Title: PN A&P Import
Course: asd

Questions imported from the Practical Nursing A&P Course.

Q: The basic unit of life is the:
- cell
- tissue
- organ
- organ system
A: cell

Q: Which of the following best describes 0.9% NaCl solution?
- crenating to red blood cells
- hemolytic to red blood cells
- isotonic
- hypertonic
A: isotonic

Q: Which of the following are building blocks of protein?
- amino acids
- cellulose and glycogen
- glucose, fructose, and galactose
- monosaccharides
A: amino acids

Q: A term for flat, irregular epithelial cells is:
- basal
- cutaneous
- squamous
- striated
A: squamous

Q: A band of connective tissue connecting two bones is called a(an):
- ligament
- periosteum
- serosa
- tendon
A: ligament

Q: What is the color of skin that is supplied by oxygen-poor blood?
- cyanotic
- flushed
- jaundiced
- pink
A: cyanotic

Q: New cells grow from the deepest layer of the epidermis, the:
- adipose layer
- stratum corneum
- stratum germinativum
- stratum lucidum
A: stratum germinativum

Q: Which of the following makes the skin water resistant?
- carotene
- iron pigments
- keratin
- melanin
A: keratin

Q: The term describing a state of internal balance is:
- balance
- equilibrium
- homeostasis
- metabolis
A: homeostasis

Q: The zygomatic bone:
- articulates with the mandible
- holds the upper teeth
- is a cranial bone
- is called the cheekbone
A: is called the cheekbone

Q: The bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, which supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of its muscles, is the:
- ethmoid bone
- hyoid bone
- palatine bone
- vomer
A: hyoid bone

Q: In which abdominopelvic region is the gallbladder found?
- left lower quadrant
- left upper quadrant
- right lower quadrant
- right upper quadrant
A: right upper quadrant

Q: The medial bone of the forearm when in the anatomical position is the:
- humerus
- olecranon
- radius
- ulna
A: ulna

Q: Red marrow is found in:
- compact bone
- long bone shafts
- spongy bone
- the medullary cavity
A: spongy bone

Q: Which word (s) best reflect (s) the function of the epiphyseal discs?
- blood cell formation
- longitudinal growth
- phagocytosis
- secretion of synovial fluid
A: longitudinal growth

Q: Which of the following is a hinge joint?
- anterior fontanel
- coronal suture
- metacarpophalangeal joint
- sternomanubrial
A: metacarpophalangeal joint

Q: A degenerative joint disease that primarily occurs in weight-bearing joints
- osteoarthritis
- osteoporosis
- rheumatoid arthritis
- rickets
A: osteoarthritis

Q: The two filaments that form crossbridges are:
- actin and myosin
- actin and troponin
- tropomyosin and myosin
- troponin and tropomyosin
A: actin and myosin

Q: The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is called:
- acetylcholine
- actin
- ATP
- myosin
A: acetylcholine

Q: The cheek muscle used in whistling is the:
- buccinator
- masseter
- orbicularis oculi
- orbicularis oris
A: buccinator

Q: The large triangular muscle across the back of the neck and shoulders is the:
- aponeurosis
- deltoid
- quadriceps
- trapezius
A: trapezius

Q: What is the name of the space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of a second neuron?
- cell body
- node of Ranvier
- synapse
- vesicle
A: synapse

Q: A subunit of an element is a(n)
- atom
- compound
- mixture
- molecule
A: atom

Q: What term describes the hopping of the action potential along the axon from one node (of Ranvier) to the next?
- depolarization
- myelination
- repolarization
- salutatory conduction
A: salutatory conduction

Q: The corpus collusum:
- connects the medulla oblongata and the spinal cord
- connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres
- is a band of gray matter that lines the ventricles
- is the point at which all motor fibers decussate
A: connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres

Q: This structure is part of the diencephalons; it regulates the anterior pituitary gland, water balance, appetite, body temperature, and the autonomic nervous system.
- cerebellum
- hypothalamus
- medulla oblongata
- pons
A: hypothalamus

Q: Vital centers that regulate breathing and the heartbeat are located in the
- cerebellum
- hypothalamus
- medulla oblongata
- pons
A: medulla oblongata

Q: An infant’s spinal cord extends:
- the full length of the spinal cavity
- to the level of the 1^st lumbar vertebrae
- to the level of the 5^th lumbar vertebrae
- to the sacrum
A: the full length of the spinal cavity

Q: Which of the following is the correct pathway for a reflex arc
- effector, central nervous system, sensory neuron, motor neuron, receptor
- effector, sensory neuron, central nervous system, receptor, motor neuron
- receptor, motor neuron, central nervous system, sensory neuron, effector
- receptor, sensory neuron, central nervous system, motor neuron, effector
A: receptor, sensory neuron, central nervous system, motor neuron, effector

Q: The first cranial nerve is responsible for:
- balance
- hearing
- smell
- swallowing
A: smell

Q: An intramuscular injection into the buttocks is given in the upper outer quadrant in an attempt to avoid injuring this nerve.
- common peroneal
- femoral
- phrenic
- sciatic
A: sciatic

Q: A spinal cord injury at the level of C2 causes:a
- hemiplegia and blindness
- paraplegia and deafness
- quadriplegia and an inability to breathe
- ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils
A: quadriplegia and an inability to breathe

Q: Which of the following is an effect of parasympathetic discharge?
- dilation of the pupil of the eye
- increased blood pressure
- slowed heart rate
- stronger contraction of the heart
A: slowed heart rate

Q: Which of the following represents bicarbonate, an anion that is important in acid-base regulation?
- CaCO_3
- HCl
- HCO^-3
- KCl
A: HCO^-3

Q: A drug that causes the heart to beat stronger and faster is called
- anticholinergic
- parasympatholytic
- sympatholytic
- sympathomimetic
A: sympathomimetic

Q: The colored part of the eye that contains the intrinsic eye muscles; the circular muscle and the radial muscles is the:
- iris
- macula lutea
- retina
- suspensory ligaments
A: iris

Q: An area of heavy concentration of cones providing the most acute visions is the:
- cornea
- fovea centralis
- rods
- optic disk
A: fovea centralis

Q: Cones:
- are concentrated in the optic disc
- are concerned with night vision
- are located in the occipital lobe
- detect red, yellow, and blue colors
A: detect red, yellow, and blue colors

Q: What is the condition caused by impaired damage of aqueous humor through the canal of Schlemm that increases intraocular pressure?
- cataracts
- conjunctvitis
- glaucoma
- strabismus
A: glaucoma

Q: Which of the following is most related to the sense of hearing?
- first cranial nerve
- organ of Corti
- semicircular canals
- vestibular nerve
A: organ of Corti

Q: What is another name for the tympanic membrane?
- eardrum
- organ of Corti
- oval window
- stirrup
A: eardrum

Q: Which of the following is an oxygen-carrying blood cell?
- eosinophil
- erythrocyte
- granulocyte
- thrombocyte
A: erythrocyte

Q: The plasma proteins consist of:
- albumin
- bilirubin
- eosinophil
- leukocyte
A: albumin

Q: The cell that gives rise to all blood cells are found in the:
- lymph system
- red bone marrow
- spleen
- yellow bone marrow
A: red bone marrow

Q: Blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45 and therefore:
- has a pH similar to urine and stomach contents
- is acidic
- is alkaline
- is 3 to 4 times more viscous than water
A: is alkaline

Q: What does hematocrit measure?
- blood-clotting activity
- percentage of red blood cells in the blood
- phagocytic activity
- the amount of bilirubin in the blood
A: percentage of red blood cells in the blood

Q: Which compound is the universal solvent?
- alcohol
- iron tincture
- sugar water
- water
A: water

Q: The mitochondria is called the power plant of the cell because:
- all DNA is located within the mitochondria
- all protein synthesis occurs within the mitochondria
- all ribosomes are located within the mitochondria
- most of the ATP is produced within the mictochondria
A: most of the ATP is produced within the mictochondria

Q: Identify the transport mechanism: a passive process that “pulls” water from an area where there is more water to an area where there is less water.
- an ATP-driven pump
- endocytosis
- filtration
- osmosis
A: osmosis

Q: If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution such as water, the cell will:
- crenate.
- differentiate.
- shrink.
- swell and burst.
A: swell and burst.

Q: The symbol for sodium is:
- Na
- S
- Sa
- So
A: Na

Q: The element that is combines with oxygen in water is:
- calcium
- carbon
- hydrogen
- iron
A: hydrogen

Q: Which of the following is considered a polar molecule?
- Cl^-
- H2O
- NaCl
- NH4^+
A: H2O

Q: A charged atom or group of atoms is called a(n):
- compound
- electron
- ion
- molecule
A: ion

Q: A cation is a (an):
- electrolyte
- ion that has an atomic weight of 2
- isotope
- positively charged ion
A: positively charged ion

Q: This element has 8 protons in the nucleus and 9 electrons in its orbits.  It is therefore a (an):
- acid
- anion
- cation
- electrolyte
A: anion

Q: Which of the following represents bicarbonate, an anion that is important in acid-base regulation?
- CaCO_3
- HCl
- HCO_-3
- KCl
A: HCO_-3

Q: Which process refers to the dissociation of NaCl into Na^+ and Cl^-?
- covalent bonding
- hydrogen bonding
- ionization
- radioactivity
A: ionization

Q: A unit formed by the union of two or more atoms is a(n)
- compound
- mixture
- molecule
- solute
A: molecule

Q: Which compound is the universal solvent?
- ATP
- carbon dioxide
- oxygen
- water
A: water

Q: Which of the following increase the speed of a chemical reaction, but is itself not used up in the chemical reaction?
- ATP
- a catalyst
- a cation
- an isotope
A: a catalyst

Q: Which of the following is not paired correctly?
- C – carbon
- F – fluoride
- O – oxygen
- P – potassium
A: P – potassium

Q: A pH measuring less than 7 is said to be:
- acidic
- basic or alkaline
- metabolic
- neutral
A: acidic

Q: A substance with a pH of 6.8 is:
- has a neutral pH
- is acidic
- is alkaline
- is basic
A: is acidic

Q: Which pH is considered neutral?
- 7.00
- 7.35
- 7.45
- 14.0
A: 7.00

Q: What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45?
- the H^+ of the solution will increase
- the pH will be greater than 7.45
- the pH will be greater than 8.0
- the solution will become more alkaline
A: the H^+ of the solution will increase

Q: The heart pushes blood into the blood vessels as chemical energy and is then converted to this form of energy.
- mechanical
- nuclear
- radiant
- thermal
A: mechanical

Q: The energy transfer molecule, ATP, is composed of:
- a carbohydrate, a protein, and a lipid
- a sugar, a base, and three phosphate groups
- an acid and a base
- water and carbon dioxide
A: a sugar, a base, and three phosphate groups

Q: A mixture in which the components remain evenly distributed is a(n)
- compound
- molecule
- solution
- suspension
A: solution

Q: The dissolving portion of a solution is the:
- a liquifier
- solute
- solvent
- suspension
A: solvent

Q: Which of the following best describes a solution in which alcohol is the solvent?
- acid
- alkaline
- aqueous
- tincture
A: tincture

Q: Organic chemistry is the study of                       containing substances.
- calcium
- carbon
- iodine
- iron
A: carbon

Q: Which compound acts as a lubricant to decrease friction between two moving structures?
- bicarbonate
- carbon dixoide
- sodium chloride
- water
A: water

Q: A negatively-charged particle orbiting the nucleus of an atom is called a(n)
- electron
- neutron
- photon
- proton
A: electron

Q: An atom has 2 protons, 2 neutrons, and 2 electrons; it has an atomic:
- number of 4
- number of 6
- weight mass of 2
- weight mass of 4
A: weight mass of 4

Q: The atomic number of phosphorus is 15.  How many protons does phosphorus have?
- 10
- 12
- 15
- more information is required to answer this question
A: 15

Q: An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron; its isotope has:
- 1 proton and 1 neutron
- 2 electrons and 0 neutrons
- 2 protons and 0 neutrons
- 2 protons and 2 neutrons
A: 1 proton and 1 neutron

Q: A chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons is described as a(n)
- covalent bond
- coordinate bond
- ionic bond
- mixture
A: covalent bond

Q: This type of blood is called the universal recipient:
- A
- AB
- B
- O
A: AB

Q: What does hematocrit measure?
- blood-clotting activity
- percentage of red blood cells in the blood
- phagocytic activty
- the amount of bilirubin in the blood
A: percentage of red blood cells in the blood

Q: Which of the following is least descriptive of blood?
- Oxygenated blood is redder than unoxigenated blood.
- The average adult has 4 to 6 liters of blood.
- The normal pH of blood is 7.35 to 7.45.
- Water is 3 to 5 times more viscous than blood.
A: Water is 3 to 5 times more viscous than blood.

