^-).
- a temporary increase in concentration of hydrogen ions (H^+).
- a permanent change in renal handling of bicarbonate ions (HC0_3^-).
- an increase in ventilation.
- respiratory alkalosis.
A: respiratory alkalosis.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below

Respiratory responses during exercise of increasing intensity include increases in:
- a dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin in active tissues.
- arterial PO_2.
- arterial PCO_2.
- breathing rate but not tidal volume.
- ventilation up to about 25% VO_2 max, then remains constant with increasing exercise intensity.
A: a dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin in active tissues.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

During intense exercise, oxygen use in skeletal muscle increases many times over the resting value. Increased oxygen delivery to skeletal muscle is accomplished by:
- increasing the oxygen content of arterial blood above that of rest.
- an increase in heart rate only.
- increased resistance of blood vessels in skeletal muscle.
- decreasing the carbon dioxide content of venous blood.
- increased cardiac output, and redistribution of blood flow from inactive organs to the working skeletal muscle.
A: increased cardiac output, and redistribution of blood flow from inactive organs to the working skeletal muscle.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Despite the increase in maternal cardiac output during pregnancy, blood pressure is not higher than in a non-pregnant woman because:

W. the resting heart rate decreases.
X. there is generalized vasodilation.
Y. venous return decreases.
Z. development of a highly vascular placenta.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

When an individual experiences fever:

W. the thermostat in the hypothalamus has been set to a higher than normal temperature.

X. the most likely cause is an allergic reaction.

Y. shivering is common prior to the temperature reaching the new set point.

Z. brain damage commonly occurs.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For this question, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Which of the following would be cause for alarm?

W. A shell temperature of 20ºC.

X. A core temperature of 39ºC.

Y. Shivering and feeling cold with a core temperature of 39ºC.

Z. Feeling comfortable without shivering with a core temperature of 30ºC.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Cardiovascular responses during incremental exercise include:
- cardiac output and heart rate reach a plateau before VO_2max is reached.
- heart rate increases in direct proportion to the metabolic rate.
- systolic blood pressure remains constant or slightly decreases.
- diastolic blood pressure increases.
- cardiac output decreases.
A: heart rate increases in direct proportion to the metabolic rate.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

At the end of a prolonged period of complete bed rest, "orthostatic intolerance" is expected because, on standing, there is a smaller:

W. blood plasma volume.
X. increase in heart rate.
Y. vasoconstrictor response to sympathetic stimulation.
Z. red blood cell volume.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Actions of the hormone cortisol include:

W. mobilization of fats and proteins as sources of energy.

X. maintenance of a supply of glucose and fats for energy metabolism.

Y. maintenance of mean arterial pressure (MAP).

Z. stimulation of immune responses.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Cardiac output increases during both dynamic exercise and during pregnancy. The increase during pregnancy, UNLIKE dynamic exercise, is due mostly to the increase in:

W. heart rate.
X. blood volume.
Y. contractility of the heart.
Z. stroke volume.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Despite the increase in maternal cardiac output during pregnancy, blood pressure is not higher than in a non-pregnant woman because:

W. there is generalized vasodilation.
X. the resting heart rate decreases.
Y. there is a decrease in peripheral resistance.
Z. there is a decrease in venous return.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

During pregnancy there is increased blood flow to maternal tissues that have:

W. receptors for the hormone, progesterone.
X. a decreased resistance to flow.
Y. an increase in metabolic rate.
Z. receptors for the hormone, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

During pregnancy, the osmolarity of maternal body fluids differs from the body fluids of a non-pregnant woman. This change in osmolarity is caused by:

W. increased water reabsorption from the collecting ducts of the nephron.
X. increased secretion of sodium chloride into the nephron tubule.
Y. increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin.
Z. increased set-point (higher "osmostat") for osmolarity.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A person's responses to PHYSIOLOGICAL stressors:

W. occur in response to learning from survival of previous experiences.

X. last for minutes to hours or days depending on duration of the stressor.

Y. are mediated by the parasympathetic nervous system.

Z. include increased arousal and cognitive function, and emotional responses.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Suppression of alveolar ventilation (for example, by a drug) will result in:
- removal of carbon dioxide (CO_2) at a rate greater than its production.
- a permanent change in gas exchange in the lungs.
- retention of carbon dioxide (CO_2).
- retention of oxygen (O_2).
- respiratory alkalosis.
A: retention of carbon dioxide (CO_2).

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The increase in cardiac output that occurs during pregnancy is due to increased:

W. venous return.
X. stroke volume.
Y. heart rate.
Z. peripheral resistance.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Loss of 20% of a person’s total blood volume due to an injury stimulates responses which will tend to restore both the mean arterial pressure (MAP) and delivery of oxygen to the tissues over both the short term (minutes to hours) and long term (days). These responses include the secretion of:

W. adrenaline.

X. aldosterone.

Y. antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin.

Z. erythropoietin (EPO).
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Activation of the renin-angiotensin/aldosterone system will result in:

W. retention of sodium ions (Na^+) by the kidneys.

X. retention of water.

Y. an increase in the volume of extracellular fluid.

 Z. a fall in mean arterial blood pressure (MAP).
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

It is highly likely that an individual’s temperature will continue to rise during continuous exercise in a hot and humid environment. It is very difficult in these conditions to maintain temperature homeostasis because:

W. the sweating mechanism is inhibited.

X. skin vasodilation is inhibited.

Y. high humidity enhances non-shivering thermogenesis.

Z. high humidity reduces heat loss by evaporation despite an increased sweat rate.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A stressor can be defined as any stimulus that causes:

W. the hypothalamus to initiate stress-reducing responses.

X. an increase in blood flow to the kidneys.

Y. the secretion of cortisol.

Z. an increase in the rate of urine formation.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Hyperventilation for a few minutes at sea level results in:
- a temporary increase in the concentration of hydrogen ions (H^+).
- a reduction in the availability of oxygen (O_2) at the tissues.
- a reduction in the utilization of oxygen (O_2) by the tissues.
- a temporary alkalosis.
- an increase in the stimulus to breathe.
A: a temporary alkalosis.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Hyperpnea is can be defined as:
- an increase in ventilation in response to metabolic needs.
- hyperventilation.
- a decrease in tidal volume.
- a decrease in breathing rate.
- an increase in heart rate.
A: an increase in ventilation in response to metabolic needs.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Factors contributing to the maintenance of mean arterial blood pressure (MAP) following loss of blood volume include:

W. conservation of sodium ions (Na+) and water.

X. inhibition of thirst.

Y. a reduction in blood flow to some organs.

Z. inhibition of the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures is an example of cancellous bone?
A: a

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The fight-or-flight response to a fright includes the following:

W. secretion of adrenaline.

X. an increase in mean arterial pressure (MAP).

Y. dilatation of bronchioles.

Z. increased secretion of insulin.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z is correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Functional responses to stressors:

W. are immediate.

X. last for minutes to hours or days depending on duration of the stressor.

Y. include increased arousal and cognitive function, and emotional responses.

Z. are mediated by the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine system.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

During a prolonged period of complete bed rest, you would expect the following physiolgical changes:

W. normal haematocrit.
X. normal responsiveness of tissues to sympathetic stimulation.
Y. decreased blood volume.
Z. decreased mean artierial blood pressure.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

When body temperature rises, the heat loss centre in the hypothalamus is activated which leads to:

W. activation of sweat glands.

X. increased metabolic rate.

Y. dilation of skin blood vessels.

Z. shivering.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

When body temperature drops, the heat promoting centre in the hypothalamus is activated which leads to:

W. constriction of skin blood vessels.

X. enhanced evaporative heating.

Y. shivering.

Z. enhanced blood flow to the periphery.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Temporary retention of carbon dioxide (CO_2) results in:
- an increase in the concentration of bicarbonate ions (HC0_3^-).
- a decrease in the concentration of hydrogen ions (H^+).
- a permanent change in the renal handling hydrogen ions (H^+).
- inhibition of ventilation.
- a respiratory acidosis.
A: a respiratory acidosis.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Acclimatisation to the heat:

W. usually occurs within 7-14 days.

X. results in later onset of sweating.

Y. results in a higher sweat rate.

Z. results in an increase in set-point for core body temperature.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the question below.

What is believed to be the major stimulus causing the marked rise in ventilation during HIGH INTENSTIY incremental exercise?
- A decreased blood pH caused by hyperventilation.
- A decreased blood pH caused by increased lactic acid derived from the exercising muscle.
- An increased blood pH caused by increased lactic acid derived from the exercising muscle.
- Hyperpnea.
- An increase in arterial PCO_2.
A: A decreased blood pH caused by increased lactic acid derived from the exercising muscle.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The arteriovenous oxygen difference is greater during exercise when compared to rest. This is due to:
- an increase in oxygen loading at the lungs
- an increase in the amount of oxygen taken up by skeletal muscle and used for the production of ATP
- a decrease in carbon dioxide production at the tissues
- a reduction in cardiac output
- a decrease in carbon dioxide removal by the lungs
A: an increase in the amount of oxygen taken up by skeletal muscle and used for the production of ATP

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Hyperventilation for a few minutes at sea level affects acid base homeostasis because it causes:
- a permanent change in the renal handling of bicarbonate (HC0_3^-).
- removal of carbon dioxide (CO_2) at a rate greater than its production.
- a change in the mechanism of transport of carbon dioxide (CO_2) by the blood.
- a temporary change in the renal handling of acids.
- reduced production of carbon dioxide (CO_2).
A: removal of carbon dioxide (CO_2) at a rate greater than its production.

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

On the diagram below, which of the labelled structures contains osteoblasts?
A: e

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Older adults are more likely to become hypothermic when exposed to cold conditions than young adults because as core body temperature begins to decrease older adults have decreased:

W. awareness of being cold.

X. vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels.

Y. capacity to produce heat by shivering.

Z. blood volume.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Regarding thermoregulation in children (approximately 2-12 years) compared to adults:

W. children have a higher sweat rate in hot conditions.

X. children have less vasoconstriction in the cold.

Y. in extreme heat, children experience less heat gain.

Z. children have increased metabolic heat production in the cold.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

An excitatory post synaptic potential (EPSP):
- is a depolarization of the post synaptic membrane.
- is a hyperpolarization of the post synaptic membrane.
- always results in an action potential on the post synaptic cell.
- lowers the resting membrane potential of the post synaptic cell.
- raises the threshold potential in the post synaptic cell.
A: is a depolarization of the post synaptic membrane.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

During the rising phase of the action potential:

W. voltage gated sodium channels are fully open.

X. the membrane is said to be depolarizing.

Y. sodium ions move into the cell.

Z. potassium ions move into the cell.
- if W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A joint allowing movements in both the coronal plane and the sagittal planes is a:
- synovial condyloid joint
- synovial hinge joint
- primary cartilagenous joint
- synovial plane joint
- fibrous joint
A: synovial condyloid joint

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures is primarily composed of contractile tissue?
A: e

Q: Enter current allocation details: (e.g. A4.5)

Q: Enter details on which group range you would like to be swap to (e.g. A1-8)

Q: Describe the reasons for your request to swap.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Tissues present in a typical synovial joint include:
- a dense fibrous connective tissue attached to the articular surfaces.
- periosteum lining the articular surfaces.
- a synovial membrane deep to the fibrous capsule.
- fibrous cartilage lining the articular surfaces.
- a bursa separating the articular surfaces.
A: a synovial membrane deep to the fibrous capsule.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

At resting membrane potential in a nerve cell, the negative interior of the cell is due to:
- a much greater permeability at rest to K+ than Na+.
- a much greater permeability at rest Na+ than K+.
- equal permeability of Na+ and K+ across the cell membrane.
- the impermeability of the cell at rest to both Na+ and K+.
- the increased number of cations (positive ions) in the ECF compared with the ICF.
A: a much greater permeability at rest to K+ than Na+.

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures attaches muscle to bone?
A: b

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures is composed of a tissue type that has large spaces within its matrix to allow the passage of blood vessels?
A: c

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Summation of EPSP’s in order for the depolarization to reach threshold potential in the post synaptic cell normally occurs:
- via temporal summation only.
- via spatial summation only.
- via a combination temporal and spatial summation.
- at the node of Ranvier.
- at a synapse between two or more dendrites.
A: via a combination temporal and spatial summation.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

During the falling phase of the action potential:

W. voltage gated sodium channels are open.

X. voltage gated potassium channels are closed.

Y. neither potassium ions nor sodium ions move across the cell membrane.

Z. the membrane is said to be repolarizing.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures forms a physical barrier between the body and the external environment?
A: a

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Support and muscle attachment are functions of which of the labelled structures?
A: e

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

During the rising (depolarization) phase of the action potential:

W. voltage gated sodium channels are fully open.

X. voltage gated potassium channels are fully open.

Y. sodium ions move into the cell.

Z. potassium ions move into the cell.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

On the diagram below, which of the labelled structures has a wall containing smooth muscle?
A: c

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

During the falling phase of the action potential:

W. voltage gated sodium channels are closed.

X. voltage gated potassium channels are open.

Y. the membrane is said to be repolarizing.

Z. potassium ions move out of the cell.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: Refer to the diagrams below. For the incomplete statement, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Muscles active at the knee joint as the figure moves from squatting (diagram 1) to standing (diagram 2), include a:
[Image]
- dynamic concentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- static (isometric) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- dynamic eccentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris
- dynamic eccentric (isotonic) contraction of the gluteus maximus
- static (isometric) contraction of the hamstrings
A: dynamic concentric (isotonic) contraction of quadriceps femoris

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Total peripheral resistance decreases during pregnancy due to :

W. vasodilation and increased blood flow to the uterus, skin, breasts, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys.

X. a decreased cardiac output.

Y. a relaxing effect of progesterone on vascular smooth muscle.

Z. increased sympathetic nervous stimulation of vascular smooth muscle.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Features of acclimatization to a very high altitude, where the partial pressure of oxygen (PO_2) is less than 60mmHg, include:
- a large increase in pulmonary ventilation (minute ventilation).
- cessation of any contribution to acid base balance by the kidneys.
- suppression of red blood cell formation.
- feelings of exhaustion due to exercise.
- a marked increase in appetite.
A: a large increase in pulmonary ventilation (minute ventilation).

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

General visceral afferent neurons would:
- transmit pain sensation from visceral organs
- transmit temperature sensation from skin
- transmit pain sensation from a joint
- transmit impulses to the smooth muscle of the stomach causing it to contact
- transmit movement commands to the skeletal muscles in the upper limb
A: transmit pain sensation from visceral organs

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The outermost connective tissue covering spinal nerves is the:
- endoneurium
- endomysium
- perineurium
- epineurium
- epimysium
A: epineurium

Q: For the question, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Which of the following events will prevent continued depolarization of the skeletal muscle fibre at the neuromuscular junction?

W. Calcium is actively pumped out of the axon terminal.

X. The neurotransmitter ACh is released in an inactive form.

Y. ACh is broken down by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.

Z. ACh binding to its receptor leads to a hyperpolarization (inhibition) of the motor end plate.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

is a part of the brain responsible for co-ordination of movement?
A: e

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A unipolar neuron whose cell body resides in a dorsal root ganglion is classified functionally as:

W) afferent

X) efferent

Y) sensory

Z) motor
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Bundles of axons in the spinal cord are called:
- nerves
- tracts
- centers
- nuclei
- ganglia
A: tracts

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The dorsal root ganglion contains cell bodies:

W) of neurons that form part of a motor pathway

X) of neurons that form part of a sensory pathway

Y) of general somatic efferent neurons

Z) of general somatic afferent neurons
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

is comprised of connective tissue?
A: c

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The diencephalon is composed of the following parts:

W) hypothalamus

X) pituitary gland

Y) thalamus

Z) pineal gland
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

is a tissue consisting of largely neuronal cell bodies?
A: b

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures is:

enlarged due to the formation of the brachial plexus?
A: c

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Voluntary control of skeletal muscles is provided by the __________ nervous system.
- sympathetic
- parasympathetic
- afferent
- somatic
- autonomic
A: somatic

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The flexor reflex (= withdrawal reflex):
- prevents a muscle from overstretching
- prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension
- moves a limb away from a painful stimulus
- makes adjustments in other parts of the body in response to a particular stimulus
- is an example of a monosynaptic reflex
A: moves a limb away from a painful stimulus

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Glial cells that make the myelin sheath around neurons in the PNS are called:
- microglia
- schwann cells
- oligodendrocytes
- astrocytes
- neurons
A: schwann cells

Q: For the question, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Which of the following typically occurs at the neuromuscular junction?

W. Potassium enters the axon terminal via voltage gated potassium channels and triggers release of the neurotransmitter.

X. The neurotransmitter ACh is released into the synaptic cleft.

Y. ACh is destroyed by acetylcholinesterase before it binds to its receptor.

Z. ACh binding to its receptor results in depolarization of the sarcolemma called an end plate potential.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The anterior grey horn of the spinal cord contains cell bodies:

W) of neurons that form part of a motor pathway

X) of neurons that form part of a sensory pathway

Y) of general somatic efferent neurons

Z) of general somatic afferent neurons
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

If an EPSP and an IPSP were generated on the cell body of a single post synaptic nerve cell:
- an action potential would most likely be generated at the axon hillock of the post synaptic nerve cell.
- a depolarization would be detected at the axon hillock of the post synaptic nerve cell.
- a hyperpolarization would be detected at the axon hillock of the post synaptic nerve cell.
- there would most likely be little change to the potential at the axon hillock of the post synaptic nerve cell.
- the post synaptic nerve cell would not know what to do.
A: there would most likely be little change to the potential at the axon hillock of the post synaptic nerve cell.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle is/are:

W. noradrenaline.

X. acetylcholinesterase.

Y. adrenaline.

Z. acetylcholine.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord can innervate the __________ muscles.
- shoulder
- intercostal
- abdominal
- leg
- facial
A: leg

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

redistributes GSE, GVE and GSA nerve fibres to or from the upper limb?
A: b

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below

Respiratory responses during exercise of increasing intensity include increases in:
- ventilation up to about 25% VO_2 max, then remains constant with increasing exercise intensity.
- a dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin in active tissues.
- arterial PO_2.
- arterial PCO_2.
- breathing rate but not tidal volume.
A: a dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin in active tissues.