Q: Which of the following is characteristic of th eplatelet?
- bilirubin
- granulocyte
- O_2 transport
- stickiness
A: stickiness

Q: An immature red blood cell is called a:
- leukocyte
- neutrophil
- megakarocyte
- reticulocyte
A: reticulocyte

Q: What is necessary to activate prothrombic into thrombin?
- calcium
- hemophiliac factor
- heparin
- vitamin K
A: calcium

Q: The protein that carries oxygen in red blood cells is:
- erythropoietin
- gamma globulin
- hemoglobin
- hemostasis
A: hemoglobin

Q: The fluid portion of the blood is:
- electrolyte fluid
- plasma
- serum
- tissue fluid
A: plasma

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- antigens: A, B, Rh factor
- blood cells: fibrionogens, albumin, globulins
- steps in hemostasis: blood vessel spasm, platelet plug, coagulation
- types of anemia: iron deficiency, pernicious, sickle cell
A: blood cells: fibrionogens, albumin, globulins

Q: Petechiae formation:
- is characteristic of sickle cell anemia
- is due to a deficiency of reticulocytes
- is most often prevented by a diet that is high in vitamin K
- pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin
A: pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin

Q: Which of the following is most related to biconcave disc, hemoglobin, and erythropoietin?
- granulocyte
- "poly"
- red blood cell
- thrombocyte
A: red blood cell

Q: The most abundant type of leukocyte is the:
- granulocyte
- lymphocyte
- monocyte
- neutrophil
A: neutrophil

Q: Monocytes and lymphocytes:
- are agranular leukocytes
- are hemostatic
- are thrombocytes
- contain hemoglobin
A: are agranular leukocytes

Q: During the coagulation process a netlike structure is formed.  What is this structure called?
- albumin
- fibrin
- plasminogen
- prothrombin
A: fibrin

Q: The ABO blood types are named for:
- the antibodies in the person's plasma
- the antibodies in the person's red blood cell
- the antigens in the person's plasma
- the antigens in the person's red blood cell
A: the antigens in the person's red blood cell

Q: Estimation of the percentage of each white blood cell type in a smear is called a:
- complete blood count
- differential white count
- hemotocrit
- red cell count
A: differential white count

Q: Platelets are derived from large bone marrow cells called:
- erythrocytes
- macrophages
- megakarocytes
- thrombocytes
A: megakarocytes

Q: Which of the following causes leukopenia?
- hemolysis
- infection
- Myelosuppression
- petechiae
A: Myelosuppression

Q: Which of the following is most descriptive of the physiologic role of the "poly"?
- bilirubin metabolism
- clot dissolution
- oxygen transport
- phagocytosis
A: phagocytosis

Q: Which of the following is most likely to happen with the activation of plasminogen?
- jaundice develops
- red blood cells agglutinate
- the blood clot dissolves
- the blood clots, or coagulates
A: the blood clot dissolves

Q: Which function is most associated with fibrinogen, prothrombin, and calcium?
- blood cell production
- blood coagulation
- fibrinolysis
- platelet aggregation
A: blood coagulation

Q: An antithrombin agent:
- causes jaundice
- fights infection
- prevents blood coagulation
- stimulates the synthesis of hemoglobin
A: prevents blood coagulation

Q: Leukocytosis and leukopenia are:
- abnormal numbers of white blood cells
- decreased number of white blood cells
- increased numbers of white blood cells
- the result of myelosuppression
A: abnormal numbers of white blood cells

Q: At the end of the 120 days, the red blood cell:
- becomes known as a "poly"
- becomes known as a reticulocyte
- is converted to fibrin
- is removed from the circulation and broken down
A: is removed from the circulation and broken down

Q: Heme contains:
- albumin
- erythropoiethin
- iron
- plasma
A: iron

Q: Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are:
- granulocytes
- heparin-secreting
- lymphocytes
- phagocytic
A: granulocytes

Q: Rapid breakdown of this blood cell causes jaundice:
- granulocyte
- lymphocyte
- platelet
- red blood cell
A: red blood cell

Q: What is the name of the condition that is caused by a diet that is deficient in iron?
- anemia
- jaundice
- kernicterus
- leukopenia
A: anemia

Q: Which of the following is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin?
- hypoxemia
- infection
- low blood volume
- low plasma pH (acidosis)
A: hypoxemia

Q: White blood cells are called:
- erythrocytes
- leukocytes
- platelets
- thrombocytes
A: leukocytes

Q: Kernicterus is most related to elevated plasma levels of this substance:
- albumin
- bilirubin
- fibrinogen
- iron
A: bilirubin

Q: A band cell is an immature:
- eosinophil
- lymphocyte
- monocyte
- neutrophil
A: neutrophil

Q: This cell is the “parent” cell of the three types of blood cells produced in the bone marrow.
- erythrocyte
- leukocyte
- megakarocyte
- stem cell
A: stem cell

Q: Why may a person who has had a gastrectomy develop pernicious anemia?
- A major source of erythropoietin has been removed.
- Impaired bone marrow activity.
- Inability to absorb vitamin B_12
- The lack of gastric hydrochloric acid causes myelosuppression.
A: Inability to absorb vitamin B_12

Q: One function of the blood is transportation of substances around the body.  Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the transportation of specific substances trhoughout the body?
- Blood delivers oxygen to the lungs from every cell in the body.
- Blood picks up waste materials from the cells and delivers the waste to organs that eliminate from the body.
- Hormones are transported through the blood for movement throughout the body.
- Nutrients are transported through the blood for movement throughout the body.
A: Blood delivers oxygen to the lungs from every cell in the body.

Q: Erythroblastosis fetalis is primarily a problem involving:
- agglutination and hemolysis
- inability of the kidneys to secrete erythropoietin
- lack of intrinsic factor
- myelosuppression
A: agglutination and hemolysis

Q: An infection is most often accompanied by:
- anemia
- jaundice
- leukocytosis
- thrombocytopenia
A: leukocytosis

Q: Which of the following best characterizes th eeffects of hemophilia?
- bleeding
- high fever
- infection
- jaundice
A: bleeding

Q: The normal range for hemoglobin in women is:
- 8-14
- 12-16
- 15-17
- 40-50
A: 12-16

Q: A weakened area of a blood vessel wall that bulges outward is:
- an aneurysm
- gangrene
- plaque
- varicose vein
A: an aneurysm

Q: Which part of the brain participates in the baroreceptor reflex?
- cerebellum
- cerebrum
- corpus collusum
- medulla oblangata
A: medulla oblangata

Q: The subclavian veins:
- are part of the hepatic portal circulation
- deliver blood to the superior vena cava
- pump blood into the jagular veins
- receive blood from the inferior vena cava
A: deliver blood to the superior vena cava

Q: This vein begins in the foot, ascends along the medial side, and merges with the femoral vein to become the external iliac vein:
- dorsalis pedis
- popliteal
- portal
- saphenous
A: saphenous

Q: Which of the following vessels is not located in the head and neck region?
- circle of Wilis
- common iliac arteries
- jagular veins
- vertebral arteries
A: common iliac arteries

Q: A sphygmomanometer measures:
- blood flow
- blood pressure
- hematocrit
- oxygen saturation
A: blood pressure

Q: What is the artery that supplies the head and neck region?
- axillary
- carotid
- jagular
- portal
A: carotid

Q: Which of the following vessels carries unoxygenated blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava?
- celiac axis
- hepatic artery
- hepatic vein
- portal vein
A: hepatic vein

Q: The site most often used to palpate an individuals' pulse is the:
- abdominal aorta
- jagular vein
- posterior communicating artery
- radial artery
A: radial artery

Q: Near the base of which artery would you find the special receptors (baroreceptors) that help regulate blood pressure:
- aortic arch
- jagular
- pulmonary
- vertebral
A: aortic arch

Q: Your patient's blood pressure measures 128/72.  What is her systolic pressure?
- 56
- 72
- 128
- 200
A: 128

Q: Which of the following vessels should be colored blue?
- carotid
- jugular
- pulmonary vein
- umbilical veins
A: jugular

Q: The blood pressure that occurs during relaxation of the ventricles is:
- diastolic pressure
- pulse deficit
- pulse pressure
- systolic pressure
A: diastolic pressure

Q: The carotid and vertebral arteries supply the:
- brain
- heart
- liver
- lungs
A: brain

Q: Three mechanisms that return venous blood to the heart are:
- contraction of the skeletal muscles
- breathing
- vasodilation
- a, b, c
- a, b
A: a, b

Q: Which of the following increases vascular resistance, stroke volume, and heart rate?
- administration of a sympatholytic drug
- stmulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
- stimulation of sympathetic nervous system
- stimulation of the vagus nerve
A: stimulation of sympathetic nervous system

Q: What is the fetal structure that connects the pulmonary artery with the aorta?
- ductus arteriosus
- ductus venosus
- foramen ovale
- placenta
A: ductus arteriosus

Q: This is a short artery that further divides into the gastric, splenic, and hepatic arteries:
- celiac trunk
- cricle of Willis
- portal vein
- renal artery
A: celiac trunk

Q: The longest vein in the body that is located in the lower extremity is the:
- jagular
- saphenous
- subclavian
- vena cava
A: saphenous

Q: Which structure is supplied by the femoral, popliteal, and the tibial arteries?
- abdomen
- arms
- head
- thighs and legs
A: thighs and legs

Q: Which condition is caused by defective valves in the lower leg veins?
- absent pedal pulse
- ascites
- portal hypertension
- varicose veins
A: varicose veins

Q: Which of the following blood vessels are called capacitance vessels?
- arterioles
- capillaries
- large arteries
- veins
A: veins

Q: Capillary oncotic pressure is due primarily to:
- blood pressure
- electrolytes such as sodium and chloride
- lymph
- plasma proteins
A: plasma proteins

Q: What characteristic of the arteriole allows it to function as a resistance vessel?
- its porous membrane
- its smooth muscle
- its thin membrane
- its valves
A: its smooth muscle

Q: Trace the flow of blood: placenta>umbilical vein>ductus venous>:
- ductus arteriosus
- foramen ovale
- inferior vena cava
- umbilical artery
A: inferior vena cava

Q: In which condition is the pedal pulse absent?
- cirrhosis of the liver
- arterior occlusive disease
- carotid sinus snycope
- portal vein hypertension
A: arterior occlusive disease

Q: The iliac veins drain unoxygenated blood into the:
- greater saphenous vein
- inferior vena cava
- jagular vein
- portal vein
A: inferior vena cava

Q: The basilic, median cubital, and radial veins:
- are found in the arms
- are part of the hepatic portal circulation
- drain the brain
- drain venous blood into the inferior vena cava
A: are found in the arms

Q: The most inferior portion of the aorta is the:
- abdominal aorta
- aortic arch
- descending aorta
- thoracic aorta
A: abdominal aorta

Q: Blood pressure is highest in the:
- aorta
- circle of Willis
- femoral artery
- inferior vena cava
A: aorta

Q: The splanchnic circulation:
- is the special circulation that brings oxygenated blood to the base of the brain.
- occurs only in the fetal circulation.
- refers to the blood vessels in the lower extremities.
- refers to the blood vessels that supply the stomach, spleen, pancreas, and intestines.
A: refers to the blood vessels that supply the stomach, spleen, pancreas, and intestines.

Q: A connection between any two vessels, such as the circular arrangement of the circle of Willis, is called a (an):
- anastomosis
- arterial arch
- metarteriole
- portal system
A: anastomosis

Q: Which of the following vessels is found in the pulmonary circulation?
- aorta
- coronary arteries
- pulmonary veins
- superior vena cava
A: pulmonary veins

Q: What are the vessels that carry blood toward the heart?
- arteriole
- artery
- capillary
- vein
A: vein

Q: Trace the flow of blood: axillary vein>subclavian vein>brachiocephalic vein>:
- jugular vein
- inferior vena cava
- superior vena cava
- right ventricle
A: superior vena cava

Q: The adventitia, media, and intima are:
- arterioles
- layers of the blood vessels
- semilunar valves
- valves that are found within veins
A: layers of the blood vessels

Q: What is the pulse pressure when a person's blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg?
- 40
- 80
- 120
- pulse pressure can not be determined from this information
A: 40

Q: Which of the following elevates blood pressure?
- antihypertensive drugs
- diuretics
- vasodilators
- vasopressors
A: vasopressors

Q: The abdominal aorta splits into the:
- right and left brachiocephalic artery
- inferior and superior mesenteric arteries
- right and left coronary arteries
- common iliac artery
A: common iliac artery

Q: Which of the following structures has the greatest effect on vascular resistance?
- arterioles
- capillaries
- heart
- veins
A: arterioles

Q: Which of the following is a gel-like substance located inside the cell, but               outside the nucleus?
- cytoplasm
- isotonic saline
- lysosomal enzymes
- nucleoplasm
A: cytoplasm

Q: Oxygen moves from the lungs (high concentration) into the blood (low              concentration) in response to:
- diffusion
- endocytosis
- endocytosis
- filtration
A: diffusion

Q: Which word means “the bursting of red blood cells”?
- catalyst
- crenation
- endocytosis
- hemolysis
A: hemolysis

Q: The correct order of the stages in mitosis is:
- anaphase, telophase, metaphase, prophase
- prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
- prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase
- telophase, anaphase, prophase, metaphase
A: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Q: In G_0, the cell is:
- duplicating DNA
- making mRNA
- resting
- undergoing mitosis
A: resting

Q: An abnormal new growth, usually referring to a tumor, is called (a):
- differentiated cell
- necrosis
- neoplasm
- stem cell
A: neoplasm

Q: Starch is classified as a (an):
- amino acid
- fatty acid
- lipid
- polysaccharide
A: polysaccharide

Q: Which of the following terms is most descriptive of ribose and deoxyribose?
- disaccharides
- lipids
- steroids
- sugars
A: sugars

Q: Glucose is usually broken down in order to:
- make carbon dioxide
- make glycogen
- provide energy (ATP) for the working cellsprovide energy (ATP) for the working cells
- use up urea
A: provide energy (ATP) for the working cellsprovide energy (ATP) for the working cells

Q: Which of the following is a nitrogen-containing waste product?
- adenosine triphosphate
- carbon dioxide
- glucose
- urea
A: urea

Q: Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell?
- centriole
- lysosome
- mitochondria
- nucleus
A: nucleus

Q: Which of the following is most related to the process of glycolysis?
- aerobic
- Krebs cycle
- lactic acid
- mitochondria
A: lactic acid

Q: In the absence of oxygen, glucose is catabolized to:
- carbon dioxide and water
- fatty acid
- lactic acid
- urea
A: lactic acid

Q: Gluconeogenesis is a process which makes:
- glucose from glycogen
- glucose from protein
- protein from fat
- protein from glucose
A: glucose from protein

Q: DNA
- contains rilose as its sugar
- contains the following bases: cytosine, quanine, aderine, and uracil
- is double stranded and stores the genetic code
- is located within the cytoplasm
A: is double stranded and stores the genetic code

Q: Which of the following is a double-stranded nucleic acid that is called the       “blueprint for life”?
- DNA
- gene
- RNA
- urea
A: DNA

Q: Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine are:
- amino acids
- bases of DNA
- intermediates of the Krebs cycle
- sugars used to synthesize nucleotides
A: bases of DNA

Q: With which process are both DNA and mRNA involved?
- ATP production
- glycolysis
- transcription
- translation
A: transcription

Q: Which of the following carries the individual amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosome for assembly into a protein?
- cRNA
- hRNA
- mRNA
- tRNA
A: tRNA

Q: mRNA “gets” the genetic code from:
- centrioles
- DNA
- tRNA
- the ribosomes on the ER
A: DNA

Q: With which base can adenine pair?
- cytosine
- guanine
- ribose
- uracil
A: uracil

Q: Small hairlike projections from the cell are called:
- cilia
- flagella
- lashes
- microhairs
A: cilia

Q: Mitosis
- causes a 50% reduction in chromosome number
- occurs only within sex cells
- occurs only with red blood ells
- produces two genetically identical cells
A: produces two genetically identical cells

Q: A cervical Pap smear indicates well differentiated cells.  You would interpret this statement as:
- a normal cellular appearance
- evidence of cancer
- evidence of edema
- evidence of necrosis
A: a normal cellular appearance

Q: Which of the following is found on rough endoplasmic reticulum?
- cilia
- DNA
- lysosomes
- ribosomes
A: ribosomes

Q: Which structure puts the finishing touches on and packages the protein from the cell?
- Golgi apparatus
- lysosome
- mictochondria
- nucleus
A: Golgi apparatus

Q: Identify the transport mechanism: a passive process that uses a carrier molecule to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
- an ATP-driven pump
- facilitated diffusion
- filtration
- osmosis
A: facilitated diffusion

Q: What is the name of the process in which an intracellular protein containing vesicle fuses with the cell membrane and expels the protein to the outside of the cell?
- endocytosis
- exocytosis
- phagocytosis
- pinocytosis
A: exocytosis

Q: The alimentary tube (digestive tract) extends from the:
- esophagus to colon
- mouth to anus
- pharynx to anus
- pharynx to colon
A: mouth to anus

Q: The fundus, body, and pylorus are parts of the:
- biliary tree
- large intestine
- small intestine
- stomach
A: stomach

Q: Sucrose, maltose, and lactose are:
- disaccharides
- emulsifying agents
- gastric enzymes
- secreted by the pancreas
A: disaccharides

Q: What structure prevents gastric reflux?
- anal sphincter
- ileocecal valve
- lower edophageal sphincter
- pyloric valve
A: lower edophageal sphincter

Q: The salivary glands located just in front and inferior to the ears are the:
- parotid glands
- sublingual glands
- submandibular glands
- subpharyngeal glands
A: parotid glands

Q: Hydrochloric acid is secreted in the stomach by what type of cells?
- chief cells
- goblet cells
- mucus cells
- parietal cells
A: parietal cells

Q: The wall of this structure secretes cholecystokinin:
- cecum
- duodenum
- pylorus
- stomach
A: duodenum

Q: Which of the following refers to the roof of the mouth?
- frenulum
- palate
- tonsil
- uvula
A: palate

Q: Which of the following is least characteristic of glucose?
- an end-product of digestion by a disaccharidase
- carbohydrate
- monosaccharide
- trypsin
A: trypsin

Q: This organ synthesizes clotting factors, stores vitamins, detoxifies drugs, and helps regulate blood glucose:
- gall bladder
- liver
- pancreas
- stomach
A: liver

Q: The appendix is attached to this structure:
- cecum
- jejunum
- pylorus
- sigmoid
A: cecum

Q: This membrane resembles an apron draped over the abdominal organs:
- mesentery
- mesocolon
- greater omentum
- lesser omentum
A: greater omentum

Q: What is the tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach?
- ampulla of Vater
- esophagus
- pylorus
- trachea
A: esophagus

Q: This organ produces bile and secretes it into the hepatic duct:
- gallbladder
- liver
- pancreas
- spleen
A: liver

Q: Gastrin, secretin, and cholecystokinin are:
- amylases
- emulsifying agents
- hormones
- secreted by the stomach
A: hormones

Q: The structure that prevents the refluxof contects from the cecum is the:
- anal sphincter
- ileocecal valve
- lower esophageal sphincter
- pyloric valve
A: ileocecal valve

Q: This is the site of most digestion and absorption:
- cecum
- duodenum
- mouth
- stomach
A: duodenum

Q: The common bile duct is formed by the union of the:
- cystic duct and hepatic duct
- gastric duct and cystic duct
- pancreatic duct and hepatic duct
- spleenatie duct and pancreatic duct
A: cystic duct and hepatic duct / pancreatic duct and hepatic duct

Q: This structure is located between the common bile duct and the duodenum:
- cystic duct
- hepatic duct
- pyloric valve
- sphincter of Oddi
A: sphincter of Oddi

Q: Which of the following produces amino acids as its end-product of digestion?
- amylase
- bile
- lipase
- proteases
A: proteases

Q: Which of the following vitamins is necessary for skin, mucous membranes, and night vision?
- A
- B
- C
- K
A: A

Q: The stomach mixes and mashes a bolus of food that is called:
- chyle
- chyme
- feces
- flatulence
A: chyme

Q: Complete proteins:
- are classified as either saturated or unsaturated
- are found in cereal grains, legumes, and root vegetables
- are synthesized by the body
- contains all essential amino acids
A: contains all essential amino acids

Q: The pyloric sphincter is located between the duodenum and this structure:
- common bile duct
- esophagus
- jejunum
- stomach
A: stomach

Q: Which surgical procedure is most likely to cause dumping syndrome?
- appendectomy
- cholecystectomy
- colostomy
- gastrectomy
A: gastrectomy

Q: The sigmoid is part of the:
- colon
- hepatic portal circulation
- small intestine
- stomach
A: colon

Q: The first part of the small intestine is the:
- duodenum
- ileum
- jejunum
- sigmoid
A: duodenum

Q: Which statement is true?
- Cholecystokinin is an amylase
- Lipase is an enzyme that digests fat
- Secretin is stored in the gall bladder
- Trypsin is secreted by the liver
A: Lipase is an enzyme that digests fat

Q: Pyloric stenosis is characterized by:
- ascites
- flatulence
- jaundice
- projectile vomiting
A: projectile vomiting

Q: The part of the colon which the small intestine empties into is the:
- ascending colon
- cecum
- sigmoid colon
- transverse colon
A: cecum

Q: What enzyme is found in saliva?
- bile
- lipase
- amylase
- trypsin
A: amylase

Q: Pain in the RLQ is most characteristic of:
- appendicitis
- dumping syndrome
- GERD
- hiatal hernia
A: appendicitis

Q: A large, flat, grinding tooth at the back of the mouth is the:
- bicuspids
- canines
- incisor
- molar
A: molar

Q: The amount of energy to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C is called (a):
- basal metabolic rate
- calorie
- carbohydrate yield
- metabolism
A: calorie

Q: The following are layers of the digestive tract wall:

1. smooth muscle

2. mucosa

3. serosa

4. submucosa

The correct order from the innermost to the outermost layer is:
- 4, 2, 3, 1
- 3, 1, 4, 2
- 2, 4, 1, 3
- 1, 3, 2, 4
A: 2, 4, 1, 3

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- digestive enzymes: amylase, protease, lipase
- large intestine: ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid
- salivary glands: sublingual, submandibular, parotid
- small intestine: duodenum, jejunum, cecum
A: small intestine: duodenum, jejunum, cecum

Q: Deglutition refers to:
- burping
- chewing
- peristalsis
- swallowing
A: swallowing

Q: Gingiva refers to the:
- gums
- microvilli
- teeth
- tongue
A: gums

Q: The main function of the large instestine is to:
- absorb food nutrients
- digest food
- reabsorb water
- stimulate digestive juices
A: reabsorb water

Q: The adrenal medulla:
- is controlled primarily by ACTH
- is part of the "fight or flight" syndrome
- secretes iodine-containing hormones
- secretes steroids
A: is part of the "fight or flight" syndrome

Q: Insulin and glucagon:
- are secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans
- are secreted by the pancreas and are concerned with the regulation of blood glucose
- are secreted in response to declining plasma levels of glucose
- elevate blood glucose
A: are secreted by the pancreas and are concerned with the regulation of blood glucose

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- hormones of the adenohypophysis: ACTH, prolactin, TSH, growth hormone
- hormones of the neurohypophysis: ADH, oxytocin
- secretions of the gonads: estrogen, progesterone, testosterone
- secretions of the gonads: estrogen, progesterone, testosterone
A: secretions of the gonads: estrogen, progesterone, testosterone

Q: Insulin:
- is released by the pancreas in response to low blood glucose levels
- is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans
- is secreted by the liver
- raises blood glucose
A: is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans

Q: This gland is associated with "sugar, salt, and sex".
- adrenal cortex
- neurohypophysis
- pancreas
- parathyroid gland
A: adrenal cortex

Q: Which of the following is the response to low plasma levels of calcium?
- inhibition of the adenohypophyseal release of ACTH
- secretion of calcitonin
- secretion of PTH
- secretion of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans
A: secretion of PTH

Q: Lactogenic hormone:
- exerts its greatest effect on the gonads
- is a gonadotropin
- is also called oxytocin
- stimulates the mammary glands to make milk
A: stimulates the mammary glands to make milk

Q: ACTH stimulates the:
- adenohypophysis to secrete cortisol
- adrenal cortex to secrete steroids
- adrenal medulla to secrete glucagon
- hypothalamus to secrete corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
A: adrenal cortex to secrete steroids

Q: Which of the following setroids is an androgen?
- aldosterone
- estrogen
- progesterone
- testosterone
A: testosterone

Q: The thyroid gland has two lobes connected by a band of tissue called the:
- infundibululm
- islets of Langerhans
- isthmus
- portal capillaries
A: isthmus

Q: What is the most likely effect of a deficiency of aldosterone?
- goiter formation
- high blood pressure
- low blood volume and hypotension
- low level of potassium in the blood
A: low blood volume and hypotension

Q: Portal capillaries carry releasing hormones from the brain to the:
- anterior pituitary gland
- neurohypophysis
- pancreas
- posterior pituitary gland
A: anterior pituitary gland

Q: Iodine-containing hormones:
- are secreted by the hypothalamus as releasing hormones
- are steroids
- include thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
- regulate metabolic rate
A: regulate metabolic rate

Q: Which of the following is a function of parathyroid hormone?
- it causes the excretion of calcium in the urine
- it increases plasma levels of clacium
- it stimulates osteoblastic activity to form bone
- it stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete calcitonin
A: it increases plasma levels of clacium

Q: Which of the following is most responsive to treatment with tyroxine?
- diabetes mellitus
- Graves' disease
- hyperglycemia
- myxedema
A: myxedema

Q: Excess secretion of epinephrine:
- elevates blood glucose
- relieves anxiety
- slow heart rate and lowers blood pressure
- stimulates the synthesis of glycogen
A: elevates blood glucose

Q: Identify: an excessive growth of hair in locations where hair growth in women is normally minimal:
- addisonian crisis
- goitrogenic effect
- hirsutism
- myxedema
A: hirsutism

Q: The secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland suppresses further secretion of ACTH by the anterior pituitary gland.  What is this interaction called?
- cellular differentiation
- cerebral lateralization
- circadian rhythm
- negative feedback control
A: negative feedback control

Q: Growth hormone:
- decreases plasma levels of glucose
- is also called somatotropic hormone
- is secreted by the neurohypophysis
- all of the above
A: decreases plasma levels of glucose

Q: This gland secretes melatonin and is concerned with our biologic rhythms:
- adenohypophysis
- adrenal gland
- pancreas
- pineal gland
A: pineal gland

Q: Which of the following hormones are found within the bypophyseal hypothalamic portal capillaries
- catecholamines
- gonadotropins
- mineral corticoids
- releasing hormones
A: gonadotropins

Q: Which of the following is most descriptive of cAMP?
- catecholamine that contributes the "fight or flight" reponse
- releasing hormone
- second chemical messenger
- steroid
A: second chemical messenger

Q: A deficiency of insulin causes:
- adrenal shock
- Cushing's syndrome
- hyperglycemia
- hypocalcemia
A: hyperglycemia

Q: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin:
- are mineralcorticoids
- are secreted by the islets of Langerhans
- is secreted by the neurohypophysis
- stimulate the kidney to excrete Na^+ and water
A: is secreted by the neurohypophysis

Q: Catecholamines:
- are secreted by the adrenal cortex
- include cortisol, aldosterone, and testosterone
- include epinephrine (adrenalin) and norepinephrine
- lower plasma glucose
A: include epinephrine (adrenalin) and norepinephrine

Q: The neurohypophysis:
- is the posterior pituitary gland
- secretes ACTH, TSH, and the gonadotropins
- secretes the releasing hormones
- secretes thyroxine
A: is the posterior pituitary gland

Q: Estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone:
- are feminizing hormones
- are secreted by the adenohypophysis
- are secreted by the gonads
- induce virilization
A: are secreted by the gonads

Q: This is the hardest working cardiac chamber and therefore has the thickest myocardium:
- left atrium
- left ventricle
- right atrium
- right ventricle
A: left ventricle

Q: This structure connects the cusps of the AV valves to the ventricles
- AV node
- bundle of His
- chordate tendinae
- Purkinje fibers
A: chordate tendinae

Q: Which term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute?
- cardiac output
- inotropic effect
- Starling's law of the heart
- stroke volume
A: cardiac output

Q: Which of the following is least related to the mitral valve?
- bicuspid
- chrodae tendinae
- left heart
- semilunar
A: semilunar

Q: The second heart sound, "dupp", is largely caused by the:
- closing of the atrioventricular valves
- closing of the semilunar valves
- opening of the atrioventricular valves
- opening of the semilunar valves
A: closing of the semilunar valves

Q: Complete the sequence: blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery to the:
- coronary arteries
- pulmonary capillaries
- pulmonary veins
- vena cava
A: pulmonary capillaries

Q: Which of the following is the most likely consequence of a very rapid heart rate?
- decreased ventricular filling (with blood)
- failure of the AV valves to open
- failure of the cardiac impulse to enter the His-Purkinje system
- failure of the SA node to fire
A: decreased ventricular filling (with blood)

Q: The normal pacemaker of the heart is the:
- atrioventricular node
- bundle of His
- Purkinje fibers
- sinoatrial node
A: sinoatrial node

Q: The aorta receives blood from the:
- left ventricle
- pulmonary artery
- pulmonary veins
- right ventricle
A: left ventricle

Q: The pacemaker of the heart is located in the upper wall of the:
- left atrium
- left ventricle
- right atrium
- right ventricle
A: right atrium

Q: Furosemide (Lasix), a potent diruretic, is administered in acute ventricular failure in order to:
- excrete excess water and relieve the edema.
- increase plasma K^+
- relieve pain
- strengthen myocardial contractile force
A: excrete excess water and relieve the edema.