Q: For the question below, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers.

Which of the following is likely to occur at the neuromuscular junction resulting in transmission of excitation to the skeletal muscle fibre?

W. Calcium enters the axon terminal via voltage gated calcium channels.

X. The neurotransmitter ACh is released into the synaptic cleft.

Y. ACh binds to receptors on the motor end plate.

Z. ACh binding to its receptor results in depolarization of the sarcolemma called an end plate potential.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

The axon is labelled :
A: d

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The spinal cord consists of the following sections:

W) cervical

X) lumbar

Y) thoracic

Z) cranial
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

The axon hillock is labelled:
A: c

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

There are __________ pairs of cranial nerves.
- 2
- 6
- 10
- 12
- 31
A: 12

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The part of the pathway that transmits discriminative touch sensation is called the:
- Dorsal column / medial lemniscus tract
- spinocerebellar tract
- spinothalamic tract
- lateral corticospinal tract
- vestibulospinal tract
A: Dorsal column / medial lemniscus tract

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

General somatic afferent neurons would:
- transmit an impluse that would cause the smooth muscle of the stomach to contract
- transmit pain sensation from visceral organs
- transmit temperature sensation from skin
- transmit stretch sensation from the stomach
- transmit movement commands to the skeletal muscles in the upper limb
A: transmit temperature sensation from skin

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The part of the pathway that transmits the sensory modalities of pain and temperature is called the:
- dorsal column / medial lemniscus tract
- spinocerebellar tract
- spinothalamic tract
- lateral corticospinal tract
- vestibulospinal tract
A: spinothalamic tract

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures is at the proximal end of a bone and commences ossification after birth?
A: a

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Regarding thermoregulation in children (approximately 2-12 years) compared to adults:

W. children have a higher sweat rate in hot conditions.

X. children have less vasoconstriction in the cold.

Y. in extreme heat, children experience less heat gain.

Z. children have increased metabolic heat production in the cold.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The most important mechanism/s controlling the increase in ventilation during submaximal exercise is/are :

W. increasing PCO_2.

X. decreasing PO_2.

Y. feedback from skeletal muscle chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors.

Z. neural input from higher brain centres to the respiratory control centre.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Features of acclimatization to a very high altitude, where the partial pressure of oxygen (PO_2) is less than 60mmHg, include:
- an increase in the excretion of bicarbonate ion (HC0_3^-) by the kidneys.
- exhaustion due to the cold.
- suppression of breathing.
- a fall in the haematocrit.
- loss of appetite.
A: an increase in the excretion of bicarbonate ion (HC0_3^-) by the kidneys.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

During pregnancy:

W. heart rate increases progressively averaging a 15-20 beats per minute increase.

X. blood pressure falls in the first trimester.

Y. blood volume increases by 30-50%.

Z. total red blood cell volume increases more than total plasma volume.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Hyperventilation that occurs during pregnancy causes:
- stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low arterial PO_2.
- CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production.
- arterial pH to decrease.
- a significant increase in formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries.
- a reduction in the energy expenditure of respiratory muscles.
A: stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low arterial PO_2. / CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production.

Q: Refer to the diagrams below. For the incomplete statement, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

As the figure moves from squatting (diagram 1) to standing (diagram 2), the action at the hip joint is:

[Image]
- occurring in the transverse plane
- flexion
- occurring in the coronal plane
- extension
- hyperextension
A: extension

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures commences ossification before birth?
A: b

Q: Refer to the picture. For the question, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE and type the corresponding letter in the box below.

Which of the labelled structures is primarily composed of neural tissue?
A: b

Q: Enter Course Code/Course Title:

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures is:

part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and contains fibres from the thoracic spinal segments?
A: b

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

The schwann cell is labelled:
A: e

Q: In the following questions the same answer may be used more than once.

On the diagram below, which of the labelled structures:

1. is an example of a hinge joint?

2. allows for the movements abduction and adduction?

3. is made of a number of bones held together by sutures?

4. allows for movement in the coronal plane?
1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]
[Image]
A: b; e; a; e

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Sensory neurons of the PNS are:
- multipolar
- unipolar
- bipolar
- anaxonic
- tripolar
A: unipolar

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Despite the increase in maternal cardiac output during pregnancy, blood pressure is not higher than in a non-pregnant woman because:

W. the resting heart rate decreases.
X. there is generalized vasodilation.
Y. venous return decreases.
Z. development of a highly vascular placenta.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Cardiac output increases during both dynamic exercise and during pregnancy. The increase during pregnancy, UNLIKE dynamic exercise, is due mostly to the increase in:

W. heart rate.
X. blood volume.
Y. contractility of the heart.
Z. stroke volume.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

During pregnancy, the osmolarity of maternal body fluids differs from the body fluids of a non-pregnant woman. This change in osmolarity is caused by:

W. increased water reabsorption from the collecting ducts of the nephron.
X. increased secretion of sodium chloride into the nephron tubule.
Y. increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin.
Z. increased set-point (higher "osmostat") for osmolarity.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Hyperpnea is can be defined as:
- an increase in heart rate.
- a decrease in tidal volume.
- an increase in ventilation in response to metabolic needs.
- hyperventilation.
- a decrease in breathing rate.
A: an increase in ventilation in response to metabolic needs.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Hyperventilation that occurs during pregnancy causes:
- CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production.
- arterial pH to decrease.
- a significant increase in formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries.
- a reduction in the energy expenditure of respiratory muscles.
- stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low areterial PO_2.
A: CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production. / stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low areterial PO_2.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

VO_2 (maximal oxygen consumption) is:
- determined by the ability of the cardio-respiratory system to deliver oxygen to the contracting muscle, and the muscle’s ability to take up and use oxygen.
- the maximal rate at which oxygen can be taken up by the blood
- a useful measure of renal function.
- reached when an increases despite a constant power output.
- an indirect measure of pulmonary ventilation (minute ventilation)
A: determined by the ability of the cardio-respiratory system to deliver oxygen to the contracting muscle, and the muscle’s ability to take up and use oxygen.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Retention of sodium ions (Na^+) by the kidneys will result in:

W. Activation of the renin-angiotensin/aldosterone system.

X. Retention of water.

Y. A fall in mean arterial blood pressure (MAP).

 Z. An increase in the volume of extracellular fluid.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The temporary removal of carbon dioxide (CO_2) at a rate greater than its production results in:
- an increase in the concentration of bicarbonate ions (HC0_3^-)
- a temporary increase in concentration of hydrogen ions (H^+)
- a permanent change in renal handling of HC0_3^-.
- an increase in ventilation.
- respiratory alkalosis.
A: respiratory alkalosis.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Acclimatisation to the heat:

W. usually occurs within 7-14 days.

X. results in later onset of sweating.

Y. results in a higher sweat rate.

Z. results in decreased heat shock proteins in tissues.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

In healthy individuals breathing at sea level, changes in arterial PO_2:
- result in concious control of breathing rather than automatic control.
- are the most important stimulus for breathing.
- stimulate the peripheral chemoreceptors.
- have only a small effect on pulmonary ventilation.
- stimulate the central chemoreceptors.
A: have only a small effect on pulmonary ventilation.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

When body temperature rises, the heat loss centre in the hypothalamus is activated which leads to:

W. activation of sweat glands.

X. a reflex that causes increased radiation from the skin.

Y. dilation of skin blood vessels.

Z. a reflex that causes increased convection from the skin.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The resting membrane potential of a nerve cell is primarily due to:
- the sodium-potassium-ATP pump moving sodium into the cell.
- the sodium-potassium-ATP pump moving potassium out of the cell.
- a greater concentration of potassium outside the cell compared to inside the cell.
- a greater concentration of sodium inside the cell compared to outside the cell.
- the different permeability across the membrane of potassium and sodium ions.
A: the different permeability across the membrane of potassium and sodium ions.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Proprioceptive sense, that is detected by joint movement, is detected by:
- chemoreceptors
- mechanoreceptors
- photoreceptors
- nociceptors
- thermoreceptors
A: mechanoreceptors

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

is the structure that anchors the spinal cord in the vertebral canal?
A: e

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The only cranial nerves that are attached to the cerebrum are the __________ nerves.
- trigeminal
- oculomotor
- trochlear
- olfactory
- abducens
A: olfactory

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The role of acetylcholinesterase is to:

W. act as a transmitting agent.

X. amplify of enhance the effect of ACh.

Y. stimulate the production of ACh.

Z. inactivate acetylcholine after it has bound to its receptors.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

lies with the cauda equina?
A: e

Q: For the incomplete statement below, Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

An inhibitory post synaptic potential (IPSP):
- is a depolarization of the post synaptic membrane.
- is a hyperpolarization of the post synaptic membrane.
- always prevents an action potential on the post synaptic cell.
- raises the resting membrane potential of the post synaptic cell.
- lowers the threshold potential in the post synaptic cell.
A: is a hyperpolarization of the post synaptic membrane.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

is part of a cerebral hemisphere composed of white matter?
A: d

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A multipolar neuron whose cell body resides in the anterior horn of the spinal cord is classified functionally as:

W) afferent

X) motor

Y) sensory

Z) efferent
- if only W, X, Y and Z are correct.
- If only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

An ascending tract in the spinal cord:

W) forms part of a motor pathway

X) forms part of a sensory pathway

Y) will terminate in the frontal lobe of the brain

Z) can be found in the dorsal column
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: You will be provided with access to images of human cadaver material as a student enrolled in HBS1HBB at La Trobe University. These images will be available in the Library via a DVD describing the anatomy of the back or via the Insight program which shows images of sections of cadaver material.  These images are of cadaver material held at La Trobe University and are provided for private study purposes only.  Reproduction or transmission of these images in any form breaches your obligations under the Human Tissue Act (1982).

You also have access to potted cadaver specimens in the Bundoora Anatomy Resource Room - HS2 106.  Photographing these specimens also breaches your obligations under the Human Tissue Act.

Select A to show that you have read this statement and that you agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above.

If you do not agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act then you must select B.  In this case the Subject Coordinator or a Deputy subject coordinator will contact you to discuss this issue.
- I agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above. (During the semester please remember your obligations under the Human Tissue Act - no photography and no reproduction of the anatomical images on the image databank (Insight).)
- I do not agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above. (The subject coordinator or a deputy subject coordinator will be contacting you regarding your obligations under the Human Tissue Act as a student enrolled in HBS1HBB)
A: I agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above.

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Involuntary control of all smooth muscles is provided by the __________ nervous system.
- central
- peripheral
- afferent
- somatic
- autonomic
A: autonomic

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for this incomplete statement.

A plane which separates the body into a superior and an inferior part is called a:
- lateral plane
- sagittal plane
- parasagittal plane
- coronal plane
- transverse plane
A: transverse plane

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

 The ventral surface of the trunk is also its:
- superior surface.
- anterior surface.
- posterior surface.
- lateral surface.
- medial surface.
A: anterior surface.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

When standing in the anatomical position:
- the thumb is medial to the little finger.
- the patella is proximal to the hip joint.
- the heart is deep to the sternum.
- the hip joint is abducted.
- the knee joint is superficial to the toes.
A: the heart is deep to the sternum.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

 The ventral surface of the trunk is also its:
- medial surface.
- anterior surface.
- posterior surface.
- lateral surface.
- superior surface.
A: anterior surface.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

General X-rays:
- use non-ionizing radiation.
- are not a form of radiation.
- are at the lowest end of the electromagnetic spectrum.
- use ionizing radiation.
- are safer than ultrasound.
A: use ionizing radiation.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The end of a long bone (e.g., the head of the femur):
- is joined to the shaft of the bone by hyaline cartilage in a child.
- commences ossification prior to birth.
- is composed mainly of compact bone in the adult.
- ossifies mainly by intramembranous ossification.
- would be visible on an x-ray of a newborn child.
A: is joined to the shaft of the bone by hyaline cartilage in a child.

Q: The following relates to the movement at the joint labelled 2 on the diagram in Question 1. A small version of the diagram is shown below for reference.  For the large image go to Question 1.

The action occuring at this joint in moving from Diagram B to Diagram A is called [...]. The movement is occurring in a [...] plane. The muscle group most likely to be active during this movement is [...] (full name of muscle group required). During this movement the length of the named muscle will be [...]; therefore this type of contraction is called [...] contraction. This is [...] chain movement.

[Image: Standing sitting]
A: flexion; parasagittal / sagittal; quadriceps femoris; increasing / lengthening; an eccentric / eccentric; closed / a closed

Q: The photos below show a person seated in a chair (Diagram A) and then standing up (Diagram B). Name, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1 to 5 in the boxes provided for each labelled structure. Use the information below to help you name each structure/region.

1. names of the bones in this limb segment (one bone name per box with the medial bone first)

2. functional classification of synovial joint

3. name of synovial joint

4. body cavity in this region

5. body cavity in this region

1. [...][...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

[Image]
A: *tibia*; *fibula*; *hinge*; *hip*; *thoracic*; *abdominal*

Q: The following question relates to the movement at the joint labelled 2 in the diagram in Question 1 (small version of the picture shown below - for full version go to Question 1).

The movement that has occurred at this joint when the person in Diagram A moves to the position in Diagram B is called [...]. The muscle group most likely to be active during this movement is [...] (full name of muscle group required). During this movement the length of the muscle will be [...]; therefore the type of contraction that is occurring in the named muscle group is a [...] contraction.

 [Image: Standing and sitting]
A: extension; quadriceps femoris; decreasing / shortening; concentric

Principle: "The same muscle may act as a prime mover (= agonist) or an antagonist or a synergist or a fixator under different circumstances depending upon the movement to be achieved."

In the box below, describe how the principle written above applies to the muscle you have named in question 3 above.

Q: The force exerted by a contracting muscle on an object is called [...] [...]. Skeletal muscles are almost always slightly contracted even when in a relaxed state, this is referred to as [...] [...].
A: muscle; tension; muscle; tone

Q: A graded potential will cause the neurotransmitter to be released from the synaptic vesicles on the presynaptic membrane and therefore lead to the initiation of an action potential.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Principle: Neural pathways are usually named according to the origin and destination of the action potentials being transmitted along the nerve fibres.

Use the principle above to help you fill in the blanks in the following statement.

The second order neurons of the spinothalamic pathway synapse with the first order neurons in the [...] (2 words) of the [...] (2 words) and with the third order neurons in the [...]. The cell bodies of these second order neurons are located in the [...] (2 words).
A: posterior horn / dorsal horn; spinal cord; thalamus; dorsal horn / posterior horn

Q: The diagram below is of a neural pathway showing one transverse section of the spinal cord and one of the brainstem and one coronal section of part of the brain.

Name, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1-6 on the diagram.

Q1-4 - name the structure labelled as specifically as possible

Q5 requires the pathway that will pass through this structure.

Q6 - name the general area of the cortex labelled

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

6. [...] [Image]
A: thalamus; secondary afferent neuron; dorsal root ganglion; ventral horn; dorsal column; somatosensory cortex

Q: For the incomplete statement below, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct.

Mechanisms of heat production by the body include:

W. constriction of superficial blood vessels.
X. increased metabolic rate.
Y. formation of 'goosebumps'.
Z. shivering.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: Name the body cavity that the major blood vessel required above in Question 9 is located in.
A: *thoracic* / *posterior mediastinum*

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

One response to living in a hot environment is the development of an expanded extracellular volume. This response is best described as:
- physiology.
- pathology.
- adaptation.
- acclimatizaton.
- inherited change.
A: acclimatizaton.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct.

ADH is secreted in response to:

W. stressors.
X. a significant fall in blood pressure.
Y. a moderate or severe haemorrhage.
Z. increasing concentration (osmolarity) of plasma.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Physiological adaptations of the mother to pregnancy include:
- a decrease in metabolic rate.
- a decrease in skin blood flow.
- a decrease in resting heart rate.
- an increase in blood volume.
- an increase in mean systemic arterial blood pressure.
A: an increase in blood volume.

Q: In the following questions the same answer may be used more than once.

On the diagram below, which of the labelled structures:

1. plays a major role in preventing hyperextension of this region of the vertebral column?

2. provides an articular surface for a rib?

3. is a structure innervated by the anterior primary rami?

4. is a surface permitting rotation between adjacent vertebrae of this type?

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]
[Image]
A: b; a; e; d

Q: Below is a picture of a lateral view of part of the vertebral column with some associated soft tissue structures

[Image]

On this picture identify, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1-6.

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

6. [...]
A: *anterior longitudinal ligament* / *ventral longitudinal ligament*; *intervertebral disc* / *intervertebral disk*; *intervertebral foramen*; *articular process*; *costal facet*; *spinous process*

Q: Name one bony landmark seen on the diagram that you used to decide on the region you have given above
A: *costal facet* / *spinous process*

Describe the typical relationship of the major blood vessel identified above to the vertebral column in the region shown in the diagram.
Feedback: Lateral to the vertebral column (on the left)

Q: Name the major blood vessel that would send branches to supply the muscles lying posterior to the vertebral column discussed above.
A: *thoracic aorta* / *descending aorta*

Q: Through which bony opening would the nerve fibre identified in Question 7 above have to pass to leave the vertebral canal?
A: *intervertebral foramen*

Q: Name in order the components of the peripheral nervous system a nerve fibre would lie in from the spinal cord (i.e., once it left the spinal cord) to produce contraction of the muscles lying posterior to the vertebral column discussed above.

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]
A: *ventral root* / *anterior root*; *spinal nerve*; *dorsal primary ramus* / *posterior primary ramus* / dorsal ramus* / *posterior ramus*; *muscular branch*

Q: For the muscles identified above (in question 5, i.e. muscles lying posterior to the vertebrae on the diagram), state from which part of the developing myotomes they are derived.
A: *epimere*
Feedback ("*epimere*"): Muscles that are derived from the epimere become muscles of the back.

Q: State the normal action of muscles that would lie posterior to the vertebrae shown on the diagram.
A: *extension*
Feedback ("*extension*"): extension of the vertebral column

Explain why you used this particular bony landmark to decide on this region.
Feedback: Costal facets - are present in the thoracic region only as they are for rib articulation. Spinous process - angled inferiorly (~ 45°). Spinous processes in other regions more horizontal than this.

Q: Name the region of the vertebral column in which these two vertebrae would be found.
A: *thoracic*

Q: A neurovascular bundle running in the superficial fascia over the back will only contain lymphatic vessels, a cutaneous nerve and a superficial vein.
- true
- false
A: true
Feedback: Deep neurovascular bundles include the artery which is not found in superficial neurovascular bundles.

Q: Collagen fibres within the skin provide protection by preventing many of the small scratches and bumps we receive during the day from tearing the dermis.
- true
- false
A: true

Q: State the normal action on the vertebral column of muscles lying posterior to the vertebral column
A: *extension*

Q: Skin covering the vertebral column receives its innervation via the [...] (2 words) of a [...] nerve.
A: posterior primary ramus / dorsal primary ramus / posterior ramus / dorsal ramus; spinal

Use two characteristics of the vertebral column visible on the pictures shown above to explain why you chose the region you have named in Question 2.

Q: Temperature receptors found in the skin lying over the vertebral column will send information back to the spinal cord via special sensory afferent fibres.
- true
- false
A: false
Feedback: This information will travel in general somatic afferent fibres. Special sensory fibres carry vision, hearing, taste, balance and smell.

Q: The smooth muscle found within blood vessels supplying the skin of the back is innervated by postganglionic parasympathetic fibres (GVE).
- true
- false
A: false

Q: Using the characteristics of the vertebral column visible on the pictures above, name the region of the vertebral column in which these vertebrae would be found.
A: *lumbar*

Q: A cutaneous branch of a nerve innervating the back will carry somatic motor efferent fibres and somatic sensory afferent fibres.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: For the muscles indicated in question 4 (lying posterior to the vertebral column), state from which part of the developing myotomes they are derived.
A: *epimere*

Q: Below is a picture of a transverse section through the same region of the body as the 3 adjacent vertebrae shown in the diagram alongside. Both the picture and the diagram show bony components as well as soft tissue components.

On these pictures identify, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1-6, using the additional information below to aid in their specific identification.

1 - a specific component of overall structure

2 - an anatomical opening

3 - the name of the joint circled

4 - the name of the group of structures

5 - the name of the structure

6 - the name of the structure

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

6. [...]
[Image]
A: anulus fibrosus; intervertebral foramen; facet; erector spinae; vertebral body; spinous process

Q: In the first workshop, we noted that the heart rate of the older hiker, Brian, increased from a resting value of 62 beats per minute to 149 beats per minute as he climbed to the mountain peak during a training trip in the Victorian Alps. Other changes would have occurred within his cardiovascular system.

Select from the list below THREE (3) correct statements that describe what you would expect to occur within the cardiovascular system as Brian climbed to the mountain peak. Values should be compared with expected values “at rest”.

Type the letter of the correct statement in the answer box.  Use a different box per answer.  Order does not matter.

1. Stroke volume would increase by the same amount as heart rate
2. Cardiac output would increase
3. Mean arterial blood pressure would increase by the same amount as heart rate
4. Systolic blood pressure would increase
5. Diastolic blood pressure would be the same
6. Peripheral resistance would increase

1. [...]
2. [...]
3. [...]
A: D / E / B; D / E / B; D / E / B

Q: Fill in the blanks in the sentences below by using single words.

The increase in ventilation that occurs at very high altitudes is called [...].

If Brian and the other hikers were to spend several weeks exploring the mountainous area around Kala Patthar, you would predict that an increase in oxygen carrying capacity of their blood would occur.

The stimulus that initiates the development of polycythemia is [...].

The general term that describes an improvement in physiological functioning in response to continued exposure to a particular environment is called [...].
A: hyperventilation; hypoxia; acclimatisation / acclimatization

Q: Fill in the blanks in the sentences below by using a single word for each answer.

The increase in ventilation that occurs at very high altitudes is called [...].

If Brian and the other hikers were to spend several weeks exploring the mountainous area around Kala Patthar, you would predict that there would be an increase in oxygen carrying capacity of their blood. The increase in oxygen carrying capacity of the blood is due to stimulation of a process called [...].

The general term that describes an improvement in physiological functioning in response to continued exposure to a particular environment is called [...].
A: hyperventilation; erythropoiesis; acclimatisation / acclimatization

Q: Fill in the blanks in the sentences below by selecting the correct alternatives from the choices shown in the brackets following each blank box.

The increase in alveolar ventilation that occurs at very high altitudes results in a [...] (increase/decrease) in PCO_2 of arterial blood.  This has the effect of [...] (increasing/decreasing) the hydrogen ion concentration of arterial blood plasma.  The pH of arterial blood plasma will therefore [...] (increase/decrease).  This condition is referred to as [...] (respiratory acidosis/respiratory alkalosis/metabolic acidosis/metabolic alkalosis).
A: decrease; decreasing; increase; respiratory alkalosis

Q: The increase in alveolar ventilation that occurs at very high altitudes results in a disturbance of acid-base balance.

Examine the flow-chart below, which sets out the causal links from initial stimulus to end result. Fill in the answers by placing the selected letter of the item from the list below in the correct box.

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...] [Image]
A: C; F; G; J

Q: When the hikers go to Nepal, they hope to reach the summit of Mount Kala Patthar, about 5,600 metres above sea level and twice the altitude of Mount Kosciuszko. At this altitude, their breathing depth and rate will be greatly increased.

Examine the flow-chart below which sets out the causal links from initial stimulus to end result of an increase in alveolar ventilation, but which has some missing steps.

Complete the links by typing the letter of the relevant item from the list below in the correct answer box (1-4).

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...] [Image]
A: F; B; E; G

Q: Name the specific type of contraction that has occurred in the muscle (or muscle group) you have named above.
A: concentric

Explain why you choose that functional shape for the hip joint.

Q: State the movement that has occurred at the hip joint to bring the left lower limb into the position shown on the diagram.
A: flexion

Q: Physiologists are interested in explaining the cause of changes that occur during exercise.

Fill in the boxes by matching the listed variables with THE MOST correct explanation from the list below.  An explanation may be used more than once.  Use the letter of the explanation to fill in the boxes.

List of explanations to choose from:

1. Metabolites cause vasodilation
2. Contracting skeletal muscles require more oxygen
3. Increase in heart rate
4. Decrease in parasympathetic stimulation
5. Skeletal muscle pump action
6. Decrease in end-systolic volume in the ventricles

Variable:  Increase in heart rate.   Explanation:  [...]

Variable:  Increase in venous return.   Explanation:  [...]

Variable:  Decrease in "filling time" for the ventricles.   Explanation:  [...]

Variable:  Increase in blood flow to skeletal muscles of the lower limb.  Explanation:  [...]
A: d; e; c; a

Write out one principle that applies to this activity.

Q: State whether the movement of the lower limb is an open or closed chain movement.
A: open

Q: The hikers plan to be at Kala Patthar in Nepal during mid-December when the temperatures at night can dip to as low as -25° C.  Sleeping bags available in Australia have insulating capacity to -5° C, so the hikers have been advised to bring their own sleeping bags and then to rent additional sleeping bags with adequate insulating capacity once they arrive in Nepal.

Complete the following sentences by selecting one correct term for each space from the following list.

 • radiation

• conduction

• convection

• evaporation

• cutaneous vasodilation

• cutaneous vasoconstriction

• shivering

• hypothermia

• hyperthermia

• fever

If the hikers were to use only the sleeping bags with insulating capacity to -5° C in the very cold environment at 5,600 metres above sea level, then overnight they would be likely to lose a significant amount of body heat mostly by [...].  If the additional heat lost was not matched by an equal increase in heat gained by [...], then the hikers run the risk of developing [...].
A: conduction / radiation; shivering; hypothermia

Define polycythaemia.

State one probable benefit of polycythaemia at high altitude.

Explain how polycythaemia of high altitude occurs.

Q: For the diagram of a spinal segment and associated peripheral structures shown below, match the number of the structure on the diagram with its name in the list. [Image]
- sympathetic chain | 6
- sympathetic ganglion | 9
- rami communicans | 8
- visceral sympathetic branch | 10
- spinal nerve | 7
- ventral horn | 3
- dorsal horn | 1
- lateral horn | 2
- ventral root | 5
- dorsal root | 4

Q: Use the boxes below to list, in order, the course of a preganglionic neurone from its cell body to its synapse with the post-ganglionic neurone.

Use the list of structures given in Question 1 to find your answers.
1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]
A: lateral horn; ventral root; spinal nerve; rami communicans; sympathetic ganglion

Explain why you have chosen that contraction type.

Q: State the plane that the movement you described above has occurred in.
A: *sagittal*

Show how the principle you wrote out above applies to this activity.

Q: State the functional shape of the hip joint.
A: ball and socket

Explain why you have chosen the histological classification you did for the hip joint.

State the origin of the muscle (or muscle group) you have named above.

State the insertion of the muscle (or muscle group) you have named above.

Q: Study the diagram below and fill in the answers for the movement that has occurred at the hip joint while moving the left lower limb from lying on the floor to up in the air (as indicated by the arrow).

State the histological classification of the hip joint.
A: synovial

Q: Name the major muscle (or muscle group) active during the movement you named above.
A: iliopsoas

Q: Name the region of the vertebral column this vertebra would be found in.
A: thoracic

Q: Name the branch of a spinal nerve that will innervate the muscles causing extension of the vertebral column.
A: dorsal primary ramus

Q: Name two different structures that will form synovial joints with the vertebra shown in the photo.
1. [...]
2. [...]
A: facet on inferior articular process of superior vertebra / rib; facet on inferior articular process of superior vertebra / rib

Q: Name two other structures (apart from skeletal muscle) that nerve fibres travelling in the branch of the spinal nerve named above will innervate.
1. [...]
2. [...]
A: receptors in skin of back / blood vessels; receptors in skin of back / blood vessels

Q: Below is a photo of a superior view of a vertebra.

Identify, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1-5 on the photo.

The following points are to help you in your identification of the features:

1 - name of structure

2 - name of structure indicated by the curved line

3 - name of specific area line is pointing to

4 - name of anatomical space

Label 5 refers to questions 5 and 6

5 - name of part of the vertebra

6 - type of bone found in this specific location
1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

6. [...]
[Image]
A: spinous process; vertebral arch; costal facet; vertebral foramen; body; cancellous

Q: For a somatic sensory neurone:

1. state whether it is classified as an afferent or efferent nerve fibre.

2. state whether an anatomical structure innervated by this fibre is a receptor or an effector organ.

3. name one type of sensation which might be transmitted by this nerve fibre from the skin.
1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]
A: afferent; receptor; temperature

Q: From the list below choose the structures that a post-ganglionic sympathetic neurone which carries information to small arterioles within joint tissues innervated by peripheral nerve A would travel through. Make sure you work from the cell body towards the arteriole being innervated.

List of structures:

articular branch

vascular branch

peripheral nerve A

posterior division

anterior division

ventral primary ramus

spinal nerve

ramus communicans

sympathetic ganglion

dorsal root ganglion

ventral root

lateral horn

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

6. [...]
A: sympathetic ganglion; ramus communicans; spinal nerve; posterior division; peripheral nerve A; articular branch

Q: Below is a schematic diagram of the spinal cord and a simple nerve plexus.

Identify, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1-6 on the diagram.

When identifying structure 1 the specific part of the spinal cord is required.
1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

6. [...]
[Image]
A: ventral horn; sympathetic chain; dorsal primary ramus; anterior division; ramus communicans; dorsal root ganglion

Q: From the list below, choose the appropriate structures that a somatic sensory neurone which carries information from the skin of the back will travel through to enter the spinal cord.

Make sure your answers are in the correct order.

Choose from:

cutaneous branch of peripheral nerve A

dorsal root ganglion

dorsal horn

dorsal primary ramus

spinal nerve

ventral primary ramus

posterior division

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]
A: dorsal primary ramus; spinal nerve; dorsal root ganglion; dorsal root; dorsal horn

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The flexor reflex (= withdrawal reflex):
- makes adjustments in other parts of the body in response to a particular stimulus
- prevents a muscle from overstretching
- prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension
- moves a limb away from a painful stimulus
- is an example of a monosynaptic reflex
A: moves a limb away from a painful stimulus

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Proprioceptive sense, that is detected by joint movement, is detected by:
- mechanoreceptors
- chemoreceptors
- photoreceptors
- nociceptors
- thermoreceptors
A: mechanoreceptors

Q: Enter details on which group range you would like to swap to: (e.g. A9-16)

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A unipolar neuron whose cell body resides in a dorsal root ganglion is classified functionally as:

W) afferent

X) efferent

Y) sensory

Z) motor
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A multipolar neuron whose cell body resides in the anterior horn of the spinal cord is classified functionally as:

W) afferent

X) motor

Y) sensory

Z) efferent
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only W, X, Y and Z are correct.
- If only W and Y are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The diencephalon is composed of the following parts:

W) hypothalamus

X) pituitary gland

Y) thalamus

Z) pineal gland
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Sensory neurons of the PNS are:
- tripolar
- unipolar
- bipolar
- anaxonic
- multipolar
A: unipolar

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

VO_2 (maximal oxygen consumption) is:
- determined by the ability of the cardio-respiratory system to deliver oxygen to the contracting muscle, and the muscle’s ability to take up and use oxygen.
- the maximal rate at which oxygen can be taken up by the blood.
- a useful measure of renal function.
- reached when oxygen uptake increases despite a constant power output.
- an indirect measure of pulmonary ventilation (minute ventilation).
A: determined by the ability of the cardio-respiratory system to deliver oxygen to the contracting muscle, and the muscle’s ability to take up and use oxygen.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The increase in cardiac output during exercise is achieved by:
- an increase in stroke volume only.
- a decrease in stroke volume and heart rate.
- an increase in heart rate, and a decrease in stroke volume.
- an increase in stroke volume and heart rate.
- an increase in heart rate only.
A: an increase in stroke volume and heart rate.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

During intense exercise, oxygen use in skeletal muscle increases many times over the resting value. Increased oxygen delivery to skeletal muscle is accomplished by:
- increased cardiac output, and redistribution of blood flow from inactive organs to the working skeletal muscle.
- increasing the oxygen content of arterial blood above that of rest.
- an increase in heart rate only.
- increased resistance of blood vessels in skeletal muscle.
- decreasing the carbon dioxide content of venous blood.
A: increased cardiac output, and redistribution of blood flow from inactive organs to the working skeletal muscle.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Suppression of alveolar ventilation (for example, by a drug) will result in:
- a permanent change in gas exchange in the lungs.
- removal of carbon dioxide (CO_2) at a rate greater than its production.
- retention of carbon dioxide (CO_2).
- retention of oxygen (O_2).
- respiratory alkalosis.
A: retention of carbon dioxide (CO_2).

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Hyperventilation that occurs during pregnancy causes:
- a significant increase in formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries.
- CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production.
- arterial pH to decrease.
- a reduction in the energy expenditure of respiratory muscles.
- stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low arterial PO_2.
A: CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production. / stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low arterial PO_2.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Factors contributing to the maintenance of mean arterial blood pressure (MAP) following loss of blood volume include:

W. conservation of sodium ions (Na+) and water.

X. inhibition of thirst.

Y. a reduction in blood flow to some organs.

Z. inhibition of the effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin.
- if only Z is correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Retention of sodium ions (Na^+) by the kidneys will result in:

W. activation of the renin-angiotensin/aldosterone system.

X. retention of water.

Y. a fall in mean arterial blood pressure (MAP).

 Z. an increase in the volume of extracellular fluid.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the statement.

A plane which separates the body into an anterior and a posterior part is called a:
- sagittal plane
- lateral plane
- horizontal plane
- coronal/frontal plane
- transverse plane
A: coronal/frontal plane

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for this incomplete statement:

A plane which separates the body into unequal right and left parts is called a:
- median plane
- transverse plane
- midsagittal plane
- coronal/frontal plane
- parasagittal plane
A: parasagittal plane

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for this incomplete statement.

A plane which separates the body into a superior and an inferior part is called a:
- sagittal plane
- lateral plane
- parasagittal plane
- coronal/frontal plane
- transverse plane
A: transverse plane

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

[Image]

The cell body is labelled:
A: b

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A neuron that is directly attached to a skeletal muscle is an example of a:
- GSE type neuron
- GVE type neuron
- SSA type neuron
- GSA type neuron
- GVA type neuron
A: GSE type neuron

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A neuron that transmits pain information from the foot is an example of a:
- GSE type neurone
- GVE type neurone
- ﻿﻿﻿﻿﻿SSA type neurone
- GSA type neurone
- GVA type neurone
A: GSA type neurone

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A neurone that carries temperature information from the skin on the cheek is an example of a:
- GSE type neuron
- GVE type neuron
- SSA type neuron
- GSA type neuron
- GVA type neuron
A: GSA type neuron

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A neuron that senses stretch from the walls of the bladder is an example of a:
- GSE type neuron
- GVE type neuron
- SSA type neuron
- GSA type neuron
- GVA type neuron
A: GVA type neuron

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A neuron that synapses with the fibres of the Gluteus Maximus muscle is an example of a:
- GSE type neuron
- GVE type neuron
- SSA type neuron
- GSA type neuron
- GVA type neuron
A: GSE type neuron

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A neuron that stimulates a gland to secrete its contents is an example of a:
- GSE type neuron
- SVE type neuron
- SSA type neuron
- GSA type neuron
- GVA type neuron
A: SVE type neuron

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A neuron that would stimulate a blood vessel wall to contract to narrow the vessel is an example of a:
- GSE type neurone
- GVE type neurone
- SSA type neurone
- GSA type neuron
- GVA type neuron
A: GVE type neurone

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The corticospinal pathway fibres:

W. are part of a descending pathway.

X. are for the control of voluntary movements.

Y. travel in the white matter of the spinal cord.

Z. can be found in the dorsal column.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct
A: if only W, X and Y are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The dorsal column pathway fibres:

W. are part of a descending pathway.

X. travel in the white matter of the spinal cord.

Y. are for the control of voluntary movements.

Z. can be found in the dorsal column.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct
A: if only X and Z are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The spinothalamic pathway fibres:

W. are part of an ascending pathway.

X. travel in the white matter of the spinal cord.

Y. transmit the modalities pain and temperature.

Z. can be found in the dorsal column.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- If only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct
A: if only W, X and Y are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The spinothalamic pathway fibres:

W. carry Somatosensory information.

X. travel in the grey matter of the spinal cord.

Y. transmit the modalities pain and temperature.

Z. can be found in the dorsal column.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct
A: if only W and Y are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The dorsal column pathway fibres:

W. transmit Somatosensory information.

X. travel in the grey matter of the spinal cord.

Y. decussate in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem.

Z. can be found in the anterior column.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- If only Z is correct
- if all are correct
A: if only W and Y are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The spinothalamic pathway fibres:

W. are part of an ascending pathway.

X. travel in the white matter of the spinal cord.

Y. transmit the modalities pain and temperature.

Z. can be found in the dorsal column.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- If only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct
A: if only W, X and Y are correct

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is comprised of connective tissue?
A: c

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The dorsal column pathway fibres:

W. transmit Somatosensory information.

X. travel in the grey matter of the spinal cord.

Y. decussate in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem.

Z. can be found in the anterior column.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if all are correct
A: if only W and Y are correct

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is a part of the brain responsible for co-ordination of movement?
A: e

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is a tissue consisting of largely neuronal cell bodies?
A: b

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is in a cerebral hemisphere and is composed of white matter?
A: d

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

is a part of the brain responsible for co-ordination of movement?
A: e

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is part of the brain stem?
A: a

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is part of a cerebral hemisphere composed of white matter?
A: d

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

is a tissue consisting of largely neuronal cell bodies?
A: b

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

is part of a cerebral hemisphere composed of white matter?
A: d

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

On the diagram below, which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

is part of the brain stem?
A: a

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

is comprised of connective tissue?
A: c

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Sensory neurons of the PNS are:
- unipolar
- bipolar
- anaxonic
- multipolar
- tripolar
A: unipolar

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Involuntary control of all smooth muscles is provided by the __________ nervous system.
- afferent
- central
- peripheral
- somatic
- autonomic
A: autonomic

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the statement.