Q: Blood flows from the right atrium through this atrioventricular valve to the right ventricle:
- bicuspid
- mitral
- pulmonic
- tricuspid
A: tricuspid

Q: Referring to the ECG, the P wave represents:
- atrial contraction
- atrial depolarization
- atrial repolarization
- ventricular relaxation
A: atrial depolarization

Q: Sympathetic stimulation to the heart:
- causes bradycardia
- decreases cardiac output
- decreases stroke volume
- increases heart right
A: increases heart right

Q: Which of the following is a result of ventricular contraction?
- Blood flows back into the atria
- Blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta
- The AV valves open
- The semilunar valves close
A: Blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia, normal sinus rhythm analysis.
- layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
- semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic
- structures that carry oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta
A: abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia, normal sinus rhythm analysis.

Q: During atrial systole, the:
- AV valves are closed
- semilunar valves are open
- ventricles are in systole
- ventricles are relaxed
A: ventricles are relaxed

Q: An increased preload:
- decreases cardiac output
- increases afterload
- increaseses cardiac reserve
- increases stroke volume
A: increases stroke volume

Q: Systole and diastole describe the function of the:
- mediastinum
- myocardium
- pericardium
- SA node
A: myocardium

Q: Mr. L suffered a myocardial infarction that incapacitated his sinoatrial node.  His atrioventricular node is now acting as the pacemaker.  How will his heartbeat differ from normal?
- it will be faster than normal
- it will be more irregular
- it will be slower than normal
- there will be many premature beats
A: it will be slower than normal

Q: This layer of the heart allows it to act as a pump:
- endocardium
- epicardium
- myocardium
- pericardium
A: myocardium

Q: Under what condition is blood most likely to flow "backward" (e.g. from the left ventricle back into the left atrium)?
- an insufficient mitral valve
- left ventricular hypertrophy
- pulmonary artery hypertension
- pulmonary edema
A: an insufficient mitral valve

Q: Most of the symptoms of left-sided heart failure are:
- confined to the lower extremities as in pedal edema
- cured by an antibiotic
- relieved by morphine
- respiratory in nature (e.g. dyspnea, orthopnea)
A: respiratory in nature (e.g. dyspnea, orthopnea)

Q: This term refers to a heart rate of fewer that 60 beats/minute:
- bradycardia
- fight-or-flight response
- heart block
- tachycardia
A: bradycardia

Q: Which of the following structures "see" unoxygenated blood?
- aorta
- left ventricle
- pulmonary artery
- pulmonary veins
A: pulmonary artery

Q: An ejection fraction of 30% is:
- characteristic of a healthy person who is engaged in aerobic exercise
- characteristic of a failing heart
- normal
- the amount of oxygenated hemoglobin in the blood in the left ventricle
A: characteristic of a failing heart

Q: What event causes the pulmonic valve to open?
- an increase in pressure within the right ventricle
- contraction of the chordae tendinae
- "lubb-dupp"
- the P wave
A: an increase in pressure within the right ventricle

Q: These conducting fibers rapidly spread the electrical signal throughout the ventricles:
- AV node
- bundle of His
- Pukinje fibers
- SA node
A: Pukinje fibers

Q: The right side of the heart pumps blood through the:
- coronary circuit
- pulmonary circuit
- systemic circuit
- venous circuit
A: pulmonary circuit

Q: Which layer of the heart has actin, myosin, and intercalated disks?
- endocardium
- epicardium
- myocardium
- pericardium
A: myocardium

Q: Vagal stimulation on the heart:
- causes tachycardia
- increases the amount of blood that flows into the heart from the vena cava
- increases the force of myocardial contraction
- slows the heart rate
A: slows the heart rate

Q: The valve preventing blood from re-entering the left ventricle is the:
- aortic valve
- mitral valve
- pulmonary valve
- tricuspid valve
A: aortic valve

Q: The mitral and the bicuspid valves:
- are both located on the right side of the heart
- are semilunar valves
- are the same valves
- "see" only unoxygenated blood
A: are the same valves

Q: Which of the following is not true of the heart?
- The apex is located left of the sternal midline at the level of the fifth intercostal space.
- The base of the heart is located at the level of the second rib.
- The heart is located within the mediastinum.
- The pericardium is composed of actin and myosin.
A: The pericardium is composed of actin and myosin.

Q: Hives are called:
- impetigo
- psoriasis
- urticara
- vitiligo
A: urticara

Q: If the blood vessels of the skin dilate, the person appears:
- cyanotic
- flushed
- jaundiced
- pale and washed out
A: flushed

Q: Body parts that are hairless include the:
- abdomen
- finger and toes
- interior surface of the nose
- palms of hands and soles of feet
A: palms of hands and soles of feet

Q: Hair color is determined by the:
- hair root
- sex hormones estrogen and testosterone
- shape of the hair shaft
- type and amount of melanin
A: type and amount of melanin

Q: What is the result of the contraction of the arrector pili muscles?
- goosebumps
- nail growth
- sweating
- tanning
A: goosebumps

Q: What is the name of the sweat glands usually associated with hair follicles and found in the axillary and genital areas?
- aprocrine
- ceruminous
- ecrine
- sebaceous
A: aprocrine

Q: Both the mammary glands and ceruminous glands:
- are concerned with temperature regulation
- are modified sweat glands
- are sebaceous glands
- secrete earwax
A: are modified sweat glands

Q: Which word is most descriptive of sudoriferous?
- hot
- sweat
- tan
- yellow
A: sweat

Q: What type of gland secretes vernix caseosa in the fetus?
- apocrine
- ecrine
- sebaceous
- sudoriferous
A: sebaceous

Q: Which glands are related to the development of body odor?
- aprocrine
- arrector pili
- ecrine
- sebaceous glands
A: aprocrine

Q: The hypodermis:
- contains the stratum germinativum and stratum corneum
- gives rise to the hair follicle
- is also called the subcutaneous layer
- is the cutaneous membrane
A: is also called the subcutaneous layer

Q: The ecrine glands are responsible for:
- secreting milk
- secreting vernix caseosa
- secreting wax in the outer ear
- sensible perspiration
A: sensible perspiration

Q: Radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation are terms that are concerned with:
- exocrine secretions
- heat loss
- skin color
- sweat glands
A: heat loss

Q: In an effort to cool the body down, the blood vessels dilate resulting in flushing and the:
- arector pili muscles contract
- sebaceous glands secrete sebrum
- skeleton muscles contract vigoriously involuntary, causing shivering
- sweat glands are activated
A: sweat glands are activated

Q: Nonshivering thermogenesis is accomplished by:
- constriction of the dermal blood vessel
- involuntary contraction of he arrector pili muscles
- involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles
- metabolism associated with brown fat
A: metabolism associated with brown fat

Q: Which of the following is a consequence of a congenital absence of ecrine glands?
- acne vulgaris
- inability to regulate body temperature
- jaundice
- vitiligo
A: inability to regulate body temperature

Q: Anticancer drugs often cause hair loss, a condition called:
- alopecia
- hirsutism
- keratinization
- vitiligo
A: alopecia

Q: Ms L, aged 15, suffers from blackheads and pimples on her face and neck.  The most likely diagnosis is:
- acne vulgaris
- atopic dermatitis
- herpes simplex
- lupus erythematosus
A: acne vulgaris

Q: Another name for eczema is:
- acne vulgaris
- atopic dermatitis
- psoriasis
- scleroderma
A: atopic dermatitis

Q: Kevin, age 17, has been complaining of itching between his toes of his right foot.  The area is cracked and has pus filled blisters.  Kevin most likely has (a):
- athlete’s foot
- boil
- cyst
- hives
A: athlete’s foot

Q: Dead burned tissue that forms a thick, inflexible scablike layer is called a (an):
- adhesion
- eschar
- keloid
- psoriatic lesion
A: eschar

Q: Which of the following lies upon the subcutaneous layer?
- dermis
- epidermis
- stratum corneum
- stratum germinativum
A: dermis

Q: As we age, skin wrinkles due to:
- loss of elastic fibers under the skin
- loss of melanin production
- loss of functioning of the sebaceous glands
- ultra-violet radiation
A: loss of elastic fibers under the skin

Q: A term used to describe a bruise is:
- ecchymosis
- jaundice
- melanocyte
- psoriasis
A: ecchymosis

Q: Ceruminous glands:
- are responsible for the summer tan
- are sebaceous glands
- secrete vernix caseosa
- secrete wax in the outer ear
A: secrete wax in the outer ear

Q: Which of the following has the poorest prognosis?
- eczema
- melanoma
- psoriasis
- vitiligo
A: melanoma

Q: A patient is admitted with burns through the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and to the underlying tissues.  Such burns are called:
- deep partial-thickness burns
- full-thickness burns
- second-degree burns
- superficial partial-thickness burns
A: full-thickness burns

Q: The scientific name for itching is:
- impetigo
- pruritis
- scleroderma
- shingles
A: pruritis

Q: An elderly person is more susceptible to cold due to the:
- loss of elasticity
- loss of fat deposits beneath the skin
- loss of functioning of the ceruminous glands
- loss of functioning of the sebaceous glands
A: loss of fat deposits beneath the skin

Q: What substance is produced by the skin and is necessary for absorption of calcium from the digestive tract?
- carotene
- collagen
- keratin
- vitamin D
A: vitamin D

Q: Rectal temperature is:
- a measurement of core temperature
- a measure of shell temperature
- higer in the early morning than in late afternoon
- lower than oral and axillary temperature
A: a measurement of core temperature

Q: Which of the following structures is avascular?
- dermis
- epidermis
- subcutaneous layer
- underlying muscle
A: epidermis

Q: What is the layer that insulates the body from extreme temperature changes in the external environment?
- dermis epidermis
- epidermis
- stratum germinativum
- subcutaneous
A: subcutaneous

Q: Which of the following is associated with tanning?
- apocrine glands
- arrector pili muscles
- melanocytes
- sudoriferous glands
A: melanocytes

Q: Poorly oxygentated blood causes the skin to turn                .  This condition is called                      .
- black and blue ecchymosis
- blue, cyanosis
- pale, pallor
- yellow, jaundice
A: blue, cyanosis

Q: What is the name of the yellow pigment found in skin?
- carotene
- collagen
- keratin
- vitamin D
A: carotene

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- mechanical barriers: skin, mucous, membranes
- nonspecific immunity: inflamation, NK cells, fever, T cells
- protective proteins: interferons, complement proteins
- signs of inflammation, redness, heat, swelling, pain
A: nonspecific immunity: inflamation, NK cells, fever, T cells

Q: Which of the following represents specific immunity?
- B and T cells
- inflammation
- interferon
- natural killer cells
A: B and T cells

Q: Which of the following would be considered a malignant lymphoma?
- Hashimoto's
- Hodgkin's disease
- lymphadenitis
- Perthes disease
A: Hodgkin's disease

Q: A solution of dead or attenuated (weakened) pathogens called a:
- booster
- immunoglobulin
- toxoid
- vaccination
A: vaccination

Q: The body's first line of defense against infection is:
- antibiotics
- fever
- inflammation
- intact skin and mucous membranes
A: intact skin and mucous membranes

Q: Which of the following is not a classic symptom of inflammation?
- cyanosis
- heat
- redness
- swelling
A: cyanosis

Q: Which of the following are most associated with plasma cells and atibodies?
- B cells
- eosinophils
- neutrophils
- T cells
A: B cells

Q: The process by which a cell releases chemicals that interferes with a virus' ability to reproduce within a cell is called a (an):
- complement reaction
- interferon response
- natural killer reaction
- serum-protein response
A: interferon response

Q: IgA, IgM, and IgG are:
- antibodies
- antigens
- complement proteins
- interferons
A: antibodies

Q: This cell engages in cell-to-cell combat:
- B cell
- erythrocyte
- platelet
- T cell
A: T cell

Q: The spleen:
- is avascular
- is located in the RUQ
- filters the blood
- secretes splenic hormones that control the entire lymphoid system
A: filters the blood

Q: A group of blood proteins that help in the destruction of foreign cells by punching holes in the outer membrane is called:
- complement
- histamine
- interferon
- Kupffer cells
A: complement

Q: These T-cells do not participate in the destruction of the pathogen, but allow for a more rapid response if the antigen is present at a later time.
- killer T cells
- memory T cells
- suppressor T cells
- thrombocytes
A: memory T cells

Q: T-cell lymphocytes are involved in:
- antibody-mediated immunity
- cell-mediated immunity
- humoral immunity
- immunoglobulin immunity
A: cell-mediated immunity

Q: What is the effect of a massive release of histamine?
- anaphylaxis
- autoimmunity
- cyanosis
- immunocompetence
A: anaphylaxis

Q: You had chicken pox as a child, therefore, granting you immunity by:
- naturally active immunity
- naturally passive immunity
- passive immunity immunization
- vaccination
A: naturally active immunity

Q: Which of the following is most related to the placental transfer of antibodies from the mother to the fetus?
- artificially acquired active immunity
- artificially acquired passive immunity
- naturally acquired active immunity
- naturally acquired passive immunity
A: naturally acquired passive immunity

Q: Which of the following cells engulf pathogen to achieve "antigen presentation"?
- a macrophage
- a red blood cell
- antibody
- vaccine
A: a macrophage

Q: HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) produces severe impairment of the immune system by attacking these cells:
- helper T cells
- plasma cells
- platelets
- suppressor T cells
A: helper T cells

Q: Lymph from the right arm and the right side of the head and thorax drain into the:
- right atrium
- right lymphatic duct
- thoracic duct
- vena cava
A: right lymphatic duct

Q: What is the name of the lymph nodes that drain the head and neck region?
- cervical
- inguinal
- pelvic
- thoracic
A: cervical

Q: Death usually results from a severe allergic reaction due to:
- antigen-antibody reaction
- hypersensitive body cells
- serum thickness
- severe constriction of the respiratory passages
A: severe constriction of the respiratory passages

Q: Where does lymph originally come from?
- bone marrow
- cellular metabolism
- plasma during capillary exchange
- spleen
A: plasma during capillary exchange

Q: Which cells secrete a lymphokine that stimulates both T and B cells?
- erythrocytes
- helper T cells
- killer T cells
- platelets
A: helper T cells

Q: The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct emty into the:
- inferior vena cava
- jagular vein
- portal vein
- subclavian vein
A: subclavian vein

Q: What structure is concerned with the processing and maturation of T lymphocytes?
- adrenal gland
- coronary sinus
- spleen
- thymus glands
A: thymus glands

Q: A vaccine:
- contains antibodies
- conveys active immunity
- is a gamma globulin
- is the same as an antitoxin
A: conveys active immunity

Q: These structures are located near the opening of the nasal cavity in the upper throat and are also called the adenoids:
- lingual tonsils
- palatine tonsils
- pharyngeal tonsils
- thymus glands
A: pharyngeal tonsils

Q: The ingual lymph nodes:
- are located in the groin
- are part of the hepatic portal circulation
- are the Kupffer cells within the liver
- line the entrance of the spleen
A: are located in the groin

Q: Binding of the bee venom allergen to antibodies on the mast cells causes a massive release of which substance?
- bilirubin
- histamine
- intrinsic factor
- vaccine
A: histamine

Q: The large lymphatic vessel that drains all of the body except the upper right portion is the:
- lymphatic aorta
- lymphatic vena cava
- right lymphatic duct
- thoracic duct
A: thoracic duct

Q: What is released by injured tissues that causes the blood vessels to leak fluid and dissolved substances into the tissue spaces, causing swelling?
- histamine
- interferons
- lysozyme
- macrophages
A: histamine

Q: A severe anaphylaxis reaction causes death by:
- bleeding
- bronchoconstriction
- infection
- renal failure
A: bronchoconstriction

Q: This lymphoid organ is located in the ventral cavity, thoracic cavity, and mediastium:
- adenoids
- liver
- spleen
- thymus gland
A: thymus gland

Q: The thymus gland secretes a hormone called:
- triiododthryronine
- thymus stimulation hormone
- thyroxine
- thymosin
A: thymosin

Q: The lymphatic system is responsible for
- absorption of fats and fat soluble vitamins and returns tissue fluid to the tissues
- defense against disease and returns tissue fluid to the tissues
- remove CO_2 out of the interstitium and absorbs carbohydrates and proteins
- absorption of fats and fat soluble vitamins and defense against disease
A: absorption of fats and fat soluble vitamins and defense against disease

Q: Lymph nodules are separated by:
- capillary beds
- lacteals
- lymph sinuses
- septal walls
A: lymph sinuses

Q: Which of the following is most associated with a low plasma level of antibodies?
- an autoimmune response
- anaphylaxis
- the "booster" response
- the primary response
A: the primary response

Q: An oxygen-carrying protein found in muscle fiber is:
- creatine phosphate
- glycogen
- hemoglobin
- myoglobin
A: myoglobin

Q: The less movable attachment of a muscle to bone is called its:
- inclusion
- insertion
- origin
- root
A: origin

Q: The orbicularis oris muscle
- closes the eye
- flexes the head
- is the smiling muscle
- surrounds the mouth
A: surrounds the mouth

Q: This group of muscles help rotate the arm at the shoulder joint.
- hamstrings
- muscles of mastication
- quadriceps femoris group
- rotator cuff muscles
A: rotator cuff muscles

Q: The rectus femoris, vastus lateris, vastus medialism and vastus intermedius:
- are antagonistic
- are muscles of the quadriceps femoris
- are muscle of the hamstrings
- flex the leg at the knee
A: are muscles of the quadriceps femoris

Q: Which of the following increases the force of contraction of a whole muscle?
- contracture
- ossification
- recruitment
- twitch
A: recruitment

Q: The muscle that packs the greatest punch for a boxer and is referred to as the “boxer’s muscle” is the:
- biceps brachii
- biceps femoris
- deltoid
- triceps brachii
A: triceps brachii

Q: An adjective describing muscle fibers running in a straight line is:
- longus
- oblique
- rectus
- trapezius
A: rectus

Q: After age 40, muscle mass:
- decreases
- increases
- is replaced by dense fibrous connective tissue
- muscle mass does not change
A: decreases

Q: This muscle attaches to the cranial aponeurosis and wrinkles the forehead.
- buccinator
- frontalis
- orbicularis oculi
- playsma
A: frontalis

Q: A bundle of muscle fibers is called a(an):
- epimysium
- fascia
- fascicle
- sheath
A: fascicle

Q: Where is calcium stored in a relaxed skeletal muscle?
- fascicle
- neuromuscular junction
- sarcoplasmic reticulum
- T-tubule
A: sarcoplasmic reticulum

Q: This group of muscles is located on the posterior thigh.
- hamstrings
- muscles of mastication
- quadriceps
- rotator cuff muscles
A: hamstrings

Q: This muscle is located on the posterior area of the body.
- latissimus dorsi
- pectoralis major
- quadriceps femoris
- sternocleidomastoid
A: latissimus dorsi

Q: This muscle separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities and is also called the chief breathing muscle.
- diaphragm
- intercostals muscle
- serratus anterior
- sternocleidomastoid
A: diaphragm

Q: Muscles can attach directly to the bone via a flat, sheetlike fascia called:
- aponeurosis
- ligament
- sacromere
- tendon
A: aponeurosis

Q: Muscles of mastication include the:
- buccinators, masseter, and temporalis
- masseter, frontalis, and orbicularis oris
- orbicularis oris, masseter, and sternocleidomastoid
- zygomatic, buccinator, and temporalis
A: buccinators, masseter, and temporalis / orbicularis oris, masseter, and sternocleidomastoid

Q: Which of the following is responsible for muscle relaxation?
- Acetylcholinesterase in the neuromuscular junction is depleted.
- Calcium floods the area of the sarcomere, allowing for interaction of actine and myosin.
- Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
- The sarcomere runs out of ATP.
A: Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Q: The cheek muscle used in whistling is the:
- buccinators
- masseter
- orbicularis oculi
- orbicularis oris
A: buccinators

Q: The specialized membranes that promote rapid conduction of electrical signal between cardiac muscle cells are called:
- crossbridges
- intercalated disks
- sarcomeres
- striations
A: intercalated disks

Q: A muscle that raises a body part is a(an):
- adductor
- flexor
- levator
- superioris
A: levator

Q: This muscle is located in the upper chest and anterior neck region; contraction of this flexes one’s head as if in prayer.
- diaphragm
- pectoralis major
- sternocleidomastoid
- trapezius
A: sternocleidomastoid

Q: The gastrocnemius is commonly called the:
- muscles of mastication
- swimmer’s muscle
- toe dancer’s muscle
- trumpeter’s muscle
A: toe dancer’s muscle

Q: The levator palpebrae superioris:
- allows one to whistle
- purses the lips
- raises the eyelids
- wiggles the nose
A: raises the eyelids

Q: The scientific name for wryneck is:
- fibromyositis
- myalgia
- myositis
- torticollis
A: torticollis

Q: A single muscle is generally responsible for most of the movement, this "chief muscle" is called the:
- antagonist
- aponeurosis
- prime mover
- synergist
A: prime mover

Q: The entire muscle is encased within a tough connective sheath called:
- fascia
- fascicles
- fulcrum
- myoglobin
A: fascia

Q: Which muscle is located in the lower extremities?
- latissimus dorsi
- pectoralis major
- rotator cuff muscles
- sartorius
A: sartorius

Q: Carpal tunnel syndrome involves the tendons of the:
- fingers
- toes
- torso
- upper arm
A: fingers

Q: Which of the following muscles is described as striated and involuntary?
- aponeurosis
- cardiac
- skeletal
- smooth
A: cardiac

Q: Which of the following is a series of contractile units that make up each myofibril; each unit extends from Z line to Z line?
- fascicle
- sarcomere
- sarcoplasmic reticulum
- synapse
A: sarcomere

Q: The rectus, transverse, internal oblique and the external oblique refer to:
- abdominal muscles
- breathing muscles
- muscles that are located on the back and work synergistically with the latissimus dorsi
- smooth muscles
A: abdominal muscles

Q: Which muscles are located between the ribs and help move the rib case during breathing?
- diaphragm
- intercostals muscles
- serratus anterior
- sternocleidomastoid
A: intercostals muscles

Q: With regard to skeletal muscle contraction, which event comes first?
- activation to the N_m receptor within the neuromuscular junction
- crossbridge formation between the actin and myosin
- release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
- release of neurotransmitter (Ach) from the somatic motor neuron
A: release of neurotransmitter (Ach) from the somatic motor neuron

Q: During strenuous exercise, muscle fatigue is caused by the production of _______ when there is no _______ present in the muscle fibers.
- carbon dioxide, glucose
- lactic acid, glucose
- lactic acid, oxygen
- oxygen, lactic acid
A: lactic acid, oxygen

Q: This muscle lies along the anterior surface of the humerus and acts synergistically with the brachialis and brachioradialis to flex the arm at the elbow?
- biceps brachii
- deltoid
- latissimus dorsi
- triceps brachii
A: biceps brachii

Q: Overused muscles:
- atrophy
- develop contractures
- experience series of twitches
- hypertrophy
A: hypertrophy

Q: Frontal eye fields:
- allow the person to interpret visual information
- determination the color of the eyes
- perform a motor role regarding the eyes
- receive sensory information from the optic nerve
A: perform a motor role regarding the eyes

Q: The neurotransmitters, such as acetylocholine (Ach), are stored within the:
- axon terminals
- cell body
- postsynaptic receptors
- tips of the dendrites
A: axon terminals

Q: The myelin sheath is formed by specialized cells within the peripheral nervous system called:
- ependymal cells
- glial cells
- oligodendrocytes
- Schwann cells
A: Schwann cells

Q: Parkinson’s disease:
- is a demyelinating disease
- is caused by a deficiency of dopamine within the basal nuclei
- is caused by a slow cerebral bleeding episode
- refers to any increase in intracranial pressure
A: is caused by a deficiency of dopamine within the basal nuclei

Q: The repolarizing phase of the action potential:
- is due to the movement of potassium (K^+) out of the cell
- is due to the movement of sodium (Na^+) into the cell
- is due to the Na^+/K^+ pump located in the membrane
- means that the inside of the cell is becoming more positive
A: is due to the movement of potassium (K^+) out of the cell

Q: What is the name of the enzyme that destroys acetylcholine?
- Ach
- acetylcholinesterase
- dopamine
- norepinephrine
A: acetylcholinesterase

Q: The lobe of the cerebrum located in the back of the head and over the cerebellum is the:
- frontal lobe
- lateral lobe
- occipital lobe
- temporal lobe
A: occipital lobe

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- divisions of the nervous system: central nervous system, peripheral nervous system
- electrical events: depolarization, repolarization, action potential
- lobes of the cerebrum: frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal
- parts of the brain stem: cerebrum, pons, medulla oblongata
A: parts of the brain stem: cerebrum, pons, medulla oblongata

Q: What is the name of the motor speech area located in the frontal lobe?
- Broca’s area
- the brain stem
- the diencephalons
- the pons
A: Broca’s area

Q: The postcentral gyrus:
- contains the primary motor cortex
- is located in the parietal lobe
- is the primary visual cortex
- performs the “executive” functions
A: is located in the parietal lobe

Q: The visual area of the cortex is in the:
- frontal lobe
- occipital lobe
- parietal lobe
- temporal lobe
A: occipital lobe

Q: Endorphins are:
- energy sources much like ATP
- natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of well-being
- secreted by the choriod plexus and circulated within the subarachnoid space
- waste products generated by depolarizing neurons
A: natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of well-being

Q: The layers of the meninges, beginning with the outermost, are the:
- dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
- dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid
- pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater
- pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid
A: dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

Q: The frontal, temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes form the:
- brain stem
- cerebellum
- cerebrum
- reticular formation
A: cerebrum

Q: The surface of the cerebrum is folded into elevations that resemble speed bumps; these speed bumps are called:
- convolutions, or gyri
- fissures
- foreman
- sulci
A: convolutions, or gyri

Q: The astrocytes:
- are concentrated within the choroids plexus
- secrete cerebrospinal fluid
- secrete myelin
- support and protect the neurons and help to form the blood brain barrier
A: support and protect the neurons and help to form the blood brain barrier

Q: A nerve containing only efferent fibers is a (an):
- mixed nerve
- motor nerve
- nerve tact
- sensory nerve
A: motor nerve

Q: Cerebrospinal fluid circulates freely in the:
- arachnoid space
- pia mater
- subarachnoid space
- subdural space
A: subarachnoid space

Q: The midbrain and the medulla oblongata are connected via the:
- cerebrum
- corpus collosum
- dura mater
- pons
A: pons

Q: Which of the following structures is most associated with “wake up”?
- Broca’s area
- cerebellum
- reticular activating system
- thalamus
A: reticular activating system

Q: The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are referred to as the:
- brain stem
- diencephalons
- emotional brain
- limbic system
A: brain stem

Q: Cerebrospinal fluids is formed by a vascular network referred to as the:
- aqueduct of Sylvius
- arachnoid villi
- choroid plexus
- cranial venous sinus
A: choroid plexus

Q: What function is related to the area just anterior to the central sulcus?
- Broca’s area
- primary motor area
- somatosensory area
- visual cortex
A: primary motor area

Q: Abnormal electrical activity in the brain that results in seizures is a disorder called:
- aphasia
- cerebral palsy
- epilepsy
- Parkinson disease
A: epilepsy

Q: Difficulty in forming words would indicate an injury to the:
- auditory association area
- Broca area
- primary sensory cortex
- Wernicke area
A: Broca area

Q: The precentral gyrus:
- contains the medulla oblongata
- is called the vital center
- is located in the parietal lobe
- is the primary motor area
A: is the primary motor area

Q: The nodes of Ranvier:
- are located along the postsynaptic membrane
- increase the speed of the action potential
- store Ach in tiny vessels
- synthesize the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
A: increase the speed of the action potential