A plane which separates the body into an anterior and a posterior part is called a:
- coronal plane
- lateral plane
- sagittal plane
- horizontal plane
- transverse plane
A: coronal plane

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting neurone differs from the external environment in that the interior is:
- positively charged and contains more potassium.
- positively charged and contains less sodium.
- negatively charged and contains more sodium.
- negatively charged and contains more potassium.
- negatively charged and contains less potassium.
A: negatively charged and contains more potassium.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The resting membrane potential of a nerve cell is primarily due to:
- a greater concentration of sodium inside the cell compared to outside the cell.
- the sodium-potassium-ATP pump moving sodium into the cell.
- the sodium-potassium-ATP pump moving potassium out of the cell.
- a greater concentration of potassium outside the cell compared to inside the cell.
- the different permeability across the membrane of potassium and sodium ions.
A: the different permeability across the membrane of potassium and sodium ions.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

During the falling (repolarization) phase of the action potential:

W. voltage gated sodium channels are fully open.

X. voltage gated potassium channels are open.

Y. sodium ions move into the cell.

Z. potassium ions move out of the cell.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: You will be provided with access to images of human cadaver material as a student enrolled in HBS1HBB at La Trobe University. These images will be available in the Library via a DVD describing the anatomy of the back or via the Insight program which shows images of sections of cadaver material.  These images are of cadaver material held at La Trobe University and are provided for private study purposes only.  Reproduction or transmission of these images in any form breaches your obligations under the Human Tissue Act (1982).

You also have access to potted cadaver specimens in the Bundoora Anatomy Resource Room - HS2 106.  Photographing these specimens also breaches your obligations under the Human Tissue Act.

Select A to show that you have read this statement and that you agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above.

If you do not agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act then you must select B.  In this case the Subject Coordinator or a Deputy subject coordinator will contact you to discuss this issue.
- I agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above. (During the semester please remember your obligations under the Human Tissue Act - no photography and no reproduction of the anatomical images on the image databank (Insight).)
- I do not agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above. (The subject coordinator or a deputy subject coordinator will be contacting you regarding your obligations under the Human Tissue Act as a student enrolled in HBS1HBB.)
A: I agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above.

Q: Enter Student Id:

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested responses given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Responses to a stressor are likely to include an increase in:

W. mean arterial pressure (MAP).

X. secretion of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH).

Y. sympathetic nervous system activity.

Z. parasympathetic nervous system activity.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Despite the increase in maternal cardiac output during pregnancy, blood pressure is not higher than in a non-pregnant woman because:

W. receptors for the hormone, progresterone.
X. a decreased resistance to flow.
Y. an increase in metabolic rate.
Z. receptors for the hormone, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Despite the increase in maternal cardiac output during pregnancy, blood pressure is not higher than in a non-pregnant woman because:

W. receptors for the hormone, progresterone.
X. a decreased resistance to flow.
Y. an increase in metabolic rate.
Z. receptors for the hormone, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

During intense exercise, oxygen use in skeletal muscle increases many times over the resting value. Increased oxygen delivery to skeletal muscle is accomplished by:
- increased resistance of blood vessels in skeletal muscle.
- an increase in heart rate only.
- increasing the oxygen content of arterial blood above that of rest.
- decreasing the carbon dioxide content of venous blood.
- increased cardiac output, and redistribution of blood flow from inactive organs to the working skeletal muscle.
A: increased cardiac output, and redistribution of blood flow from inactive organs to the working skeletal muscle.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

During pregnancy there is increased blood flow to maternal tissues that have:

W. receptors for the hormone, progresterone.
X. a decreased resistance to flow.
Y. an increase in metabolic rate.
Z. receptors for the hormone, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below

Respiratory responses during exercise of increasing intensity include increases in:
- breathing rate but not tidal volume.
- arterial PCO_2.
- a dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin in active tissues.
- arterial PO_2.
- ventilation up to about 25% VO_2 max, then remains constant with increasing exercise intensity.
A: a dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin in active tissues.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the question below.

What is believed to be the major stimulus causing the marked rise in ventilation during HIGH INTENSTIY incremental exercise?
- A decreased blood pH caused by increased lactic acid derived from the exercising muscle.
- A decreased blood pH caused by hyperventilation.
- An increased blood pH caused by increased lactic acid derived from the exercising muscle.
- Hyperpnea.
- An increase in arterial PCO_2.
A: A decreased blood pH caused by increased lactic acid derived from the exercising muscle.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

An excitatory post synaptic potential (EPSP):
- is a hyperpolarization of the post synaptic membrane.
- is a depolarization of the post synaptic membrane.
- always results in an action potential on the post synaptic cell.
- lowers the resting membrane potential of the post synaptic cell.
- raises the threshold potential in the post synaptic cell.
A: is a depolarization of the post synaptic membrane.

Q: Enter Course code/Course title

Q: Match the molecules or ions to an action they will perform/initiate at a neuromuscular junction.
- acetylcholine molecules | are released into the synaptic cleft when an action potential reaches the axon terminal
- sodium ions | enter the muscle fibre through voltage-gated channels during depolarization
- potassium ions | diffuse out of the cell to cause repolarization of the sarcolemma
- acetylcholinesterase molecules | stop the muscle fibre contraction in the absence of additional nerve impulses.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

At the end of a prolonged period of complete bed rest, "orthostatic intolerance" is expected because, on standing, there is a smaller:

W. blood plasma volume.
X. increase in heart rate.
Y. vasoconstrictor response to sympathetic stimulation.
Z. red blood cell volume.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Which of the following IS NOT a function of the intervertebral discs?
- act as shock absorbers.
- prevent bone-to-bone contact.
- lubricate the joint.
- contribute to the height of the individual.
- allow the movements associated with flexion and rotation of the vertebral column.
A: lubricate the joint.

Q: For each of the questions or incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given may be correct.

Structures which contribute to the protection of the spinal cord include:

W. vertebral bodies and arches.
X. cerebrospinal fluid.
Y. meninges.
Z. fat.
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct.
A: if all are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Sensory and motor innervation of the skin of the lateral and anterior aspects of the trunk are provided by the:
- sympathetic trunk.
- lateral horn of the spinal cord.
- dorsal ramus of a spinal nerve.
- ventral ramus of a spinal nerve.
- cranial nerves.
A: ventral ramus of a spinal nerve.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Girdles:
- are part of the axial skeleton.
- consist of two bones fused together.
- are freely moveable.
- articulate by ball and socket joints with the proximal bone of the respective limbs.
- have no muscle attachments.
A: articulate by ball and socket joints with the proximal bone of the respective limbs.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The anatomical term that means towards the head is:
- dorsal
- cranial
- caudal
- proximal
- distal
A: cranial

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for this question.

Which of the following structures lies in the midsagittal plane?
- nipple
- eye
- ear
- chin
- cheek
A: chin

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Natural background radiation in Australia is approximately:
- 4 mSv
- 500 Sv
- 500 rad
- 1.0 mSv
- 2.6 mSv
A: 2.6 mSv

Q: The photos below show a person seated in a chair(diagram A) and then standing up (diagram B). Name, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1 to 5 in the boxes provided. Use the information below to help you name each structure/region.

1. names of the bones in this limb segment

2. functional classification of synovial joint

3. name of synovial joint

4. body cavity in this region

5. body cavity in this region
1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]
[Image]
A: tibia and fibula; hinge; hip; thoracic; abdominal

Q: Principle "The name of a muscle reflects its structure and or functions (e.g. shape, size, orientation, location, attachments, action).

 Using the ideas in this principle, match the words taken from the names of muscles to their meanings.
- pectoralis | breast
- quadriceps | four heads
- latissimus | wide, broad
- deltoid | triangular
- rectus | straight
- sartorius | tailor

Q: The following question relates to the movement at the joint labelled 2 in the diagram above. The movement that has occurred at this joint when the person in Diagram A moves to the position in Diagram B is called [...]. The muscle group most likely to be active during this movement is [...]. During this movement the length of the muscle will be [...]; therefore the type of contraction that is occurring in the named muscle group is [...] contraction.
A: extension; quadriceps femoris; shortening / decreasing; concentric / a concentric

Q: Principle: Neural pathways are usually named according to the origin and destination of the action potentials being transmitted along the nerve fibres.

Use the principle above to help you fill in the blanks in the following statement.

The second order neurons of the spinothalamic pathway synapse with the first order neurons in the [...] (2 words) of the [...] (2 words) and with the third order neurons in the [...]. The cell bodies of these second order neurons are located in the [...] (2 words).
A: dorsal horn / posterior horn; spinal cord; thalamus; dorsal horn / posterior horn

Q: The diagram below is of a neural pathway showing one transverse section of the spinal cord and one of the brainstem and one coronal section of part of the brain.

Name, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1-6 on the diagram.

Q1-4 - name the structure labelled as specifically as possible

Q5 requires the pathway that will pass through this structure.

Q6 - name the general area of the cortex labelled

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

6. [...] [Image]
A: thalamus; secondary afferent neuron; dorsal root ganglion; ventral horn; dorsal column; somatosensory

Q: A graded potential will cause the neurotransmitter to be released from the synaptic vesicles on the presynaptic membrane and therefore lead to the initiation of an action potential.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: Match the peripheral nervous structure with a nerve fibre type found within that structure.
- olfactory nerve | special sensory afferent
- abducens nerve | general somatic efferent
- white rami communicantes | general visceral efferent
- a cutaneous branch of the femoral nerve (the fibre type carrying impulses to the spinal cord) | general somatic afferent
- a vascular branch of the femoral nerve (the fibre type carrying impluses towards the spinal cord) | general visceral afferent

Q: Match the pathways shown below with the type of information that will travel in that pathway.
- spinothalamic pathway | pain
- dorsal column pathway | discriminative touch

Q: Indicate the structures a general somatic afferent fibre will travel through from a stretch receptor in quadriceps femoris to the spinal cord.

From quadriceps femoris it will pass along a [...] branch of the nerve to the [...] nerve. It will then travel back along this nerve to the lumbar plexus where it will pass through a [...] division of the plexus to the[...] primary ramus. It will then pass into a [...] (2 words) and then the  [...] root before entering the [...] (2 words) of the spinal cord.
A: muscular; femoral; posterior; anterior / ventral; spinal nerve; dorsal; dorsal horn / posterior horn / gray matter / lumbar region

Q: Indicate the structures a general somatic efferent fibre will travel through from the spinal cord to the femoral nerve in order to innervate the quadriceps femoris muscle.

Its cell body will lie in the [...] (2 words). It will leave the spinal cord via the [...] (2 words). It will travel with other general somatic efferent fibres, general somatic afferent fibres and general visceral efferent fibres in a [...] (2 words). It will pass through the [...] primary ramus and then through its [...] division to the femoral nerve. It will then travel along a [...]branch of the femoral nerve to innervate the qudriceps muscle.
A: ventral horn / anterior horn; ventral root / anterior root; spinal nerve; anterior / ventral; anterior / posterior; muscular

Q: Principle: Neural pathways are usually named according to the origin and destination of the action potentials being transmitted along the nerve fibres.

Use the principle above to help you fill in the blanks in the following statement.

When considering information from the hand, the second order neurons of the dorsal column pathway synapse with the first order neurons in the [...] (2 words) which is found in the [...] (2 words)  and with the third order neurons in the [...]. The third order neurons terminate in the [...] (3 words).  One type of sensation that could be carried in this pathway is [...].
A: cuneate nucleus / nucleus cuneatus / medulla oblongata; medulla oblongata / brain stem; thalamus; primary somatosensory cortex; discriminative touch / proprioception / conscious proprioception / stretch / body sense / limb and joint position / pressure

Q: The vagus nerve carries both preganglionic sympathetic and preganglionic parasympathetic fibres as it leaves the brain.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: There are no parasympathetic nerve fibres innervating the structures of the body wall and limbs.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Grey rami communicans carry the preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibres to the sympathetic ganglion.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic fibres are found in spinal levels T1 - L2.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Postganglionic sympathetic fibres synapse with the cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic neurons outside the central nervous system.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Cell bodies of postganglionic parasympathetic fibres are found located near the spinal cord.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Match the peripheral nervous structure with a nerve fibre type found within that structure.
- trochlear nerve | general somatic efferent
- white rami communicantes | general visceral efferent
- A cutaneous branch of the median nerve (the fibre type carrying information about pressure) | general somatic afferent
- optic nerve | special afferent
Also offered: special somatic efferent

While putting down a heavy box you accidently jam your little finger under the box.  Name the spinal level initially receiving the pain information from the little finger.  Describe how you determined this and why only one spinal level is involved.

For the neurons drawn on the diagram, name the type of reflex that is shown and describe why you have chosen that type of reflex.  Suggest which muscle in the upper limb (not shoulder) is being tested and the movement that would occur when the reflex is initiated and describe why you have chosen that muscle and movement.

Q: The diagram below is of the brachial plexus and associated neural structures.  It also shows the pathway of 2 neurones.

Name, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1-6 on the diagram.

For Q1-4 & 6 name the structures as specifically as possible

For Q5 name the nerve fibre type (3 letter system)

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

6. [...]

[Image]
A: *dorsal root ganglion* / *spinal ganglion*; *inferior trunk* / *lower trunk*; *posterior division* / *dorsal division*; *ulnar nerve*; *GSA*; *dorsal primary ramus* / *dorsal ramus* / *posterior primary ramus* / *posterior ramus*

Q: The diagram below is of the brachial plexus and associated neural structures.  It also shows the pathway of 2 neurones.

Name, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1-6 on the diagram.

For Q1-4 & 6 name the structures as specifically as possible

For Q5 name the nerve fibre type (3 letter system)

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

6. [...]

[Image]
A: *dorsal root ganglion* / *spinal ganglion*; *inferior trunk* / *lower trunk*; *posterior division*; *ulnar nerve*; *GSA*; *dorsal primary ramus* / "dorsal ramus* / *posterior primary ramus* / *posterior ramus*

Q: For the incomplete statement below, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct.

Qualities of fetal blood which adapt the fetus to life 'in utero' include:

W. a red blood cell count higher than that during childhood.

X. a type of haemoglobin (HbF) which has a high affinity for oxygen at low partial pressure of oxygen.

Y. a concentration of haemoglobin that is usually higher than that observed in childhood.

Z. red blood cells which retain their nuclei.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Pulmonary ventilation increases during aerobic exercise due to the:
- decreasing partial pressure of carbon dioxide in plasma.
- decreasing partial pressure of oxygen in plasma.
- increasing concentrations of lactic acid in plasma.
- decreasing concentrations of glucose in plasma.
- anticipation of exercise.
A: anticipation of exercise.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Physiological adaptations of the mother to pregnancy include:
- an increase in mean systemic arterial blood pressure.
- a decrease in metabolic rate.
- a decrease in skin blood flow.
- a decrease in resting heart rate.
- an increase in blood volume.
A: an increase in blood volume.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A feature of acclimatisation to high altitude is:
- renal compensation for the changes in acid-base homeostasis which accompany hyperventilation.
- thirst.
- increased ventilation.
- feelings of tiredness.
- inherited changes in thoracic shape and volume.
A: renal compensation for the changes in acid-base homeostasis which accompany hyperventilation.

Q: A cutaneous branch of a nerve innervating the back will carry somatic motor efferent fibres and somatic sensory afferent fibres.
- false
- true
A: false

Q: State the histological classification of the hip joint.
A: synovial

Q: Look at the diagram and consider the movement of the upper limb from position B to position A.

1. Name the movement that has occurred while moving from position B to position A.

2. Name the plane the movement occured in

3. Name the prime mover for this movement.
1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]
A: adduction; coronal; gravity

Q: Below are two posterior views of a man showing him moving his right upper limb laterally.

In the spaces below, identify, as specifically as possible, the structures labelled 1 - 6.

The following will guide you in the type of information required for each answer:

1. Name of type of joints found here

2. Name of bone in this region

3. Name of joint

4. Functional classification of the joint

5. Name of the muscle found in this location that will extend the hip joint

6. Name of bone in this region

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]

5. [...]

6. [...]
[Image]
A: suture; humerus; elbow; hinge; gluteus maximus; femur

In order for muscle contraction to occur an action potential must have reached the axon terminal of the motor unit. Briefly describe the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that result in an action potential being generated in the sarcolemma.

Explain why you have chosen the type of muscle contraction you have given above.

Q: State the specific type of muscle contraction occurring during the movement from position B to position A.
A: eccentric

Q: Name the main muscle active during the movement from position B to position A.
A: deltoid

Q: Name the muscle responsible for moving the right upper limb from position A to postion B.
A: deltoid

Q: State the position a muscle must lie in to produce flexion at the wrist joint.
A: cross the joint anteriorly

Q: Compare the elbow and the knee joint and state which is the more congruent.
A: elbow

Q: When the hikers saw the snake lying in their path the "flight or fight" reflex was initiated as their initial response.

This reflex involves both pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic parasymapthetic fibres.
- true
- false
A: false

Q: For the diagram of a spinal segment and associated peripheral structures shown above, match the number of the structure on the diagram with its name in the list.
- dorsal root | 4
- ventral root | 5
- lateral horn | 2
- dorsal horn | 1
- ventral horn | 3
- spinal nerve | 7
- visceral sympathetic branch | 10
- rami communicans | 8
- sympathetic ganglion | 9
- sympathetic chain | 6

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The role of acetylcholinesterase is to:

W. act as a transmitting agent.

X. amplify of enhance the effect of ACh.

Y. stimulate the production of ACh.

Z. inactivate acetylcholine after it has bound to its receptors.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The anterior grey horn of the spinal cord contains cell bodies:

W) of neurons that form part of a motor pathway

X) of neurons that form part of a sensory pathway

Y) of general somatic efferent neurons

Z) of general somatic afferent neurons
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The sensation of warmth is detected by:
- photoreceptors
- chemoreceptors
- mechanoreceptors
- nociceptors
- thermoreceptors
A: thermoreceptors

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

An ascending tract in the spinal cord:

W) forms part of a motor pathway

X) forms part of a sensory pathway

Y) will terminate in the frontal lobe of the brain

Z) can be found in the dorsal column
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only X and Z are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Hyperventilation results in:
- a significant increase in formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries.
- CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production.
- arterial pH to decrease.
- a reduction in the energy expenditure of respiratory muscles.
- stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low areterial PO_2.
A: CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

During a prolonged period of complete bed rest, you would expect the following physiolgical changes:

W. normal haematocrit.
X. normal responsiveness of tissues to sympathetic stimulation.
Y. decreased blood volume.
Z. decreased mean artierial blood pressure.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

When an individual experiences fever:

W. the thermostat in the hypothalamus has been set to a higher than normal temperature.

X. the most likely cause is an allergic reaction.

Y. shivering is common prior to the temperature reaching the new set point.

Z. brain damage commonly occurs.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For this question, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Which of the following would be cause for alarm?

W. A shell temperature of 20ºC.

X. A core temperature of 39ºC.

Y. Shivering and feeling cold with a core temperature of 39ºC.

Z. Feeling comfortable without shivering with a core temperature of 30ºC.
- if only Z is correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Hyperventilation that occurs during pregnancy causes:
- a significant increase in formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the pulmonary capillaries.
- CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production.
- arterial pH to decrease.
- a reduction in the energy expenditure of respiratory muscles.
- stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low areterial PO_2.
A: CO_2 to be removed at a rate greater than its production. / stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors due to low areterial PO_2.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Hyperventilation for a few minutes at sea level affects acid base homeostasis because it causes:
- a temporary change in the renal handling of acids.
- a permanent change in the renal handling of bicarbonate (HC0_3^-).
- removal of carbon dioxide at a rate greater than its production.
- a change in the mechanism of transport of CO_2 by the blood.
- reduced production of CO_2.
A: removal of carbon dioxide at a rate greater than its production.

Q: For the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

It is highly likely that an individual’s temperature will continue to rise during continuous exercise in a hot and humid environment. It is very difficult in these conditions to maintain temperature homeostasis because:

W. the sweating mechanism is inhibited.

X. skin vasodilation is inhibited.

Y. high humidity enhances non-shivering thermogenesis.

Z. high humidity reduces heat loss by evaporation despite an increased sweat rate.
- if only Z is correct.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if X and Z are correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The part of the pathway that transmits discriminative touch sensation is called the:
- lateral corticospinal tract
- Dorsal column / medial lemniscus tract
- spinocerebellar tract
- spinothalamic tract
- vestibulospinal tract
A: Dorsal column / medial lemniscus tract

Q: For the incomplete statement below,select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Sensory neurons of the PNS are:
- bipolar
- unipolar
- anaxonic
- multipolar
- tripolar
A: unipolar

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Non-ionizing radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum includes:
- gamma rays, x-rays, infrared, microwaves and radio.
- ultraviolet, visible light, gamma rays, microwaves and radio.
- cosmic radiation, visible light, infrared, microwaves and radio.
- ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, x-rays and radio.
- ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, microwaves and radio.
A: ultraviolet, visible light, infrared, microwaves and radio.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

General X-rays:
- are at the lowest end of the electromagnetic spectrum.
- use non-ionizing radiation.
- are not a form of radiation.
- use ionizing radiation.
- are safer than ultrasound.
A: use ionizing radiation.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Platelets contribute to haemostasis by possessing or releasing chemicals that:
- promote local vasospasm (vascular spasm).
- cause platelet adhesion to other platelets.
- are necessary in the clotting pathway.
- only A and B are correct.
- A, B and C are correct.
A: A, B and C are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The common pathway of blood clotting ENDS with:
- release of tissue factor (thromboplastin) by damaged tissue.
- exposure of collagen in a damaged blood vessel.
- conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
- conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
- activation of Factor X.
A: conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The main action of thrombin in the process of haemostasis is to:
- synthesise Factor X.
- convert fibrinogen to fibrin
- promote platelet aggregation.
- stimulate degranulation of platelets.
- initiate the intrinsic clotting (coagulation) pathway.
A: convert fibrinogen to fibrin

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The EXTRINSIC pathway of blood coagulation is activated by the:
- release of heparin by the liver.
- conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
- activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
- sticking of platelets to damaged vascular tissue.
- release of tissue factor (thromboplastin) by damaged tissue.
A: release of tissue factor (thromboplastin) by damaged tissue.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Each of the following will tend to result in increased blood flow through the vascular bed of a tissue EXCEPT:
- increased blood volume.
- increased radius of arterioles.
- increased peripheral resistance.
- increased arterial blood pressure.
- relaxation of pre-capillary sphincters.
A: increased peripheral resistance.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

In the systemic vascular circuit, more blood will flow to a tissue if the:
- concentration of lactic acid decreases.
- concentration of oxygen at the tissue increases.
- concentration of carbon dioxide at the tissue increases.
- arterioles and pre-capillary sphincters constrict.
- vessels normally allowing venous drainage from the tissue are occluded (compressed)
A: concentration of carbon dioxide at the tissue increases.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Autoregulation of blood flow through the cerebral circulation describes a mechanism in which the RESISTANCE to cerebral blood flow:
- remains the same despite changing blood pressure.
- increases in response to a build up of metabolites.
- increases in response to less stretch (lower blood pressure).
- decreases in response to an increase in mean arterial pressure.
- decreases in response to less stretch (lower blood pressure)
A: decreases in response to less stretch (lower blood pressure)

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

The "metabolic mechanism" by which blood flow to a tissue is varied describes a mechanism in which:
- blood flow remains the same despite changes in mean arterial blood pressure.
- cardiac output increases to meet the needs of active tissues.
- resistance to flow decreases in active tissues.
- metabolites cause vasoconstriction of arterioles and pre-capillary sphincters.
- blood flow to all tissues in the systemic circuit is proportional to mean arterial pressure.
A: resistance to flow decreases in active tissues.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

The central chemoreceptors would be stimulated by:

W.  a 10% reduction in oxygen in the alveoli.

X.  an increase in the PCO_2 of arterial blood.

Y.  an increase in blood pH.

Z.  an increase in hydrogen ions (H^+) in the cerebrospinal fluid.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct. / if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Stimulation of the central chemoreceptors would be expected to result in an increase in:

W.  a 10% reduction in oxygen in the alveoli.

X.  an increase in the PCO_2 of arterial blood.

Y.  an increase in blood pH.

Z.  an increase in hydrogen ions (H^+) in the cerebrospinal fluid.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A period of hyperventilation (increased ventilation at rest) would normally result in an increase in:

W.  systemic arterial H^+.

X.  alveolar (intrapulmonary) PCO_2.

Y.  systemic arterial PCO_2.

Z.  systemic arterial PO_2.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A period of hypoventilation (decreased ventilation at rest) would normally result in an increase in:

W.  systemic arterial PCO_2.

X.  arterial PO_2.

Y.  alveolar (intrapulmonary) PCO_2.

Z.  systemic arterial pH.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Calcium ion concentration is regulated by:
- the hypothalamus and pituitary glands.
- the posterior pituitary gland.
- parathyroid hormone.
- thyroxine (T4).
- the adrenal glands.
A: parathyroid hormone.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Parathyroid hormone is secredted in response to:
- a fall in blood glucose concentration
- an increase in plasma calcium ion concentration.
- an increase in plasma adrenaline concentration.
- a fall in plasma calcium ion concentration.
- a fall in mean arterial pressure.
A: a fall in plasma calcium ion concentration.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Parathyroid hormone acts to maintain plasma calcium ion concentration in the normal range because it:
- reinforces the actions of insulin.
- stimulates bone growth.
- stimulates the thyroid glands.
- increases the ingestion of calcium rich foods.
- increases bone resorption (breakdown).
A: increases bone resorption (breakdown).

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Parathyroid hormone acts to maintain plasma calcium ion concentration in the normal range because it:
- blocks the action of growth hormone.
- acts on bone to release calcium ions.
- inhibits the synthesis of calcitonin.
- slows the activity of tissues which require calcium ions.
- stimulates the synthesis of calcium ions.
A: acts on bone to release calcium ions.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for the incomplete statement below.

Plasma calcium concentration is maintained within a narrow range.  If the plasma calcium concentration falls below normal, it is returned to normal by secretion of the hormone:
- calcitonin.
- glucagon.
- parathyroid hormone.
- insulin.
- adrenaline.
A: parathyroid hormone.

Q: Numerous types of business ________ result from today's business climate.
- decisions
- responses
- support
- pressures
A: pressures

Q: Companies are facing each of the following impacts of globalization except:
- Easier to find suppliers and customers in many countries
- Less complex business environment
- Cheaper materials
- More and stronger competitors
A: Less complex business environment

Q: Which of the following is an organizational response to a business environmental factor?
- customer demand
- government regulations
- new business models
- globalization
A: new business models

Q: Business environment factors that create pressures on organizations include all of the following except:
- workforce that is younger and shrinking
- need for real-time, on-demand transactions
- booming electronic markets on the Internet
- innovative marketing methods
A: workforce that is younger and shrinking

Q: One of the major objectives of ________ is to facilitate closing the gap between the current performance of an organization and its desired performance, as expressed in its mission, objectives, and goals.
- business alliances
- customer relationships
- business models
- computerized decision support
A: computerized decision support

Q: Management is a process by which organizational goals are achieved by using resources. The resources are considered ________, and attainment of goals is viewed as the ________ of the process.
- expenses; profits
- inputs; output
- pressures; opportunities
- scarce; success
A: inputs; output

Q: Mintzberg's (1980) classic study of top managers suggests that managers perform ten major roles that can be classified into three major categories. Each of the following is one of those major categories except:
- relational
- interpersonal
- decisional
- informational
A: relational

Q: For years in the past, managers considered decision making a(n) ________, that is, a talent acquired over a long period through experience and by using intuition.
- science
- strategy
- art
- methodology
A: art

Q: According to Mintzberg's ten managerial roles, a ________ is responsible for the motivation and activation of subordinates.
- leader
- figurehead
- liason
- spokesperson
A: leader

Q: According to Mintzberg's ten managerial roles, a ________ is symbolic head; or someone who is obliged to perform a number of routine duties.
- leader
- figurehead
- liason
- spokesperson
A: figurehead

Q: Today's computerized systems possess capabilities that can facilitate decision support in a number of ways, including each of the following except:
- Increased productivity of group members
- Improved communication and collaboration
- Agility support
- Reduced environmental pressures
A: Reduced environmental pressures

Q: Decision-making processes fall along a continuum that ranges from ________ to ________.
- highly structured; highly unstructured
- semistructured; unstructured
- managerial; strategic
- ad hoc; nonprogrammed
A: highly structured; highly unstructured

Q: Phases in the decision-making process include each of the following except:
- intelligence
- analysis
- design
- choice
A: analysis

Q: Solving semistructured problems may involve a combination of both standard solution procedures and human judgment. Management science can provide models for the portion of the decision-making problem that is ________.
- controlled
- semistructured
- unstructured
- structured
A: structured

Q: A(n) ________ is a rule-based system that provides a solution, usually in one functional area, such as finance or manufacturing, to a specific repetitive managerial problem.
- decision support systems (DSS)
- transaction processing system (TPS)
- online analytical processing (OLAP) system
- automated decision system (ADS)
A: automated decision system (ADS)

Q: *B. information overload
- groupthink
- experimentation
- over assumption
A: experimentation

Q: Decisions are often made by ________, especially at lower managerial levels and in small organizations.
- groups
- management teams
- individuals
- computerized systems
A: individuals

Q: Different decision styles require different types of support. A major factor that determines the type of required support is whether the decision maker is ________.
- autocratic
- consultative
- an individual or a group
- democratic
A: an individual or a group

Q: Which of the following is a physical replica of a system, usually on a different scale from the original?
- Complex model
- Iconic model
- Duplicated model
- Composite model
A: Iconic model

Q: Which of the following model behaves like the real system but does not look like it?
- Composite model
- Analog model
- Dense model
- Iconic model
A: Analog model

Q: There is a continuous flow of activity from one phase to the next phase in a decision making process, but at any phase there may be a return to a previous phase. ________ is an essential part of this process.
- Testing
- Trial-and-error
- Experimenting
- Modeling
A: Modeling

Q: The identification of organizational goals and objectives related to an issue of concern and determination of whether they are being met is the beginning of the ________ of decision making.
- initial phase
- intelligence phase
- brainstorming phase
- generation phase
A: intelligence phase

Q: Which of the following involves finding or developing and analyzing possible courses of action in a decision making phase?
- Consultation phase
- Communication phase
- Intelligence phase
- Design phase
A: Design phase

Q: A(n) ________ is a criterion that describes the acceptability of a solution approach. In a model, it is a result variable.
- principle of choice
- optimization variable
- trade-off
- worst-case criterion
A: principle of choice

Q: Which of the following describes normative models?
- These models are based on anomalies in rational decision making.
- They are models in which the chosen alternative is demonstrably the best of all possible alternatives.
- They are models based on the phenomenon of preference reversal.
- They lead to an approach known as suboptimization.
A: They are models in which the chosen alternative is demonstrably the best of all possible alternatives.

Q: Which of the following, by definition, requires a decision maker to consider the impact of each alternative course of action on the entire organization because a decision made in one area may have significant effects in other areas?
- Satisfaction
- Worst-case
- Feasibility
- Optimization
A: Optimization

Q: "Thinking with your gut" is a heuristic approach to decision making that would work best for ________.
- amateur chefs
- payroll processors and accountants
- experienced firefighters and military personnel on the battlefield
- structured decision situations
A: experienced firefighters and military personnel on the battlefield

Q: With ________, the performance of the system is checked for a given set of alternatives, rather than for all alternatives. Therefore, there is no guarantee that an alternative selected is optimal.
- analytical analysis
- descriptive analysis
- optimization analysis
- quantitative analysis
A: descriptive analysis

Q: The usual reasons for ________ are time pressures and recognition that the marginal benefit of a better solution is not worth the marginal cost to obtain it
- satisficing
- settling
- compromising
- rationalizing
A: satisficing

Q: A ________ describes the decision and uncontrollable variables and parameters for a specific modeling situation.
- statement
- model
- program
- scenario
A: scenario

Q: Which of the following is a study of the effect of a change in one or more input variables on a proposed solution?
- Sensitivity analysis
- Boundary analysis
- Fish bone analysis
- Input-output analysis
A: Sensitivity analysis

Q: A ________ can help a decision maker sketch out the important qualitative factors and their causal relationships in a messy decision-making situation.
- mathematical map
- cognitive map
- qualitative map
- narrative map
A: cognitive map

Q: The ________ of a proposed solution to a problem is the initiation of a new order of things or the introduction of change.
- method
- implementation
- approach
- style
A: implementation

Q: The Museum of Natural History in Aarhus, Denmark uses ________ to collect detailed information about visitors' use of the exhibits to help determine visitors' behavior to identify high-demand exhibits.
- group decision systems
- algorithms
- RFID
- expert systems
A: RFID

Q: Which of the following is not an element of the internal control environment?
- management philosophy and operating style
- organizational structure of the firm
- well-designed documents and records
- the functioning of the board of directors and the audit committee
A: well-designed documents and records

Q: Individuals who acquire some level of skill and knowledge in the field of computer ethics are involved in which level of computer ethics?
- para computer ethics
- pop computer ethics
- theoretical computer ethics
- practical computer ethics
A: para computer ethics

Q: Which of the following suggests a weakness in the internal control environment?
- the firm has an up-to-date organizational chart
- monthly reports comparing actual performance to budget are distributed to managers
- performance evaluations are prepared every three years
- the audit committee meets quarterly with the external auditors
A: performance evaluations are prepared every three years

Q: Which of the following is the best reason to separate duties in a manual system?
- to ensure that supervision is not required
- to prevent the record keeper from authorizing transactions
- to enable the firm to function more efficiently
- to avoid collusion between the programmer and the computer operator
A: to prevent the record keeper from authorizing transactions

Q: Which of the following is not an internal control procedure?
- authorization
- management’s operating style
- accounting records
- independent verification
A: management’s operating style

Q: The office manager forgot to record in the accounting records the daily bank deposit. Which control procedure would most likely prevent or detect this error?
- segregation of duties
- independent verification
- accounting records
- supervision
A: independent verification

Q: Which characteristic is not associated with software as intellectual property?
- uniqueness of the product
- possibility of exact replication
- automated monitoring to detect intruders
- ease of dissemination
A: automated monitoring to detect intruders

Q: Which of the following situations is not a segregation of duties violation?
- The sales manager has the responsibility to approve credit and the authority to write off accounts.
- The department time clerk is given the undistributed payroll checks to mail to absent employees.
- The warehouse clerk, who has the custodial responsibility over inventory in the warehouse, selects the vendor and authorizes purchases when inventories are low.
- The treasurer has the authority to sign checks but gives the signature block to the assistant treasurer to run the check-signing machine.
- The accounting clerk who shares the record keeping responsibility for the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger performs the monthly reconciliation of the subsidiary ledger and the control account.
A: The warehouse clerk, who has the custodial responsibility over inventory in the warehouse, selects the vendor and authorizes purchases when inventories are low.