Q: The autonomic nervous system and the pituitary gland are controlled by the:
- cerebellum
- cerebrum
- hypothalamus
- reticular formation
A: hypothalamus

Q: There are four major areas of the brain: the cerebrum, diencephalons, brain stem, and the:
- cerebellum
- hypothalamus
- limbic system
- medulla oblongata
A: cerebellum

Q: Which of the following symptoms is suggestive of Alzheimer disease?
- impaired balance
- intellectual impairment
- limb rigidity
- tremor
A: intellectual impairment

Q: The emetic center:
- is located in the cerebellum
- allows one to ignore repetitive background information
- functions only in emotional states
- receives information from the chemoreceptor trigger zone
A: receives information from the chemoreceptor trigger zone

Q: The temporal lobe:
- contains the primary auditory cortex
- is a brain stem structure
- is a cerebellar structure
- is a large mass of white matter that joins the right and left cerebral hemisphere
A: contains the primary auditory cortex

Q: Motor neurons carry impulses from:
- away from the brain
- toward the brain
- toward and away from the brain
- all of the above
A: away from the brain

Q: Which of the following structures brings information toward the cell body?
- axons
- axon terminals
- dendrites
- nodes of Ranvier nodes of Ranvier
A: dendrites

Q: Vital centers that regulate breathing and the heartbeat are located in the:
- cerebellum
- hypothalamus
- medulla oblongata
- pons
A: medulla oblongata

Q: What makes white matter “white”?
- cell bodies
- myelin sheath
- neurotransmitters
- synaspes
A: myelin sheath

Q: Which of the following is least descriptive of the olfactory nerve?
- cranial nerve I
- concerned with the sense of smell
- moves the tongue
- sensory
A: moves the tongue

Q: Tic douloureux or trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by:
- diminished vision
- hearing loss
- hemiplegia
- intense facial pain
A: intense facial pain

Q: Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves:
- are somatic motor neurons
- include the phrenic, sciatic, and brachial nerves
- innervate the viscera
- supply voluntary skeletal muscles
A: innervate the viscera

Q: Ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils reflect pressure on this nerve.
- facial
- oculomotor
- optic
- vagus
A: oculomotor

Q: Patient J is complaining of pain accompanied by blister-like lesions located around her waist.  Patient J is most likely experiencing:
- chicken pox
- measels
- shingles
- sciaticus
A: shingles

Q: The area of skin innervated by a spinal nerve is called a:
- dermatone
- gyrus
- plexus
- tract
A: dermatone

Q: Motor fibers from the cervical plexus branch off to form which of the following nerve responsible for contraction of the diaphragm?
- diaphragmatic
- musculocutaneous
- phrenic
- pudendal
A: phrenic

Q: Which reflex is concerned with the regulation of blood pressure?
- Achilles tendon reflex
- Babinski reflex
- baroreceptor reflex
- patellar reflex
A: baroreceptor reflex

Q: In order to achieve spinal anesthesia, an anesthetic agent is injected into the:
- central canal
- dorsal root ganglia
- lateral ventricle
- subarachnoid space
A: subarachnoid space

Q: A spinal cord injury at the level of C2 causes:
- hemiplegia and blindness
- paraplegia and deafness
- quadriplegia and an inability to breathe
- ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils
A: quadriplegia and an inability to breathe

Q: What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow?
- limbic system
- parasympathetic nervous system
- sympathetic nervous system
- vagal discharge
A: sympathetic nervous system

Q: The oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens are cranial nerves that:
- interpret sensory information from the optic nerve
- innervate the extrinsic eye muscles (move the eyeball)
- innervate the levator palpebrae superioris (life the eyelid)
- innervate the muscles of mastication
A: innervate the extrinsic eye muscles (move the eyeball)

Q: The tracts of the spinal cord that carry impulses away from the brain are the:
- ascending, or motor tracts
- ascending, or sensory tracts
- descending, or motor tracts
- descending, or sensory tracts
A: descending, or motor tracts

Q: Which of the following is an effect of parasympathic discharge?
- dilation of the pupil of the eye
- increased blood pressure
- slowed heart rate
- stronger contraction of the heart
A: slowed heart rate

Q: Damage to this nerve causes blindness:
- cranial nerve I
- cranial nerve II
- crania nerve III
- cranial nerve VIII
A: cranial nerve II

Q: Which of the following is true of the spinothalamic tract?
- descending tract
- pyramidal tract
- sensory for touch, pressure, and pain
- stimulates the skeletal muscles
A: sensory for touch, pressure, and pain

Q: Which of the following is most descriptive of the phrenic nerve?
- concerned with the sensation of smell
- innervates the muscles of the eyeball
- motor nerve supplying the diaphragm
- sensory nerve concerned with balance
A: motor nerve supplying the diaphragm

Q: Which reflex is stimulated by stroking the sole of the foot with a sharp object?
- Babinski reflex
- baroreceptor reflex
- gag reflex
- patellar reflex
A: Babinski reflex

Q: Which of the following is the major motor tract?
- cauda equina
- pyramidal
- spinothalamic
- spinocerebellar
A: pyramidal

Q: This fifth cranial nerve is a mixed nerve that detects sensations from the scalp, face, and teeth.
- facial
- olfactory
- trigeminal
- vestibular
A: trigeminal

Q: The gag reflex is mediated by this nerve.
- cranial nerve VIII
- glossopharyngeal nerve
- oculomotor nerve
- optic nerve
A: glossopharyngeal nerve

Q: Which of the following is the correct pathway for a reflex arc?
- effector, central nervous system, sensory neuron, motor neuron, receptor
- effector, sensory neuron, central nervous system, receptor, motor neuron
- receptor, motor neuron, central nervous system, sensory neuron effector
- receptor, sensory neuron, central nervous system, motor neuron, effector
A: receptor, sensory neuron, central nervous system, motor neuron, effector

Q: Vasomotor tone is:
- a vagally induced peripheral vasodilation
- a vascoconstrictor effect caused by background firing of the sympathetic nerves
- caused by parasympathomimetic drugs
- caused by sympatholytic drugs
A: a vascoconstrictor effect caused by background firing of the sympathetic nerves

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- cranial nerves: vagus, facial, median cubital, oculomotor
- nerve damage: crutch palsy, wristdrop, footdrop, Bell’s palsy
- reflexes: baroreceptor, withdrawal, pupillary, patellar, gag
- spinal nerves: phrenic, axillary, pudenal
A: cranial nerves: vagus, facial, median cubital, oculomotor

Q: Which of the following is most related to the sympathetic nervous system?
- “bradying down”
- craniosacral outflow
- “feed and breed”
- “fight and flight”
A: “fight and flight”

Q: A spinal cord injury involving only the lumbar region would cause:
- hemiplegia
- paraplegia
- quadriplegia and an inability to breathe
- ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils
A: paraplegia

Q: Sensory nerve fibers from the periphery travel to the spinal cord through the:
- dorsal root
- spinal root
- ventral root
- vertebral root
A: dorsal root

Q: An infant’s spinal cord extends:
- the full length of the spinal cavity
- to the level of the 1st lumbar vertebrae
- to the level of the 5th lumbar vertebrae
- to the sacrum
A: the full length of the spinal cavity

Q: A hammer strikes the Achilles tendon to elicit this stretch reflex.
- ankle-jerk reflex
- Babinski reflex
- Baroreceptor reflex
- patellar tendon reflex
A: ankle-jerk reflex

Q: The number of pair of spinal nerves is:
- 5
- 7
- 12
- 31
A: 31

Q: Damage to the common peroneal nerve causes:
- crutch palsey
- deafness
- footdrop
- inability to breathe
A: footdrop

Q: The study of how the body functions is:
- anatomy
- metabolism
- pathology
- physiology
A: physiology

Q: A term that describes the position of the stomach respective to the lungs is:
- anterior
- distal
- inferior
- medial
A: inferior

Q: The lungs, trachea, and larynx are found in the:
- circulatory system
- endocrine system
- lymphatic system
- respiratory system
A: respiratory system

Q: The thigh is to the foot:
- deep
- distal
- inferior
- proximal
A: proximal

Q: The anterior surface of the body is also referred to as the:
- dorsal
- posterior
- ventral
- (a) dorsal (b) posterior
- (a) posterior (c) ventral
A: ventral

Q: A horizontal plane that separates the body into superior and inferior portions is called a:
- frontal plane
- midsagittal plane
- sagittal plane
- transverse plane
A: transverse plane

Q: The frontal plane is also called the:
- coronal plane
- cranial plane
- midsagittal plane
- transverse plane
A: coronal plane

Q: Which of the following refers to the groin region?
- axillary
- cranial
- inguinal
- lumbar
A: inguinal

Q: The term, cervical, refers to the:
- head region
- lower region of the spinal column
- middle of the chest
- neck region
A: neck region

Q: Which of the following terms is used in reference to the area in front of the elbow?
- antecubital
- axillary
- brachial
- popliteal
A: antecubital

Q: Which area appears only on the anterior part of the body?
- lumbar
- occipital
- popliteal
- umbilical
A: umbilical

Q: Place the following in the correct order from simplest level of organization to the most complex:

1.         tissue

2.         system

3.         cell

4.         organism

5.         organ
- 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
- 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
- 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
- 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
A: 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

Q: The dorsal cavity is divided into the cavity and the cavity.
- abdominal, pelvic
- cranial, spinal
- thoracic, abdominal
- spinal, thoracic
A: cranial, spinal

Q: The body cavity that contains the lungs is the cavity.
- cranial
- pelvic
- spinal
- thoracic
A: thoracic

Q: The structure that divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity is the:
- diaphragm
- membrane
- ribs
- spine
A: diaphragm

Q: The space between the lungs is referred to as the:
- diaphragm
- mediastinum
- pericardium
- pleural cavity
A: mediastinum

Q: The thoracic cavity is to the abdominopelvic cavity.
- anterior
- distal
- posterior
- superior
A: superior

Q: Which organ is located in the ventral cavity, but not in the thoracic cavity?
- brain
- heart
- liver
- lung
A: liver

Q: Which of the following is descriptive of the location of the reproductive organs?
- dorsal cavity and vertebral cavity
- mediastinum and thoracic cavity
- pleural cavity and mediastinum
- ventral cavity and pelvic cavity
A: ventral cavity and pelvic cavity

Q: Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
- hypogastric
- right hypochondriac
- right iliac
- umbilical
A: right hypochondriac

Q: The iliac region of the abdomen is also called the:
- hypochondriac region
- hypogastric region
- inguinal region
- lumbar region
A: inguinal region

Q: The uppermost medial region of the abdomen is the:
- epidgastric region
- hypochondriac region
- iliac region
- inguinal region
A: epidgastric region

Q: A patient comes into the emergency room complaining of pain “just below the breastbone”.  The healthcare provider taking care of the patient identifies this area as the:
- epigastric region
- hypochondriac region
- lumbar region
- umbilical region
A: epigastric region

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- dorsal cavities: cranial, vertebral
- organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory
- planes: sagittal, frontal, transverse
- ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial
A: ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- cavities: dorsal, ventral
- organs: heart, stomach, lungs, brain
- planes: transverse, sagittal, frontal
- ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral
A: ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral

Q: Which body system is responsible for ridding the body of waste products and excess water?
- cardiovascular system
- digestive system
- respiratory system
- urinary system
A: urinary system

Q: The system that takes in oxygen and expels carbon dioxide is the:
- circulatory system
- endocrine system
- respiratory system
- thoracic system
A: respiratory system

Q: The tonsils, thymus gland, and the spleen are organs of the:
- circulatory system
- endocrine system
- lymphatic system
- respiratory system
A: lymphatic system

Q: The term describing a state of internal balance is:
- balance
- equilibrium
- homeostasis
- metabolism
A: homeostasis

Q: According to the textbook, a body positioned in the anatomical position would be standing upright with the palms of the hands would be facing:
- away from you
- forward
- in either direction, they are not considered a factor when describing anatomical position
- towards the sky
A: forward

Q: A term that means away from the midline of the body is:
- distal
- lateral
- medial
- proximal
A: lateral

Q: What type of solution would be administered to decrease cerebral edema?
- hypotonic
- hypertonic
- isotonic
- none of the above.
A: hypertonic

Q: The term apoptosis refers to:
- cell growth
- cell organization
- cell division
- cell death
A: cell death

Q: The solubility characteristics of the cell membrane play an important role in:
- the electrical charge.
- pharmacology and drug distribution.
- the size of the cell.
- carrying the genetic code.
A: pharmacology and drug distribution.

Q: Cell growth that becomes uncontrolled and disorganized:
- becomes a tumor.
- may be malignant.
- may be benign.
- is considered a normal finding.
A: becomes a tumor.; may be malignant.; may be benign.

Q: A decrease in the size of the cells, leading to a wasting away of tissues and organs is:
- Atrophy
- Dysplasia
- Necrosis
- Hyperplasia
A: Atrophy

Q: The temperature whithin the scrotum is ________that of the abdominal cavity.
- a few degrees higher than
- a few degrees lower than
- several degrees lower than
- the same temperature as
A: a few degrees lower than

Q: The enlarged tip of  the male external genitalia is called the:
- bulb
- glans penis
- prepuce
- tunica albuginea
A: glans penis

Q: What is the name of the developmental process that refers to the shaping of the cell cluster?
- conception
- fertilization
- implantation
- morphogenesis
A: morphogenesis

Q: The fundus forms the upper part of this structure:
- corpus luteum
- graafian follicle
- uterus
- vagina
A: uterus

Q: The inner uterine lining most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and progesterone:
- endometrium
- epimetrium
- myometrium
- perineum
A: endometrium

Q: The graafian follicle:
- causes the midcycle surge of LSH
- is the mature follicle
- matures within the fallopian tube
- secretes gonadotropins
A: is the mature follicle

Q: The broad ligament supports the:
- cervix
- fimbriae
- uterus
- vaginal orifice
A: uterus

Q: The area between the vaginal orifice and the anus is the:
- fallopian tubes
- fimbriae
- hymen
- perineum
A: perineum

Q: Which structure is the primary secreter of estrogen and progesterone?
- posterior pituitary gland
- hypothalamus
- endometrium
- ovaries
A: ovaries

Q: The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle:
- corresponds hormonally to the ovarian luteal phase
- immediately precedes the uterine secretory phase
- is due primarily to hCG
- is the stage during which implantation occurs
A: immediately precedes the uterine secretory phase

Q: Meiosis;
- increases the number of chromosomes from 23 to 46
- reduces the number of chromosomes from 46 to 23
- maintains the number of chromosomes at 46
- results in the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell
A: reduces the number of chromosomes from 46 to 23

Q: Which of these is the correct sequence for the path sperm takes through the male reproductive ducts?

1. vas deferens

2. ejaculatory duct

3. epididymis

4. urethra
- 1, 3, 4, 2
- 2, 3, 4, 1
- 3, 1, 2, 4
- 3, 2, 1, 4
A: 3, 1, 2, 4

Q: Afterbirth refers primarily to this structure:
- fetus
- morula
- placenta
- zygote
A: placenta

Q: Fingerlike extensions on the distal ends of the fallopian tubes are called:
- fimbriae
- ostium
- oviducts
- stroma
A: fimbriae

Q: In the nonpregnant state:
- hormonal secretion of the corpus luteum gradually declines
- the corpus albicans becomes hormonally active, secreting estrogen and progesterone
- the endometrium secretes hCG
- the zygote becomes hormonally active
A: hormonal secretion of the corpus luteum gradually declines

Q: Pockets formed by the cervix dipping into the vagina are called:
- hymenia
- cornices
- fornices
- majoraces
A: fornices

Q: The zygote:
- implants within the uterine lining
- is formed within the uterus
- is the fertilized egg
- matures into the graafian follicle
A: is the fertilized egg

Q: The acrosome:
- contains enzymes that assist the sperm to fertilize an ovum
- is an ovarian structure
- is the tail of the sperm
- secretes testosterone
A: contains enzymes that assist the sperm to fertilize an ovum

Q: Severing the vas deferens:
- prevents release of sterility
- interferes with testosterone secretion and therefore causes ferminization
- prevents erection
- prevents orgasm
A: prevents release of sterility

Q: The embryo
- is the single-cell fertilized ovum
- lives most of its life in the fallopian tube
- refers to baby-to-be from week 2 to week 8
- refers to the fetus during the second trimester
A: refers to baby-to-be from week 2 to week 8

Q: The seminiferious tubules:
- are located in the pelvic cavity
- are primarily concerned with ejaculation
- are tightly coiled structures that produce sperm
- secrete testosterone
A: are tightly coiled structures that produce sperm

Q: What androgen is necessary for sperm formation and for the development of the male secondary sex characteristics?
- ACTH
- chorionic gonadotropin
- progesterone
- testosterone
A: testosterone

Q: What is the name of the fine, downy hair that covers the fetus?
- colostrum
- lanugo
- meconium
- vernix caseosa
A: lanugo

Q: The ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the vas deferens and the:
- Cowper's gland
- epidymis
- prostate gland
- seminal vesicles
A: seminal vesicles

Q: This hormone is also called the inerstitial-cell stimulating hormone and stimulates the secretion of testosterone:
- chorionic gonadotropin
- estrogen
- FSH
- LH
A: LH

Q: This yellowish watery fluid is secreted by the mammary glands immediately after delivery; baby feeds on this until the mother's milk comes in:
- colostrums
- lanugo
- meconium
- vernix caseosa
A: colostrums

Q: What term refers to the penis and scrotum?
- external genitals
- accessory glands
- genital ducts
- zygotes
A: external genitals

Q: If implantation  occurs within the fallopian tube, the pregnancy is described as:
- ectopic
- embryonic
- menstrual
- normal
A: ectopic

Q: A mother-to-be infected with the rubella virus gives birth to a child with multiple birth defects.  Which of the following is descriptive of the defects:
- congenital
- contagious
- encoded within the mother's DNA
- hereditary
A: congenital

Q: A 70 year old male experiences difficulty urinating.  The most likely diagnosis is:
- benign prostetic hpertrophy
- emission dysrhythmia
- interstitial stimulating dystrophy
- renal failure
A: benign prostetic hpertrophy

Q: This piece of skin, also called the foreskin, is removed during circumcision:
- epididymis
- penis
- prepuce
- scrotum
A: prepuce

Q: Which of the following is true of the ovaries and the testes?
- called gametes
- called gonads
- located in the pelvic cavity
- secretes gonadotropins
A: called gonads

Q: These cells secrete testosterone:
- interstitial cells
- prostate gland
- seminiferous tubules
- Sertoli cells
A: interstitial cells

Q: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG):
- is responsible for female characteristics
- maintains the corpus luteum
- promotes the maturation of the egg
- promotes the transformation of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans
A: maintains the corpus luteum

Q: Which of the following is least related to the sex chromosomes?
- autosomes
- XX
- XY
- X-linked
A: autosomes

Q: This disc-like structure is the site where the fetal and maternal circulations meet; baby eats, secretes, and breathes at this site:
- placenta
- primary germ layer
- umbilicus
- zygote
A: placenta

Q: Which of the following terms literally means "monster-producing"?
- mutogenic
- carcinogenic
- involution
- teratogenic
A: teratogenic

Q: The doughnut-like structure encircling the male's upper urethra just below the urinary bladder is the:
- ductus deferens
- epididymis
- prostate gland
- seminal vesicle
A: prostate gland

Q: Which structure secretes the gonadotropins?
- adrenal cortex
- anteior pituitary gland
- ovum
- testes
A: anteior pituitary gland

Q: The leaf-shaped cartilage that covers the trachea during swallowing to prevent entry of food into the larynx is the:
- epiglottis
- glottis
- hyoid
- thyroid cartilage
A: epiglottis

Q: Trace the pathway for respiration:  nasal cavity > pharynx > larynx
- epiglottis
- trachea
- bronchus
- lung
A: trachea

Q: The Adam's apple is formed by the:
- cricoid cartilage
- epiglottis
- hyoid bone
- thyroid cartilage
A: thyroid cartilage

Q: Which substance greatly reduces surface tension among the water molecules lining the alveoli?
- coverting enzyme
- lysozyme
- mucus
- surfactant
A: surfactant

Q: The lungs are located within the:
- intrapleural space
- mediastinum
- pleural cavity
- intrapulmonic cavity
A: pleural cavity

Q: This nerve innervates the diaphragm:
- cranial nerve XI
- intercostal nerve
- phrenic nerve
- sciatic nerve
A: phrenic nerve

Q: The spaces between the vocal cords is referred to as the:
- epiglottis
- conchae
- glottis
- vocal fold
A: glottis

Q: Surface tension is due to:
- acid
- bicarbonate
- mucus
- water
A: water

Q: A hereditary disease characterized by thickened secretions which leads to blocked breathing passages is:
- atelectasis
- chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
- cystic fibrosis
- emphysema
A: cystic fibrosis

Q: Contraction of the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles:
- causes air to move out of the lungs
- decreases thoracic volume
- is responsible for inhalation
- stimulates the phrenic and the intercostal muscles
A: is responsible for inhalation

Q: Boyle's law forms the basis of:
- carbon dioxide transport in the blood
- chemical regulation of breathing
- oxygen transport in the blood
- ventilation
A: ventilation

Q: The intrapleural space is located:
- between the layers of the pleura
- between the ribs
- inside the lungs
- under the diaphragm
A: between the layers of the pleura

Q: In order for lung expansion to occur the:
- intrapleural pressure has to be negative
- intrapleural pressure has to be positive
- atmospheric pressure has to be lower than intrapleural pressure
- intrapulmonic pressure hs to be equal to atmospheric pressure
A: intrapleural pressure has to be negative

Q: Respiratory gases move across membranes from high concentration to lower concentration.  This simple physical process is called:
- active transport
- diffusion
- filtration
- osmosis
A: diffusion

Q: The amount of air moved into or out of the lungs with each breath is called ihe:
- inspiratory reserve volume
- residual volume
- tidal volume
- vital capacity
A: tidal volume

Q: In reference to a normal expanded lung, the:
- intrapleural pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure
- intrapleural, intrapulmonic, and atmospheric pressures are equal
- intrapulmonic pressure is less than intrapleural pressure
- intrapulmonic pressure is more than intrapleural pressure
A: intrapulmonic pressure is less than intrapleural pressure

Q: Which of the following structures control respirations?
- hypothalamus
- limbic system
- medulla oblongata
- pituitary gland
A: medulla oblongata

Q: The central chemoreceptors are primarily sensitive to blood levels of:
- carbon dioxide and (H^+)
- oxygen
- potassium
- sodium
A: carbon dioxide and (H^+)

Q: Across which structure does most gas exchange occur?
- alveoli
- bronchioles
- bronchus
- trachea
A: alveoli

Q: COPD stands for:
- cerebral obstructive pleural disorder
- chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
- chronic oxygen poor diseases
- coronary obstructive pneumonistic diesease
A: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Q: The major regulator of respirations is:
- albumin
- bicarbonate
- PCO_2
- PO_2
A: PCO_2

Q: Bronchiolar constriction, as in  an asthma attack, common respiratory terms is most likely to cause:
- laryngitis
- pulmonary edema
- pneumothorax
- wheezing
A: wheezing

Q: This structure is called the windpipe and is partially surrounded by rings of cartilage:
- alveolus
- bronchus
- larynx
- trachea
A: trachea

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- parts of the pharynx: oro, naso, laryngo, bronchio
- pulmonary volumes: tidal, inspiratory reserve, expiratory reserve
- respiratory gases: oxygen and carbon dioxide
- structures of the bronchial tree: bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
A: parts of the pharynx: oro, naso, laryngo, bronchio

Q: The term, atelectasis refers to a:
- collasped lung
- an abnormally low concentration of CO2 in the blood
- difficulty in breathing
- cessation in breathing
A: collasped lung

Q: The trachea is:
- a large airway that spills into two bronchi
- composed primarily of smooth muscle
- "the problem" in asthma
- the site of gas exchange
A: a large airway that spills into two bronchi

Q: The chief muscle of inspriation is the:
- diaphragm
- external intercostal muscles
- internal intercostal muscles
- internal oblique muscles
A: diaphragm

Q: The Hering-Breurer reflex:
- is a chemical relfex; no nerves are involved
- is important only in disease states
- is only concerned with sneezing and coughing
- prevents overinflation of the lungs
A: prevents overinflation of the lungs

Q: Which of the following events occurs first?
- contraction of the diaphragm and the intercostals
- firing of the inspiratory neurons in the medulla
- firing of the phrenic and intercostal nerves
- movement of air into the lungs
A: firing of the inspiratory neurons in the medulla

Q: What is the effect of an overdose of an opioid (narcotic)?
- alters the shape of the hemoglobin so that it cannot bind to oxygen
- causes hyperventilation and alkalosis
- causes spasm of the epiglottis resulting in an upper airway obstruction
- depresses the medulla oblongata and depresses ventilation
A: depresses the medulla oblongata and depresses ventilation

Q: The iron-containing protein that carries oxygen in the blood is:
- bicarbonate
- carbon
- gamma globulin
- hemoglobin
A: hemoglobin

Q: In which structure is the PO_2 the highest?
- alveolus
- pulmonary artery
- right ventricle
- vena cava
A: alveolus

Q: Which of the following best describes eupnea?
- hypoxemia
- Kussmaul respirations
- normal, quiet breathing
- vital capacity
A: normal, quiet breathing

Q: These respiratory tubes are primarily composed of smooth muscles and determine the flow of air to the alveoli:
- bronchi
- bronchioles
- nares
- trachea
A: bronchioles

Q: The partition that divides the nasal cavity is the:
- hilus
- mediastinum
- septum
- sinus
A: septum

Q: Hypoventilation decreases the respiratory excretion of:
- albumin
- carbon dioxide
- oxygen
- water
A: carbon dioxide

Q: What is the name of the tube that connects the pharynx and middle ear?
- cochlea
- eustachian
- oval window
- vestibule
A: eustachian

Q: The superior rectus muscle:
- causes miosis
- causes mydriasis
- moves the eyeball
- regulates accommodation
A: moves the eyeball

Q: The gustatory sensation is most related to the:
- eighth cranial nerve
- organ of Corti
- rods and cones
- taste buds
A: taste buds

Q: Lysozyme, an enzyme with antimicrobial activity, is found in
- aqueous humor
- endolymph
- tears
- vitreous humor
A: tears

Q: The ossicle adjacent to the oval window is the:
- hammer
- incus
- malleus
- stapes
A: stapes

Q: What is the function of the vestibule and the semicircular canals?
- balance
- hearing
- smell
- touch and pressure
A: balance

Q: The point at which fibers of the optic nerve crisscross is called the:
- fovea centralis
- macula lutea
- optic chiasm
- optic disc
A: optic chiasm

Q: Cones:
- are concentrated in the optic disc
- are concerned with night vision
- are located in the occipital lobe
- detect red, green, and blue colors
A: detect red, green, and blue colors

Q: Receptors in muscles, tendons, and joints that help judge the position of the body are called
- chemoreceptors
- free nerve endings
- proprioceptors
- tactile corpuscles
A: proprioceptors

Q: Which of the following is most related to the stapes?
- cerumen
- middle ear ossicle
- organ of Corti
- semicircular canal
A: middle ear ossicle

Q: Contraction of the radial muscles of the iris causes:
- both eyeballs to deviate medially
- both eyeballs to gaze skyward
- mydriasis
- pinpoint pupils
A: mydriasis

Q: Sound waves travel through the:
- inner ear
- middle ear
- outer ear
- vestibule
A: outer ear

Q: Which of the following is most related to refraction?
- lens
- light
- retina
- rods and cones
A: lens

Q: The conjunctiva:
- contains blood vessels that nourish the retina
- covers the cornea
- is a mucous membrane
- secretes aqueous humor
A: is a mucous membrane

Q: Which of the following is a special sense?
- pressure
- proprioception
- taste
- touch
A: taste

Q: Rods and cones are called:
- glial cells
- receptors
- refracting structures
- visual reflexes
A: receptors

Q: Which of the following describes the basis for referred pain (e.g the pain of a heart attack radiates to the left shoulder and arm)?
- myocardial enzymes from the injured heart muscle diffuse into the shoulder region.
- Nociceptors are found only in the axillary region
- The same blood vessels that supply the myocardium also supply the shoulder and arm.
- The same nerves that carry sensory information from the heart also carry sensory information from the shoulder.
A: The same nerves that carry sensory information from the heart also carry sensory information from the shoulder.