Q: Which of the following is not an issue to be addressed in a business code of ethics required by the SEC?
- Conflicts of interest
- Full and Fair Disclosures
- Legal Compliance
- Internal Reporting of Code Violations
- All of the above are issues to be addressed
A: All of the above are issues to be addressed

Q: For an action to be called fraudulent, all of the following conditions are required except
- false representation
- intent to deceive
- injury or loss
- poor judgment
A: poor judgment

Q: One characteristic of employee fraud is that the fraud
- is perpetrated at a level to which internal controls do not apply
- involves misstating financial statements
- involves the direct conversion of cash or other assets to the employee’s personal benefit
- involves misappropriating assets in a series of complex transactions involving third parties
A: involves the direct conversion of cash or other assets to the employee’s personal benefit

Q: Operations fraud includes
- altering program logic to cause the application to process data incorrectly
- misusing the firm’s computer resources
- destroying or corrupting a program’s logic using a computer virus
- creating illegal programs that can access data files to alter, delete, or insert values
A: misusing the firm’s computer resources

Q: Which of the following indicates a strong internal control environment?
- the internal audit group reports to the audit committee of the board of directors
- there is no segregation of duties between organization functions
- there are questions about the integrity of management
- adverse business conditions exist in the industry
A: the internal audit group reports to the audit committee of the board of directors

Q: Segregation of duties in the computer-based information system includes
- preventing management override
- separating the inventory process from the billing process
- performing independent verifications by the computer operator
- separating the programmer from the computer operator
A: separating the programmer from the computer operator

Q: An accounting system that maintains an adequate audit trail is implementing which internal control procedure?
- access controls
- segregation of functions
- independent verification
- accounting records
A: accounting records

Q: Employee fraud involves three steps. Of the following, which is not involved?
- concealing the crime to avoid detection
- stealing something of value
- misstating financial statements
- converting the asset to a usable form
A: misstating financial statements

Q: All of the following are issues of computer security except
- releasing incorrect data to authorized individuals
- permitting computer operators unlimited access to the computer room
- permitting access to data by unauthorized individuals
- providing correct data to unauthorized individuals
A: permitting computer operators unlimited access to the computer room

Q: Which of the following is not an example of independent verification?
- comparing fixed assets on hand to the accounting records
- performing a bank reconciliation
- comparing the accounts payable subsidiary ledger to the control account
- permitting authorized users only to access the accounting system
A: permitting authorized users only to access the accounting system

Q: The importance to the accounting profession of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 1977 is that
- bribery will be eliminated
- management will not override the company’s internal controls
- firms are required to have an effective internal control system
- firms will not be exposed to lawsuits
A: firms are required to have an effective internal control system

Q: The board of directors consists entirely of personal friends of the chief executive officer. This indicates a weakness in
- the accounting system
- control procedures
- this is not a weakness
- the control environment
A: the control environment

Q: Computer fraud can take on many forms, including each of the following except
- theft or illegal use of computer-readable information
- theft, misuse, or misappropriation of computer equipment
- theft, misuse, or misappropriation of assets by altering computer-readable records and files
- theft, misuse, or misappropriation of printer supplies
A: theft, misuse, or misappropriation of printer supplies

Q: All of the following are conditions for fraud except
- intent
- false representation
- injury or loss
- material reliance
A: material reliance

Q: The four principal types of fraud include all of the following except
- bribery
- gratuities
- conflict of interest
- economic extortion
A: gratuities

Q: The characteristics of useful information include
- summarization, relevance, timeliness, accuracy, and completeness
- relevance, summarization, accuracy, timelessness, and completeness
- timeliness, relevance, summarization, accuracy, and conciseness
- disaggregation, relevance, timeliness, accuracy, and completeness
A: summarization, relevance, timeliness, accuracy, and completeness

Q: Internal control system have limitations. These include
- possibility of honest error
- circumvention
- management override
- stability of systems
A: stability of systems

Q: Management can expect various benefits to follow from implementing a system of strong internal control. Which of the following benefits is least likely to occur?
- reduced cost of an external audit.
- prevents employee collusion to commit fraud.
- availability of reliable data for decision-making purposes.
- some assurance of compliance with the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 1977.
- some assurance that important documents and records are protected.
A: prevents employee collusion to commit fraud.

Q: Forces which may permit fraud to occur do not include
- a gambling addiction
- lack of segregation of duties
- centralized decision making environment
- questionable integrity of employees
A: centralized decision making environment

Q: Which of the following best describes lapping?
- inflating bank balances by transferring money among different bank accounts
- expensing an asset that has been stolen
- creating a false transaction
- applying cash receipts to a different customer’s account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of funds
A: applying cash receipts to a different customer’s account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of funds

Q: In balancing the risks and benefits that are part of every ethical decision, managers receive guidance from each of the following except
- self interest
- risk minimization
- proportionality
- justice
A: self interest

Q: Which of the following best describes lapping?
- creating a false transaction
- applying cash receipts to a different customer’s account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of funds
- inflating bank balances by transferring money among different bank accounts
- expensing an asset that has been stolen
A: applying cash receipts to a different customer’s account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of funds

Q: The office manager forgot to record in the accounting records the daily bank deposit. Which control procedure would most likely prevent or detect this error?
- supervision
- segregation of duties
- independent verification
- accounting records
A: independent verification

Q: Business ethics involves
- how managers decide on what is right in conducting business
- how managers achieve what they decide is right for the business
- both a and b
- none of the above
A: both a and b

Q: All of the following are conditions for fraud except
- injury or loss
- false representation
- intent
- material reliance
A: material reliance

Q: Which characteristic is not associated with software as intellectual property?
- possibility of exact replication
- uniqueness of the product
- ease of dissemination
- automated monitoring to detect intruders
A: automated monitoring to detect intruders

Q: Management can expect various benefits to follow from implementing a system of strong internal control. Which of the following benefits is least likely to occur?
- availability of reliable data for decision-making purposes.
- reduced cost of an external audit.
- prevents employee collusion to commit fraud.
- some assurance that important documents and records are protected.
- some assurance of compliance with the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 1977.
A: prevents employee collusion to commit fraud.

Q: Which of the following situations is not a segregation of duties violation?
- The warehouse clerk, who has the custodial responsibility over inventory in the warehouse, selects the vendor and authorizes purchases when inventories are low.
- The sales manager has the responsibility to approve credit and the authority to write off accounts.
- The department time clerk is given the undistributed payroll checks to mail to absent employees.
- The accounting clerk who shares the record keeping responsibility for the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger performs the monthly reconciliation of the subsidiary ledger and the control account.
- The treasurer has the authority to sign checks but gives the signature block to the assistant treasurer to run the check-signing machine.
A: The warehouse clerk, who has the custodial responsibility over inventory in the warehouse, selects the vendor and authorizes purchases when inventories are low.

Q: Which of the following is not an issue to be addressed in a business code of ethics required by the SEC?
- Full and Fair Disclosures
- Conflicts of interest
- Legal Compliance
- Internal Reporting of Code Violations
- All of the above are issues to be addressed
A: All of the above are issues to be addressed

Q: One characteristic of employee fraud is that the fraud
- is perpetrated at a level to which internal controls do not apply
- involves misstating financial statements
- involves misappropriating assets in a series of complex transactions involving third parties
- involves the direct conversion of cash or other assets to the employee’s personal benefit
A: involves the direct conversion of cash or other assets to the employee’s personal benefit

Q: Cash sale of $100
- Credit an asset
- Credit an expense
- Credit a liability
- Credit an owners equity
- Credit a revenue
- debit an asset
- Debit an expense
A: Credit a revenue; debit an asset

Q: Which ethical principle states that the benefit from a decision must outweigh the risks, and that there is no alternative decision that provides the same or greater benefit with less risk?
- informed consent
- minimize risk
- justice
- proportionality
A: proportionality

Q: Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the internal control system?
- management
- the internal auditor
- the accountant
- the external auditor
A: management

Q: The concept of reasonable assurance suggests that
- a well-designed system of internal controls will detect all fraudulent activity
- the objectives achieved by an internal control system vary depending on the data processing method
- the effectiveness of internal controls is a function of the industry environment
- the cost of an internal control should be less than the benefit it provides
A: the cost of an internal control should be less than the benefit it provides

Q: The most cost-effective type of internal control is
- preventive control
- accounting control
- detective control
- corrective control
A: preventive control

Q: The bank reconciliation uncovered a transposition error in the books. This is an example of a
- detective control
- preventive control
- corrective control
- none of the above
A: detective control

Q: The board of directors consists entirely of personal friends of the chief executive officer. This indicates a weakness in
- the accounting system
- the control environment
- control procedures
- this is not a weakness
A: the control environment

Q: For an action to be called fraudulent, all of the following conditions are required except
- poor judgment
- false representation
- intent to deceive
- injury or loss
A: poor judgment

Q: Operations fraud includes
- altering program logic to cause the application to process data incorrectly
- misusing the firm’s computer resources
- creating illegal programs that can access data files to alter, delete, or insert values
- destroying or corrupting a program’s logic using a computer virus
A: misusing the firm’s computer resources

Q: Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the internal control system?
- the internal auditor
- the accountant
- management
- the external auditor
A: management

Q: The concept of reasonable assurance suggests that
- the cost of an internal control should be less than the benefit it provides
- a well-designed system of internal controls will detect all fraudulent activity
- the objectives achieved by an internal control system vary depending on the data processing method
- the effectiveness of internal controls is a function of the industry environment
A: the cost of an internal control should be less than the benefit it provides

Q: Which of the following is not a limitation of the internal control system?
- errors are made due to employee fatigue
- fraud occurs because of collusion between two employees
- the industry is inherently risky
- management instructs the bookkeeper to make fraudulent journal entries
A: the industry is inherently risky

Q: Which of the following is a preventive control?
- bank reconciliation
- physical inventory count
- comparing the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the control account
- credit check before approving a sale on account
A: credit check before approving a sale on account

Q: A well-designed purchase order is an example of a
- preventive control
- detective control
- corrective control
- none of the above
A: preventive control

Q: A physical inventory count is an example of a
- preventive control
- detective control
- corrective control
- feedforward control
A: detective control

Q: The bank reconciliation uncovered a transposition error in the books. This is an example of a
- none of the above
- preventive control
- detective control
- corrective control
A: detective control

Q: In balancing the risks and benefits that are part of every ethical decision, managers receive guidance from each of the following except
- proportionality
- justice
- self interest
- risk minimization
A: self interest

Q: The decision to extend credit beyond the normal credit limit is an example of
- independent verification
- authorization
- segregation of functions
- supervision
A: authorization

Q: Business ethics involves
- both a and b
- how managers decide on what is right in conducting business
- how managers achieve what they decide is right for the business
- none of the above
A: both a and b

Q: Which of the following is a preventive control?
- credit check before approving a sale on account
- bank reconciliation
- physical inventory count
- comparing the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the control account
A: credit check before approving a sale on account

Q: A well-designed purchase order is an example of a
- preventive control
- corrective control
- none of the above
- detective control
A: preventive control

Q: All of the following are issues of computer security except
- releasing incorrect data to authorized individuals
- permitting access to data by unauthorized individuals
- providing correct data to unauthorized individuals
- permitting computer operators unlimited access to the computer room
A: permitting computer operators unlimited access to the computer room

Q: Principle: Neural pathways are usually named according to the origin and destination of the action potentials being transmitted along the nerve fibres.

Use the principle above to help you fill in the blanks in the following statement.

When considering information from the hand, the second order neurons of the dorsal column pathway synapse with the first order neurons in the [...] (2 words) which is found in the [...] (2 words)  and with the third order neurons in the [...]. The third order neurons terminate in the [...] (3 words).  One type of sensation that could be carried in this pathway is [...].
A: cuneate nucleus / nucleus cuneatus / medulla oblongata; medulla oblongata / brain stem; thalamus; primary somatosensory cortex; discriminative touch / proprioception / conscious proprioception / stretch / body sense / limb and joint position / pressure / touch

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

[Image]

The schwann cell is labelled:
A: e / e.

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

[Image]

The axon hillock is labelled:
A: c / c.

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below.

[Image]

The dendrite is labelled:
A: a / a.

Q: For each of the questions or incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given may be correct.

The white matter of the spinal cord contains:

W. both axons and dendrites.
X. bundles of dendrites that share common origins, destinations and functions.
Y. sensory and motor nuclei.
Z. bundles of axons that share common origins, destinations and functions.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Sensory and motor innervation of the skin of the lateral and anterior aspects of the trunk are provided by the:
- lateral horn of the spinal cord.
- sympathetic trunk.
- dorsal ramus of a spinal nerve.
- ventral ramus of a spinal nerve.
- cranial nerves.
A: ventral ramus of a spinal nerve.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Which of the following IS NOT a function of the intervertebral discs?
- contribute to the height of the individual.
- act as shock absorbers.
- prevent bone-to-bone contact.
- lubricate the joint.
- allow the movements associated with flexion and rotation of the vertebral column.
A: lubricate the joint.

Q: For each of the questions or incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given may be correct.

Ascending tracts:

W. carry sensory information to the brain.
X. have 2 neurons in the pathway.
Y. have 3 neurons in the pathway.
Z. carry motor information from the brain.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for this question.

Which of the following structures lie along the same sagittal plane?
- the joints between the metacarpal bones and the phalanges (metacarpophalangeal joints).
- the two hip joints.
- the chin and the nose.
- the eyes.
- the most distal parts (tips) of the toes.
A: the chin and the nose.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for this question.

Which of the following structures lie on the same transverse plane?
- the hip and shoulder joints
- the ankle and the knee joints.
- the chin and the nose.
- the eyes.
- the most distal parts (tips) of the fingers.
A: the eyes.

Q: Select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE for this question.

Which of the following structures lies in the midsagittal plane?
- eye
- ear
- nipple
- nose
- cheek
A: nose

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

When looking at x-rays, the description of "a PA projection" would indicate:
- that the anterior surface of the body was closest to the x-ray source.
- that the anterior surface of the body was closest to the x-ray detector.
- that the x-ray is passing from the ventral surface to dorsal surface of the body.
- that the person is standing with his side to the x-ray detector.
- that the x-rays are passing through the long axis of the body to hit the detector.
A: that the anterior surface of the body was closest to the x-ray detector.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Ultrasound:
- is used to examine the developing foetus
- is best used to check for bone fractures.
- uses ionizing radiation.
- is a very expensive form of medical imaging
- requires the patient to swallow radioactive substances in order to show the outline of the organ
A: is used to examine the developing foetus

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Natural background radiation in Australia is approximately:
- less than 0.1 mSv
- between 1 and 4 mSv
- between 5 and 10 mSv
- between 20 and 30 mSv
- between 50 and 100 mSv
A: between 1 and 4 mSv

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Disadvantages of ultrasound include:

W. the use of ionizing radiation.

X.  good visualization of soft tissues.

Y.  very long examination time.

Z.  operator dependent.
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only Z is correct.

Q: For each of the incomplete statements, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Ionizing radiation is used for:

W. CT

X.  Magentic resonance imaging

Y.  General x-rays

Z.  Ultrasound
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the question below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Tissues present in a typical synovial joint include:
- synovial fluid lying between the articular cartilage and the bone of the articulating surface
- a synovial membrane deep to the fibrous capsule.
- loose connective tissue covering the articular surfaces.
- fibrocartilage lining the articular surfaces.
- adipose tissue separating the articular surfaces.
A: a synovial membrane deep to the fibrous capsule.

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

A component of the axial skeleton is:
- the patella
- the clavicle
- the femur
- the sternum
- the hip bone
A: the sternum

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Which of the following forms part of the appendicular skeleton?
- the patella
- a rib
- the mandible
- the sternum
- cervical vertebrae
A: the patella

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

Cancellous (= spongy) bone:
- is the major constituent of the shaft of long bones.
- contains osteons.
- has specialized channels to allow blood vessels to enter the bone.
- is formed from struts of bone (trabeculae).
- forms the outer shell of most bones.
A: is formed from struts of bone (trabeculae).

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The anatomical term that means at the front of the body is:
- superior
- inferior
- caudal
- ventral
- dorsal
A: ventral

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The anatomical term that means away from the point of attachment of a limb is:
- cranial
- caudal
- proximal
- distal
- dorsal
A: distal

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

When standing in the anatomical position:
- the thumb is medial to the little finger.
- the patella is proximal to the hip joint.
- the heart is deep to the sternum.
- the knee joint is distal to the ankle.
- the leg is superficial to the toes.
A: the heart is deep to the sternum.

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

[Image]

The cell body is labelled:
A: b / b.

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

[Image]

The schwann cell is labelled:
A: e

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

[Image]

The axon is labelled :
A: d

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below the figure.

[Image]

The axon hillock is labelled:
A: c

Q: Select ONE response which is the BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE answer to the question. Type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the figure in the answer boxes below.