Q: This gel-like substance gently pushes against the choroid and maintains the shape of the eyeball:
- aqueous humor
- lacrimal secretions
- perilymph
- vitreous humor
A: vitreous humor

Q: You are preparing to eat a sweet treat.  You will taste it best on what portion of your tongue?
- along the lateral portion
- at the back
- at the tip
- on the anterior sides
A: at the tip

Q: What is the condition caused by impaired damage of aqueous humor through the canal of Schlemm that increases intraocular pressure?
- cataracts
- conjunctivitis
- glaucoma
- strabismus
A: glaucoma

Q: A cataract is a:
- bulging optic disc
- cloudy lens
- retinal detachment
- scarred cornea
A: cloudy lens

Q: Photoreceptors detect:
- heat
- light
- tissue distortion
A: light

Q: This layer of the eyeball supplies blood to the retina:
- choroid
- iris
- rods and cones
- sclera
A: choroid

Q: This structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear:
- pinna
- oval window
- round window
- tympanic membrane
A: tympanic membrane

Q: Aqaeous humor provides nourishment for the:
- conjunctiva
- cornea
- lens
- posterior chamber
A: cornea

Q: Tactile receptors are:
- activated by touch and pressure
- located behind the lens in the vitreous humor
- located within the semicircular canal
- nociceptors
A: activated by touch and pressure

Q: Otitis media is more common in children than adults due to:
- fixation of stapes
- increase in the amount of ear wax production
- length and position of the eustachian tube
- length and position of the tympanic membrane
A: length and position of the eustachian tube

Q: A condition characterized by vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss is:
- macular degeneration
- meniere’s disease
- motion sickness
- otosclerosis
A: meniere’s disease

Q: A receptor may gradually stop responding to a continued mild stimulus.  This process is called:
- homeostatic adaptation
- knesthetic adaptation
- sensory adaptation
- thermoreceptor adaptation
A: sensory adaptation

Q: The accessory structure of the eye that functions to help trap foreign particles is the:
- conjunctiva
- cornea
- eyelashes
- sclera
A: eyelashes

Q: Which of the following equipment is used to elicit the photopuillary reflex?
- bell
- hammer
- penlight
- Snellen chart
A: penlight

Q: The sense that works most closely with the sense of smell is the sense of;
- pressure
- taste
- temperature
- touch
A: taste

Q: Myopia, farsightedness, and astigmastism are:
- conditions of elevated intraocular pressure
- errors of refraction
- infections of the eye
- types of strabismus
A: errors of refraction

Q: This structure is attached to the lens, causing its shape to be changed:
- cornea
- iris
- retina
- suspensory ligament
A: suspensory ligament

Q: An area of heavy concentration of cones providing the most acute vision is the:
- cornea
- fovea centralis
- rods
- optic disk
A: fovea centralis

Q: The receptors for hearing are located in this part of the ear:
- cochlea
- eardrum
- semicircular canals
- utricle and saccule
A: cochlea

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- error of refraction: myopia, farsightedness, astigmatism, presbyopia
- ossicles: malleus, incus, stapes
- special senses: hearing, sight, smell, taste, balance, pain, pressure
- structures of the inner ear: semicircular canals, vestibule, cochlea
A: special senses: hearing, sight, smell, taste, balance, pain, pressure

Q: Which structure would be considered part of the axial skeleton?
- bones of the arms and legs
- pelvic girdle
- shoulder
- vertebrae
A: vertebrae

Q: The medial bone of the forearm when in the anatomical position is the:
- humerous
- olecranon
- radius
- ulna
A: ulna

Q: Which of the following bones is found in the shoulder girdle?
- humerous
- scapula
- sternum
- ulna
A: scapula

Q: What is the outer lining of connective tissue that surrounds the diaphysis of a long bone and contains the blood vessels that supply the bone?
- articular cartilage
- endosteum
- periosteum
- osteon
A: periosteum / osteon

Q: This bone is distal to the radius and ulna and proximal to the metacarpals
- carpals
- hallux
- pollux
- tarsals
A: carpals

Q: Which bone is described by the following: leg, shin, and medial malleolus?
- femur
- fibula
- talus
- tibia
A: tibia

Q: Drawing a large arm circle in the air is an example of which type of movement?
- abduction
- adduction
- circumduction
- rotation
A: circumduction

Q: At which joint do the scapula and upper arm bone meet?
- glenohumeral
- humeroulnar
- radiocarpal
- sternoclavicular
A: glenohumeral

Q: Which of the following is a hinge joint?
- anterior fontanel
- coronal suture
- humeroulnar joint
- sternomanubrial
A: humeroulnar joint

Q: The acetabulum:
- is a depression in the scapula
- is located anterior to the symphysis pubis
- is the crest part of the iliac crest
- receives the head of the femur
A: receives the head of the femur

Q: What is the name of the “soft spots” in a baby’s skull?
- fontanels
- sinuses
- sutures
- synovial joints
A: fontanels

Q: The number of pairs of each type of rib, true, false, and floating, in order is:
- 5, 3, 2
- 7, 5, 3
- 8, 2, 2
- 7, 3, 2
A: 7, 3, 2

Q: A 100-year-old skeleton is found in a farmer’s field.  The forensic expert called in determines that the person was a female because:
- the chest cavity was wider and deeper than would be found in a male
- the femur was heavier and longer than would be found in a male
- the pelvis was broad and shallow, not funne-shaped
- the ribs included one more pair than would be found in a male
A: the pelvis was broad and shallow, not funne-shaped

Q: The common name for the sternum is the:
- breast bone
- costal cartilage
- gladiolus
- mandible
A: breast bone

Q: Cancellous refers to a (an):
- cartilaginous bone
- irregular bone
- osteon
- spongy bone
A: spongy bone

Q: Bone store a number of minerals; the most important are:
- calcium and phosphorus
- iron and magnesium
- potassium and carbon
- sodium and chloride
A: calcium and phosphorus

Q: A degenerative joint disease that primarily occurs in weight-bearing joints is:
- osteoarthritis
- osteoporosis
- rheumatoid arthritis
- rickets
A: osteoarthritis

Q: A foramen is a (an):
- curvature
- joints
- opening
- short bone
A: opening

Q: The patella is an example of which type of bone?
- flat
- long
- short
- sesamoid
A: sesamoid

Q: The humerus:
- articulates with the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint
- is a bone of the axial skeleton
- is distal to the radius and ulna
- is located in the upper arm
A: is located in the upper arm

Q: How many phalanges are found in each hand?
- 10
- 12
- 14
- 16
A: 14

Q: Which word (s) best reflect (s) the function of the epiphyseal discs?
- blood cell information
- longitudinal growth
- phagocytosis
- secretion of synovial fluid
A: longitudinal growth

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- bones of he lower extremities: femur, tibia, fibula
- bones of the vertebral column: atlas, axis, coxal bone
- sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal
- spinal curvatures: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral
A: bones of the vertebral column: atlas, axis, coxal bone

Q: The hard palate (palative process) is an extension of the:
- mandible
- maxilla
- sphenoid
- zygomatic
A: maxilla

Q: The bone of the lower jaw is the:
- maxilla
- mandible
- mediastinum
- menubrium
A: mandible

Q: The anatomical name for the thigh bone is the:
- femur
- fibula
- humerus
- tibia
A: femur

Q: In an infant, red bone marrow is found:
- at the epiphyseal disc
- in the medullary cavity
- only in irregular bones such as carpals
- within the blood vessels locate in the Haversiae canal
A: in the medullary cavity

Q: The section of the spinal column that forms tailbone is the:
- cervical region
- lumbar region
- sacrum
- thoracic region
A: sacrum

Q: The greater and lesser trochanters are located on this bone.
- coccyx
- femur
- fibula
- tibia
A: femur

Q: Which of the following refers to an exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine (hunchback)?
- kyphosis
- lordosis
- rickets
- scoliosis
A: kyphosis

Q: The _____________ curve develops about 3 to 4 months after birth as infants start to hold up their head.
- cervical
- lumbar
- sacral
- thoracic
A: cervical

Q: What is the term that refers to the replacement of cartilage by bone?
- myelosuppression
- ossification
- osteomalacia
- osteoporosis
A: ossification

Q: Which of the following is located at the ends of a long bone?
- diaphysis
- epiphysis
- medullary cavity
- periosteum
A: epiphysis

Q: A U-shaped located in the upper neck that anchors the tongue is the:
- ethmoid bone
- hyoid bone
- palatine bone
- vomer
A: hyoid bone

Q: A malleolus is found on the:
- radius and ulna
- scapula
- tibia and fibula
- vertebrae
A: tibia and fibula

Q: Broken bone protrudes through the skin in a(an):
- closed fracture
- comminuted fracture
- compound fracture
- transverse fracture
A: comminuted fracture / compound fracture

Q: The olecranon is:
- a bone of the instep of the foot
- a space between the vertebrae
- the lowest portion of the os coxae
- the part of the ulna that forms the elbow
A: the part of the ulna that forms the elbow

Q: The clavicle is more commonly called the:
- breast bone
- collar bone
- hip bone
- shoulder bone
A: collar bone

Q: The coxal bone is the:
- auditory ossicles
- hip bone
- girdle
- tail bone
A: hip bone

Q: The small, fluid-filled sacs located between the joint and tendons are called:
- bursae
- cysts
- periostea
- synoviae
A: bursae

Q: The adult vertebral column has:
- 26 bones
- 28 bones
- 32 bones
- 33 bones
A: 26 bones

Q: What is the type of projection that articulates with the glenoid cavity?
- crest
- head
- spine
- trochanter
A: head

Q: At which joint do the humorous and ulna meet?
- elbow
- hip
- knee
- wrist
A: elbow

Q: This bone is found in the skull but not in the cranium.
- mandible
- occipital
- parietal
- sphenoid
A: mandible

Q: Mr L fractured his leg in a skateboarding accident.  An x-ray shows that the broken ends of the bone are jammed into each other.  This type of fracture is classified as:
- comminuted
- impacted
- oblique
- spiral
A: impacted

Q: Identify the type of cell that conducts an action potential or electrical signal.
- astrocyte
- ependymal cell
- glial cell
- neuron
A: neuron

Q: Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are types of:
- connective tissue
- epithelial tissue
- muscle tissue
- nervous tissue
A: connective tissue

Q: Stratified means:
- hard
- flat and shiny
- layered
- striped
A: layered

Q: The fibers of a neuron are:
- axon and dendrites
- dendrites and fibrils
- fibrils and ER
- transporters and vesicles
A: axon and dendrites

Q: Collagen and elastic fibers are found in the intracellular matrix of:
- connective tissue
- glandular tissue
- nervous tissue
- squamous epithelial tissue
A: connective tissue

Q: The fibrous tissue that covers cartilage is called:
- epicardium
- epichondrium
- pericardium
- perichondrium
A: perichondrium

Q: A ligament is best described as:
- glandular epithelium
- malignant
- squamous epithelium
- dense fibrous tissue
A: dense fibrous tissue

Q: The pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum are:
- confined to the abdominopelvic cavity
- confined to the thoracic cavity
- mucous membranes
- serous membranes
A: serous membranes

Q: The prefix pseudo means:
- false
- few
- many
- true
A: false

Q: A band of connective tissue connecting two bones is called (a):
- ligament
- periosteum
- serosa
- tendon
A: ligament

Q: The removal of living tissue for microscopic examination is called:
- biopsy
- computerized tomography
- magnetic resonance imaging
- ultrasound
A: biopsy

Q: This type of tissue is found in organs that need to stretch (i.e. urinary bladder).
- adipose tissue
- loose connective tissue
- simple squamous epithelium
- transitional epithelium
A: transitional epithelium

Q: The type of connective tissue that stores fat is called:
- adipose tissue
- cutaneous tissue
- mucous membrane
- parietal tissue
A: adipose tissue

Q: Which type of tissue is most likely to prevent a kidney from “floating”?
- adipose tissue
- muscle tissue
- simple squamous epithelium
- stratified columnar epithelium
A: adipose tissue

Q: A malignant tumor involving epithelial tissue is called a:
- adenoma
- carcinoma
- lipoma
- sarcoma
A: carcinoma

Q: Which of the following is true of an exocrine gland?
- made of connective tissue
- only secretes sweat
- secretes hormones
- secretes it products to the outside or onto a surface
A: secretes it products to the outside or onto a surface

Q: The cutaneous membrane:
- has a visceral and parietal layer
- has three layers - squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
- is a synovial membrane
- is the skin
A: is the skin

Q: Which word refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales?
- glia
- squamous
- stratified
- striated
A: squamous

Q: Which type of membrane lines the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body?
- meninges
- mucous membrane
- serous membrane
- synovial membrane
A: mucous membrane

Q: Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured?
- connective
- epithelial
- muscle
- nervous
A: epithelial

Q: The endocrine glands secrete:
- digestive juices
- hormones
- mucus
- tears
A: hormones

Q: Which of the following is the culprit in obesity?
- adipose tissue
- glia
- osseous tissue
- squamous epithelium
A: adipose tissue

Q: Specialized long branching muscle fibers that fit together tightly at junctions to promote rapid conduction of electrical signals are found in?
- blood
- cardiac muscle
- ligaments
- neurons
A: cardiac muscle

Q: Which of the following is characterized by cells that are arranged like tiles on a floor?
- fascia
- ligaments
- osseous tissue
- squamous epithelium
A: squamous epithelium

Q: Which of the following is most descriptive of a bed sore?
- decubitus ulcer
- malignant neoplasm
- metastatic
- sarcoma
A: decubitus ulcer

Q: An example of secretion from an exocrine gland is:
- insulin
- lymph
- plasma
- sweat
A: sweat

Q: Death of soft tissues of a body part is called (an):
- adhesion
- cancer
- kelosis
- gangrene
A: gangrene

Q: Dense fibrous, connective tissue