[Image]

The dendrite is labelled:
A: a

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is a part of the brain responsible for co-ordination of movement?
A: e / e.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is comprised of connective tissue?
A: c / c.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

is a tissue consisting of largely neuronal cell bodies?
A: b / b.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

On the diagram below, which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

is part of the brain stem?
A: a / a.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

is a part of the brain responsible for co-ordination of movement?
A: e / e.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is part of the brain stem?
A: a / a.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

is part of a cerebral hemisphere composed of white matter?
A: d / d.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is part of a cerebral hemisphere composed of white matter?
A: d / d.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and contains fibres from the thoracic spinal segments?
A: b / b.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures redistributes GSE, GVE and GSA nerve fibres to or from the upper limb?
A: b / b.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is enlarged due to the formation of the brachial plexus?
A: c / c.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures anchors the spinal cord in the vertebral canal?
A: e / e.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

redistributes GSE, GVE and GSA nerve fibres to or from the upper limb?
A: b / b.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures is:

[Image]

enlarged due to the formation of the brachial plexus?
A: c / c.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

is the structure that anchors the spinal cord in the vertebral canal?
A: e / e.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures is:

[Image]

part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and contains fibres from the thoracic spinal segments?
A: b

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures lies with the cauda equina?
A: e / e.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

redistributes GSE, GVE and GSA nerve fibres to or from the upper limb?
A: b

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures:

[Image]

lies with the cauda equina?
A: e

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

Which of the labelled structures is:

[Image]

enlarged due to the formation of the brachial plexus?
A: c

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and contains fibres from the thoracic spinal segments?
A: b

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures anchors the spinal cord in the vertebral canal?
A: e

Q: Match Halves
- Q 1 | A 1
- Q 2 | A 2
- Q 3 | Q 3

Q: For the diagram of a spinal segment and associated peripheral structures shown below, match the number of the structure on the diagram with its name in the list. [Image]
- dorsal root | 4
- lateral horn | 2
- ventral root | 5
- sympathetic chain | 6
- sympathetic ganglion | 9
- rami communicans | 8
- visceral sympathetic branch | 10
- spinal nerve | 7
- ventral horn | 3
- dorsal horn | 1

Q: You will be provided with access to images of human cadaver material as a student enrolled in HBS1HBB at La Trobe University. These images will be available in the Library via a DVD describing the anatomy of the back, or via the Insight program which shows images of sections of cadaver material.  These images are of cadaver material held at La Trobe University and are provided for private study purposes only.  Reproduction or transmission of these images in any form breaches your obligations under the Human Tissue Act (1982).

You may also have access to potted cadaver specimens in the Resource Room on the Bendigo campus. Photographing these specimens also breaches your obligations under the Human Tissue Act.

Select A to show that you have read this statement and that you agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above.

If you do not agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act then you must select B.  In this case the Subject Coordinator or a Deputy Subject Coordinator will contact you to discuss this issue.
- I agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above. (During the semester please remember your obligations under the Human Tissue Act - no photography and no reproduction of the anatomical images on the image databank (Insight).)
- I do not agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above. (The subject coordinator or a deputy subject coordinator will be contacting you regarding your obligations under the Human Tissue Act as a student enrolled in HBS1HBB.)
A: I agree to abide by the provisions of the Human Tissue Act as explained above.
If wrong: Please talk to the Subject coordinator or a Deputy Coordinator about this issue. Once we have clarified any concerns you have, you can then go back in and review the infromation and change your choice.

Q: The scratch factor is required to stimulated contractions of the rumen wal leading to rumination
- True
- False
A: True

Q: At what wavelength will you determine the absorption of your standard solutions and your samples?
- 600 nm (Sorry, incorrect. Refer to your laboratory manual.)
- 500 pm (Sorry, incorrect. Refer to your laboratory manual.)
- 540 pm (Sorry, incorrect. Refer to your laboratory manual.)
- 540 nm (Correct! Well done. You will make sure that you determine the absorption of your samples at a wavelength of 540 nm.)
A: 540 nm

Q: When you have finished where do you tip the contents of the volumetric flasks?
- In the chemistry store. (Sorry, incorrect. Refer to your manual.)
- In a special residues bottle. (Sorry, incorrect. Refer to your manual.)
- Into a 500 mL volumetric flask. (Sorry, incorrect. Refer to your manual.)
- Down the sink. (Correct! Well done. For this experiment you may place the standard solutions and the sample solution down the sink before washing.)
A: Down the sink.

Q: The preparation of standard solutions is a very important skill that requires great care. Which of the following indicates the correct final position of the meniscus (red line) of an aqueous solution in a volumetric flask that has been filled correctly?
- [Image] (Correct! Well done. This image shows the bottom of the meniscus sitting on the etched line on the volumetric flask. You should partly fill your volumetric flask and then mix carefully. The final few millilitres should be added carefully using a plastic pipette until the meniscus sits on the etched line. The flask should then be stoppered and the contents mixed thoroughly.)
- [Image] (Sorry, incorrect. This volumetric flask has not been filled to the correct volume. Errors in filling will affect your results.)
- [Image] (Sorry, incorrect. This volumetric flask has been overfilled. Be very careful since errors in this step will affect your results.)
A: [Image]

Q: A calibration curve (indicated by the line of best fit, shown below) has been prepared to determine the concentration of a sample. Use the calibration curve below to determine the concentration of an unknown sample that has an absorbance of 0.65.
[Image]
- ~ 0.0055 M (Sorry, incorrect. Hint: Locate the given absorbance on the line of best fit and hence determine the corresponding concentration value for the given absorbance.)
- ~ 0.0073 M (Correct! Well done. As shown below, the concentration of the sample (unknown concentration) is determined using the obtained absorbance value (0.65) for that sample and the line of best fit obtained from the calibration curve. [Image])
- ~ 0.0065 M (Sorry, incorrect. Hint: Locate the given absorbance (y-value) on the line of best fit and determine the corresponding concentration value for the given absorbance.)
- ~0.0035 M (Sorry, incorrect. Hint: Locate the given absorbance (y-value) on the line of best fit and determine the corresponding concentration value for the given absorbance.)
A: ~ 0.0073 M

Q: To measure the absorbance of the standard solutions you must transfer them to a cuvette. Which of the following statements is incorrect about this transfer process?
- You must use the same pipette to dispense all seven solutions into the cuvette. (This is the incorrect statement. You must use a new pipette for each solution.)
- The cuvette must first be rinsed with solution whose absorbance you want to measure (This is a correct statement. We have taken great care to make up solutions of known concentration and if we fail to rinse the cuvettes, the integrity of the solutions will be comprimised.)
- The clear sides of the cuvette must be wiped with a tissue (kimi wipe). (This is a correct statement. Fingerprints and anything else that can stick to the side of the cuvette can effect the absorbacnes, leading to increased and incorrect absorbance readings.)
- The cuvette must be placed in the spectrophotometer with its clear sides in the direction of the light path. (This is a correct statement. If the opague sides of the cuvette are placed in the direction of the light then your absorbacne readings will be incorrect.)
A: You must use the same pipette to dispense all seven solutions into the cuvette.

Q: 0.5 mL of 0.010 M salicylic acid is placed in a 50 mL volumetric flask and made up to the mark with distilled water. What is the resulting salicylic acid concentration?
- 0.10 M (Sorry, incorrect. Hint: C1V1 = C2V2.)
- 2.5 x 10^-4 M (Sorry, incorrect. Hint: C1V1 = C2V2)
- 1.0 x 10^-4 M (Correct! Well done. No. of moles initial = no. of moles final. C1 x V1 = C2 x V2 0.01 x 0.0005 = C2 x 0.050 C2 = 0.000005/0.05 C2 = 1.0 x 10^-4 M)
- 0.00025 M (Sorry, incorrect. Hint : C1V1 = C2V2.)
A: 1.0 x 10^-4 M

Q: The main reason for preparing the standard solutions containing various concentrations of salicylic acid and Fe(NO_3)_3 is?
- It allows you to prepare a calibration curve. (Correct! Well done! When you need to determine the concentration of a species using spectrophotometry you need to prepare standard solutions of that species of various concentrations in order to prepare a calibration curve (see an example below). [Image])
- It allows you to practice making standard solutions. (Sorry, incorrect. Think about which of the other alternatives makes the most sense.)
- It allows you to determine the pain relieving effect of AspirinÒ. (Sorry, incorrect. Think about which of the other alternatives makes the most sense.)
- It allows you to mix chemicals to make bright colours. (Sorry, incorrect. Think about which of the other alternatives makes the most sense.)
A: It allows you to prepare a calibration curve.

Q: Where should the plastic pipettes and the gloves be placed during your clean up?
- Pipettes in yellow bins in fumehood; gloves in the red bins next to the fume cupboard. (Correct! Well done.)
- In the black bins, near the benches. (Sorry, incorrect.)
- On the benches for the laboratory technician to collect. (Sorry, incorrect. No, this is definitely not the right answer.)
- In your pockets (Sorry, incorrect. Clearly this is a silly answer.)
A: Pipettes in yellow bins in fumehood; gloves in the red bins next to the fume cupboard.

Q: Determine the correct units for the molar absorptivity, e, using the Beer-Lambert law (absorbance has no units, concentration units are molesL^-1 and cell length is in cm).
- L^-1mol.cm (Sorry, incorrect. Replace variables in the Beer-Lambert law with their respective units and then rearrange the expression to obtain e by itself.)
- L.mol^-1cm^-1 (Correct! Well done. The Beer-Lambert law is A = ebc \ A/bc = e \ L/(cm.mol) = e)
- L.mol.cm^-1 (Sorry, incorrect. Replace variables in the Beer-Lambert law with their respective units and then rearrange the expression to obtain e by itself.)
- L^-1.mol.cm^-1 (Sorry, incorrect. Replace variables in the Beer-Lambert law with their respective units and then rearrange the expression to obtain e by itself.)
A: L.mol^-1cm^-1

Q: What is the molarity of Fe(NO_3)_3 in a 2.50% w/v Fe(NO_3)_3 solution? (Molar Mass of Fe(NO_3)_3 = 241.88)
- 2.50 M (Sorry, incorrect. Hint: 2.5% w/v = 0.025 g solute / 1ml solution then convert this into g/L and then moles /L.)
- 0.0250 M (Sorry, incorrect. Hint: 2.5% w/v = 0.025 g solute / 1ml solution then convert this into g/L and then moles /L.)
- 0.103 M (Correct! Well done! 2.5% w/v = 0.025 g solute / 1ml solution = 25 g/1L solution = 25/241.88 mole per L = 0.103 M.)
- 1.03 M (Sorry, incorrect. Hint: 2.5% w/v = 0.025 g solute / 1ml solution then convert this into g/L and then moles /L.)
A: 0.103 M

Q: What region of the electromagnetic spectrum is 540 nm?
- The ultra-violet region. (Sorry, incorrect.)
- The microwave region. (Sorry, incorrect.)
- The infrared region. (Sorry, incorrect.)
- The visible region. (Correct! Well done! The range of 400-700 nm is generally considered to be the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum.)
A: The visible region.

Q: What is the name of the cell that is used to hold the sample in the spectrophotometer.
- curvette (Sorry, incorrect. Refer to your laboratory manual.)
- cuvette (Correct! Well done. The name of the cell used to hold the sample solution in a spectrophotometer is called a cuvette.)
- curette (Sorry, incorrect. Be careful! Refer to your laboratory manual.)
- corvette (Sorry, incorrect. This would be very difficult to place in a spectrophotometer. Refer to your laboratory manual.)
A: cuvette

Q: In Experiment 10, the amount of unreacted salicylic acid present in a prepared sample of Aspirin® is determined. Fe(III) ions are added to a solution of the Aspirin® sample. If salicylic acid is present the solution will turn red/violet in colour. The coloured compound that forms on addition of Fe(III) is called ........?
- a pain reliever (Sorry, incorrect.)
- an ester (Sorry, incorrect.)
- a carboxylic acid (Sorry, incorrect.)
- a coordination complex (Correct! Well done. It is the formation of a coloured coordination complex between Fe(III) ions and salicylic acid that allows the amount of salicylic acid in the Aspirin® sample to be determined.)
A: a coordination complex

Q: Why do we produce a "blank" solution (standard number 1) that does not contain any salicylic acid?
- So its absorbance can be subtracted from the other solutions absorbance to give the net absorbance due only to the intensity of the coloured iron complex. (Correct. Well done.)
- To test if the spectrophotometer is working. (Incorrect. Your demonstrator will make sure the spectrophotometer is working before you get in the lab. Refer to your lab manual.)
- For practice. (Incorrect. You have already used a spectrophotometer in first semester and should not need practice. Refer to your lab manual.)
- It will flush out the spectrophotometer. (Incorrect. Refer to your lab manual.)
A: So its absorbance can be subtracted from the other solutions absorbance to give the net absorbance due only to the intensity of the coloured iron complex.

Q: Given that A is absorbance; ε is molar absorptivity; c is molar concentration and b is path length of the cell (cm), which of the following describes the Beer-Lambert law?
- c = Ab&#949 (Sorry, incorrect. Refer to your laboratory manual.)
- b = Ac&#949 (Sorry, incorrect. Refer to your laboratory manual.)
- A = b&#949/c (Sorry, incorrect. Refer to your laboratory manual.)
- A = cb&#949 (Correct! Well done. This is the correct expression for the Beer-Lambert law. The important feature of this expression is that if the cell length and the molar absorptivity are kept constant there will be a linear relationship between absorbance and concentration.)
A: A = cb&#949

Q: Identify the functional groups present in Aspirin®, [Image]?
- Both a carboxylic acid and a phenol functional groups are present in Aspirin®. (Sorry. Incorrect! Aspirin® contains the carboxylic acid, [Image], group and not the phenol functional group, [Image].)
- The anhydride and the carboxylic acid functional groups are present in Aspirin®. (Sorry, incorrect. Aspirin® contains the carboxylic acid, [Image], group and not the anhydride, [Image], functional group.)
- The ester and the carboxylic acid functional groups are present in Aspirin®. (Correct. Well done. Aspirin® contains both the carboxylic acid, [Image], functional group and the ester, [Image], functional group.)
- The ester and the phenol functional groups are present in Aspirin®. (Sorry, incorrect. Aspirin® contains the ester functional group, [Image], but not the phenol functional group, [Image] .)
A: The ester and the carboxylic acid functional groups are present in Aspirin®.

Q: In the formation of Na_2[Cu(OH)_4] in step 3, the initially formed Cu(OH)_2 functions as ...
- ... a Lewis acid. (A Lewis acid is an electron pair acceptor.)
- ... a Lewis base. (A Lewis base is an electron pair donor.)
- ... a Bronsted base. (A Bronsted base is a proton (hydrogen ion) acceptor.)
- ... a Bronsted acid. (A Bronsted acid is a proton (hydrogen ion) donor.)
A: ... a Lewis acid.

Q: In step 4 of experiment I4, you will filter a concentrated sodium hydroxide solution using glass fibre filter paper because normal filter paper would disintegrate too quickly. What is the major chemical component of paper?
- cellulose
- starch
- saccharose
- polyphenols
A: cellulose

Q: What will happen when you dissolve solid sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in water?
- The temperature of the water (or the solution) will increase.
- The temperature of the water (or the solution) will decrease.
- The temperature of the water (or the solution) will not change.
A: The temperature of the water (or the solution) will increase.
If right: Good. What does this mean for your safety in performing step 1 of the preparation procedure?

Q: Barium hydroxide hexahydrate is classed as a dangerous good. It is regarded as:
- toxic
- corrosive
- a flammable solid
- radioactive
A: toxic; corrosive

Q: The boiling point of methanol is approximately:
- between 40 and 50 degrees celsius
- between 50 and 60 degrees celsius
- between 60 and 70 degrees celsius
- between 70 and 80 degrees celsius
- between 80 and 90 degrees celsius
A: between 60 and 70 degrees celsius

Q: Acetylacetonate acts as a bidentate ligand. What does this mean?
- It forms two coordinative bonds to the metal.
- It has an oxidation state of +2.
- It has a total charge of -2.
- It exists in two isomeric forms.
A: It forms two coordinative bonds to the metal.

Q: Which of the steps in experiment I3 should be carried out in the fumehood?
- Preparing the methanolic solution of acetylacetone.
- Adding sodium acetate to the FeCl3/acetylacetonate solution.
- Vacuum filtration of the iron complex (the product).
A: Preparing the methanolic solution of acetylacetone.; Adding sodium acetate to the FeCl3/acetylacetonate solution.

Q: MnCl_2^.4 H_2O is classed as a dangerous good. It is regarded to be:
- toxic
- corrosive
- a flammable solid
- an oxidizing agent
A: toxic
Feedback: Check the risk assessment for experiment I2 for safety information (on LMS).

Q: In the preparation of tetraethylammonium tetrachloromanganate, what happens to the oxidation state of manganese?
- It is oxidised.
- The oxidation state remains unchanged.
- It is reduced.
A: The oxidation state remains unchanged.

Q: What is the safest method to heat a beaker of ethanol?
- Placing the beaker on a hotplate and setting the temperature to 80 degrees C.
- Covering the beaker with a watchglass and placing it in an oven at 120 degrees C for 5 minutes.
- Placing the beaker above a bath of boiling water (steam bath).
A: Placing the beaker above a bath of boiling water (steam bath).
Feedback: Ethanol is highly flammable (dangerous goods class 3).

Q: A solution of potassium dichromate in water can safely be disposed of by pouring it down the sink.
- True
- False
A: False
Feedback: Chromium is a heavy metal and must be disposed of as heavy metal waste.

Q: Potassium dichromate is classified as a dangerous good. It is regarded to be:
- explosive
- corrosive
- carcinogenic
- toxic
A: carcinogenic; toxic
Feedback: Check the risk assessment for experiment 1 for safety information (on LMS).

Q: What is the correct formula for oxalic acid?
- H(O)C-O-COOH
- HOOC-COOH
- H(O)C-O-O-C(O)H
- HOOC-CH3
A: HOOC-COOH

Q: Match the substituents attached to the chiral centre of phenylethylamine (pictured) with their priority in the Cahn-Ingold-Prelog (CIP) system (the system used to assign R/S stereochemistry).

1- highest, 4-lowest priority

[Image: phenylethylamine]
- What is the configuration of the chiral centre depicted above (R or S)? | R
- hydrogen | 4
- Phenyl group (C_6H_5) | 2
- methyl group (CH_3) | 3
- amino group (NH_2) | 1
Also offered: S
Feedback: The following website may help: http://www2.chemistry.msu.edu/faculty/reusch/VirtTxtJml/sterism3.htm

Q: Ibuprofen (A) is a weak acid (pK_a=4.4). What would be the ratio of unprotonated (A^-) to protonated (A) ibuprofen in a solution at pH 4.4?
A: 1
Feedback ("1"): Such ratios can be calculated using the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

Q: What would you expect the ratio of ibuprofen enantiomers (R and S) in the ibuprofen tablets to be?
- less than 25 % S-isomer
- less than 50 % S-isomer
- 50 % of the S-isomer
- more than 50 % S-isomer
- more than 75 % S-isomer
A: 50 % of the S-isomer

Q: In the distillation set-up, how should the cooling water be connected to the Liebig condenser?
- The water inlet should be at the downstream (in respect to the distillate flow) end of the condenser.
- The water inlet should be at the upstream (in respect to the distillate flow) end of the condenser.
- Both ends of the condenser should have water flowing into them.
A: The water inlet should be at the downstream (in respect to the distillate flow) end of the condenser.

Q: When leaving an experiment unattended, you must leave a note with what information on it?
- your experiment number
- your name
- estimated time of your return
- your criminal record
- the structure of the expected product
- the amount of starting material (in g or mL)
A: your experiment number; your name; estimated time of your return

Q: What is the main difference between a separatory funnel and a dropping funnel?
- None - these are just two names for the same thing.
- Separatory funnels have a curved shape, whereas a dropping funnel has straight walls.
- The dropping funnel has a side tube connecting the main funnel volume with the funnel outlet.
A: The dropping funnel has a side tube connecting the main funnel volume with the funnel outlet.
Feedback: The extra tube on the side has the function of allowing the pressure to equilibrate as liquid runs out of the funnel.

Q: What is the purpose of the drying tube on top of the reflux condenser in experiment D3?
- To prevent moisture from entering the reaction apparatus.
- To prevent ether fumes from leaving the reaction apparatus.
- To prevent gas exchange between the reaction apparatus and the laboratory air.
A: To prevent moisture from entering the reaction apparatus.
Feedback: The drying agent in the tube absorbs moisture, but it should not prevent gas flow - that could cause pressure to build up in the apparatus.

Q: Product purification in experiment D3 is achieved by recrystallisation from a hexane-dichloromethane (DCM) mixture, in which the triphenylcarbinol precipitates as one of the components evaporates faster than the other. Which of the following statements are correct?
- Dichloromethane evaporates more quickly than hexane.
- Hexane evaporates more quickly than dichloromethane.
- Triphenylcarbinol has a higher solubility in dichloromethane than in hexane.
- Triphenylcarbinol has a higher solubility in hexane than in dichloromethane.
A: Dichloromethane evaporates more quickly than hexane.; Triphenylcarbinol has a higher solubility in dichloromethane than in hexane.

Q: What is the upper explosion limit of diethyl ether (in % v/v)?
A: 48 (± 2)

Q: What is the lower explosion limit of diethyl ether (in % v/v)?
A: 1.8 (± 1)

Q: It is suspected that toluene may be a teratogen. What does this mean?
- It may possibly cause harm to the unborn child.
- It may possibly cause cancer of the thyroid.
- It may possibly cause damage to cell membranes.
A: It may possibly cause harm to the unborn child.

Q: Which of the following compounds is the most polar?
- lycopene
- chlorophyll-b
- chlorophyll-a
- beta-carotene
A: chlorophyll-b

Q: What is the boiling point of dichloromethane?
A: 40 (± 5)

Q: Which work-up step in experiment D2 will separate triethylamine from the propenoic acid products?
- During extraction after adding 10 % HCl - triethylamine will remain in the aqueous phase.
- During extraction after adding 10 % Na2CO3 - triethylamine will remain in the organic phase.
- Triethylamine will evaporate during the reaction.
- Triethylamine will be removed during the recrystallisation step.
A: During extraction after adding 10 % HCl - triethylamine will remain in the aqueous phase.

Q: What is the boiling point of acetic anhydride?
A: 139 (± 10)

Q: What is the molar concentration (in mol/L) of a 5 % sodium hydrogen carbonate solution (i.e., 5 g of NaHCO_3 in 100 g of solution - assume that the solution has the same density as water)?
A: 0.6 (± 0.1)

Q: What is silicosis?
- A respiratory disease caused by breathing in silica dust.
- A silicone-type polymer, which is extremely flexible.
- An allergy against silica powder.
A: A respiratory disease caused by breathing in silica dust.
Feedback: Always handle dry silica in a well-ventilated place - fume hoods are best.

Q: The esterification reaction of benzoyl chloride with propanol (reaction A) proceeds much faster than that of benzoic acid with propanol (reaction B). Which of the following statements is correct?
- The activation energy in A is lower than the activation energy in B.
- The activation energy in A is higher than the activation energy in B.
- The product of reaction A is more stable than that of reaction B.
- The by-product of reaction A (HCl) is more stable than the by-product of reaction B (H2O).
A: The activation energy in A is lower than the activation energy in B.

Q: What is the molar concentration (in mol/L) of a 5 % sodium sulfite solution (i.e., 5 g of Na_2SO_3 in 100 g of solution - assume that the solution has the same density as water)?
A: 0.4 (± 0.1)

Q: What is the dangerous goods class of benzoyl chloride (provide the number of the class)?
A: 8
Feedback: You can find the dangerous goods classes in section 14 of the MSDS.

Q: Which of the following products are formed when sodium borohydride is exposed to water?
- hydrogen gas (H2)
- sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
- boric acid (B(OH)3)
- sodium boride (NaB)
- oxygen gas (O2)
- sodium hydride (NaH)
A: hydrogen gas (H2); sodium hydroxide (NaOH); boric acid (B(OH)3)

Q: What happens when dichloromethane (DCM) is added to water?
- Two layers form, with DCM as the top layer.
- Two layers form, with DCM as the bottom layer.
- DCM reacts with water to form methanol and hydrochloric acid.
- The two liquids mix to form a single layer.
A: Two layers form, with DCM as the bottom layer.

Q: What is the boiling point of 2-furaldehyde (furfural) at atmospheric pressure (in degrees Celsius)?
A: 162 (± 5)

Q: What is the correct formula to calculate the activation energy (E_A) in this energy diagram?

[Image: Energy diagram of a reaction]
- EA=E2-E1
- EA=E2-E3
- EA=E1-E3
A: EA=E2-E1

Q: What is the correct way to dispose of the following solutions (or suspensions)? Match each compound with the appropriate waste container.
- 0.01 M hydrochloric acid in methanol | non-halogenated hydrocarbon waste
- 0.01 M hydrochloric acid in water | toxic aqueous waste
- 4-chlorobenzaldehyde in methanol | halogenated hydrocarbon waste
- 3,4-dimethoxybenzaldehyde and sodium hydroxide in ethanol | non-halogenated hydrocarbon waste
- 4-methylbenzaldehyde in acetone and water | non-halogenated hydrocarbon waste
- 4-chlorobenzaldehyde in acetone and water | halogenated hydrocarbon waste

Q: In experiment F3, you will prepare a solution of your product in methanol (with a final concentration of approximately 5 x 10^-5 M) in two steps:
(1) A small amount of the cinnamate is dissolved in 50 mL of methanol.
(2) 5 mL of that initial solution are further diluted to 50 mL.

If you wanted to prepare the solution in a single step, how many millilitres of methanol would you need (using the same amount of cinnamate as above)?
A: 500

Q: In experiment B3, you will prepare a solution of your product in methanol (with a final concentration of approximately 4 x 10^-5 M) in two steps:
(1) A small amount of the chalcone is dissolved in 50 mL of methanol.
(2) 5 mL of that initial solution are further diluted to 50 mL.

If you wanted to prepare the solution in a single step, how many millilitres of methanol would you need (using the same amount of chalcone as above)?
A: 500

Q: What happens when diethyl ether is added to water?
- Two layers form, with ether as the top layer.
- Two layers form, with ether as the bottom layer.
- Ether reacts with water to form ethanol and hydroxide.
- The two liquids mix to form a single layer.
A: Two layers form, with ether as the top layer.

Q: What is the boiling point of hexane?
A: 69 (± 5)

Q: At least how many moles of potassium hydroxide are needed to convert 1 mol of benzaldehyde into benzoic acid and benzyl alcohol?
A: 0.5
Feedback: In the actual experiment, KOH is supplied in excess of the stoichiometric amount because the H^+ ions formed in the reaction will neutralise some of the hydroxide.

Q: What is the boiling point of diethyl ether?
A: 35 (± 5)
Feedback: Mixing ether with water (or other chemicals) during an extraction will cause a slight increase in temperature and, given the low boiling point of ether, increase the pressure in the separation funnel. Let your demonstrator show you how to release that pressure in a safe way. Ether should always be used in the fumehood!

Q: What is the correct way to dispose of the following solutions (or suspensions)? Match each compound with the appropriate waste container.
- 0.01 M hydrochloric acid in methanol | non-halogenated hydrocarbon waste
- 0.01 M hydrochloric acid in water | toxic aqueous waste
- 4-bromobenzaldehyde in methanol and water | halogenated hydrocarbon waste
- 3,4-dimethoxybenzaldehyde and sodium hydroxide in ethanol | non-halogenated hydrocarbon waste
- 2-nitrobenzaldehyde in acetone and water | non-halogenated hydrocarbon waste
- 4-bromobenzaldehyde in hexane | halogenated hydrocarbon waste

Q: Which of the three liquids below is the heaviest (assume that they all have the same volume)? Select the correct order (from heaviest to lightest).
- benzaldehyde > water > methanol
- benzaldehyde > methanol > water
- methanol > water > benzaldehyde
- methanol > benzaldehyde > water
- water > methanol > benzaldehyde
- water > benzaldehyde > methanol
A: benzaldehyde > water > methanol

Q: Methanol is a classed as dangerous good and hazardous substance. What hazards are associated with it?
- highly flammable
- toxic
- teratogenic
- corrosive
A: highly flammable; toxic

Q: Which is the limiting reagent in this experiment?
- None - the reagents are added in stoichiometric proportions
- the aldehyde (Note that the conversion from grams into moles will include rounding errors: disregard the small differences (less than 1 mmol) arising from those.)
- acetone (Note that the conversion from grams into moles will include rounding errors: disregard the small differences (less than 1 mmol) arising from those.)
- sodium hydroxide (Note that the conversion from grams into moles will include rounding errors: disregard the small differences (less than 1 mmol) arising from those.)
A: None - the reagents are added in stoichiometric proportions

Q: What is the molecular formula of the gas that is formed when semicarbazide hydrochloride is combined with sodium hydrogen carbonate?
A: CO2

Q: What is the time-weighted average exposure limit for furfural (in mg/m^3)?
A: 7.9 (± 1)

Q: What is the formal oxidation state of the chlorine atom in pool chlorine (=calcium hypochlorite)?
A: 1
Feedback: See tutorial handout (on LMS) for rules and links for the determination of oxidation states.

Q: What is the flash point of 2-butanol (in degrees Celsius)?
A: 27 (± 3)
Feedback: You can find such data in chemical handbooks or material safety data sheets.

Q: What is  the boiling point of 2-butanol (in degrees Celsius)?
A: 98 (± 3)
Feedback: You can find such data in chemical handbooks or material safety data sheets.

Q: What are the hazards posed by 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine?
- It is corrosive.
- It is explosive when dry.
- It is highly flammable.
- It is known to cause cancer.
- It is not a hazardous substance or dangerous good.
A: It is explosive when dry.; It is highly flammable.

Q: What is the function of boiling chips?
- Their rough, porous surface enables vapours to form bubbles.
- They move when the solution is heated and thereby help to stir the mixture.
- Their acidic surface catalyses the reaction.
- They indicate traces of moisture in the solution by changing colour in the presence of water.
A: Their rough, porous surface enables vapours to form bubbles.
Feedback: For more information see http://orgchem.colorado.edu/hndbksupport/dist/boilchip.html .

Q: What is the correct way to dispose of a broken thermometer containing mercury?
- Transfer the spilled mercury (including glass pieces containing mercury) into a special waste container (ask your demonstrator). ([Image: Mercury tongs (source: Carl Roth, Germany)] Correct. Fine droplets of mercury are best absorbed using, for example, zinc dust or sulfur powder. Larger drops can be picked up using mercury tongs (picture above). For more information, see: http://sydney.edu.au/ohs/ohs_manual/mercurys.shtml#small .)
- Wait until the mercury has evaporated, then sweep up the glass and dispose of it in the broken glass bin. (Mercury vapour is hazardous to health. Clean up mercury spills immediately.)
- Sweep up the glass and mercury with a dustpan and broom and dispose of in toxic waste bin. (Mercury must not be mixed with general laboratory waste.)
A: Transfer the spilled mercury (including glass pieces containing mercury) into a special waste container (ask your demonstrator).

Q: What is the molar concentration (in mol/L) of a 100 mL^ solution containing 20 g of sucrose (molecular formula C_12H_22O_11)?
A: 0.58 (± 0.1)

Q: What rotation angle would you expect to observe for a sucrose solution of concentration 0.2 g/cm3 in a polarimeter tube of 20 centimetres pathlength (specific rotation of sucrose: 66 cm3/dm g)
A: 26.4 (± 2)

Q: A solution containing 1 mmol/L each of compounds 1 and 2 is analysed by UV/vis spectroscopy at a wavelength of 510 nm.  The absorbances of the individual compounds at 1 mmol/L are A1 and A2 (at 510 nm).  What is the absorbance of the mixture?
- A1 x A2
- A1 + A2
- A1 - A2
- A1 or A2, whichever is greater
A: A1 + A2

Q: The TLC in experiment B5 is run with an eluent containing acetic acid.  The R_f value for aspirin under these conditions is approximately 0.8.  How would the R_f value change if the acid were omitted from the eluent?
- Rf would increase
- Rf would decrease
- Rf would remain unchanged
A: Rf would decrease

Q: In the hydrolysis of sucrose in experiment Ins3, what is the role of the hydrochloric acid?
- it is a pH buffer
- it is a catalyst
- it is a reagent
- it is both reagent and catalyst
A: it is a catalyst

Q: In the following questions the same answer may be used more than once.  Type your answer (a, b, c, d or e) into the box relating to the question.

On the diagram below, which of the labelled structures:

1. is an example of a hinge joint?

2. allows for the movements abduction and adduction?

3. is made of a number of bones held together by sutures?

4. allows for movement in the coronal plane?

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]
[Image]
A: b; e; a; e

Q: For each of the questions or incomplete statements related to the diagram below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE in each case.

1. Support, attachment, mineral storage and protection are all functions of tissue type:

2. Contractility is a unique feature of tissue type:

3. The tissue layer that acts as a physical barrier for the body is:

4. The tissue layer composed of loose connective tissue is:

1. [...]

2. [...]

3. [...]

4. [...]
[Image]
A: a; d; b; c

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The corticospinal pathway fibres:

W. are part of a descending pathway.

X. are for the control of voluntary movements.

Y. travel in the white matter of the spinal cord.

Z. decussate (cross-over) in the spinal cord.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct
A: if all are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The dorsal column pathway fibres:

W. transmit somatosensory information.

X. travel in the grey matter of the spinal cord.

Y. decussate in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem.

Z. can be found in the anterior column.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if all are correct
A: if only W and Y are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The dorsal column pathway fibres:

W. carry motor information.

X. travel in the white matter of the spinal cord.

Y. transmit the modalities pain and temperature.

Z. decussate (cross over) in the medulla oblongata.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- if only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct
A: if only X and Z are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the combination of correct answers below.

The corticospinal pathway fibres:

W. are part of a descending pathway.

X. travel in the white matter of the spinal cord.

Y. initiate contraction of skeletal muscle.

Z. originate in the motor cortex.
- if only W, X and Y are correct
- if only W and Y are correct
- If only X and Z are correct
- if only Z is correct
- if all are correct
A: if all are correct

Q: For the incomplete statement below, select ONE response which is BEST or MOST APPROPRIATE.

The part of the pathway that transmits discriminative touch sensation is called the:
- Dorsal column / medial lemniscus tract
- spinocerebellar tract
- spinothalamic tract
- corticospinal tract
- vestibulospinal tract
A: Dorsal column / medial lemniscus tract

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

A unipolar neuron is classified functionally as:

W) afferent

X) efferent

Y) sensory

Z) motor
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W and Y are correct.

Q: For the question, type the letter corresponding to the appropriate arrow on the diagram in the answer boxes below the diagram.

[Image]

Which of the labelled structures is a tissue found in a cerebral hemisphere consisting largely of the cell bodies of neurones?
A: b

Q: For the incomplete statement, ONE or MORE of the suggested answers given is correct. Select the best combination of correct answers below.

Ganglia within the nervous system:

W) are primarily formed of grey matter

X)   are part of the PNS

Y)  contain neuronal cell bodies

Z)   are collections of axons transmitting information to the CNS
- if only W, X and Y are correct.
- if only W and Y are correct.
- if only X and Z are correct.
- if only Z is correct.
- if all are correct.
A: if only W, X and Y are correct.

Give one example of each of the following:
Feedback: 1. hazardous agent : 2. hazardous activity or task : 3.hazardous working conditions: 4.hazardous personal conditions: 5. hazardous personal states:

List and describe the three principles that Heider proposed as part of his “theory of naive psychology”?
Feedback: Please type in your answer and then press SAVE ANSWER then FINISH and move to the next section.

List and describe the three principles that Heider proposed as part of his “theory of naive psychology”?
Feedback: Please type in your answer and then press SAVE ANSWER

A member of the (David and Theresa) dyad is committing the “Fundamental Attribution Error”. The question is who and why?
Feedback: Please type in your answer, then press SAVE ANSWER and answer the next question below.

Name two (2) features shown on the photo that led you to choose the region you have given above and explain why you chose those features.
Feedback: Feature 1: Feature 2: Explanation:

Consider the pathway that information will travel in for pain felt in the fingers.

Name the pathway, state the number of neurones involved with this pathway, name the level within the central nervous system where this pathway decussates.

Explain what would happen to the conscious perception of the sensation if the somatic sensory neurone was cut before it reached the spinal cord.
Feedback: Name of pathway: Number of neurones involved with pathway: Level in the central nervous system at which pathway decussates: Effect of cutting the sensory neurone: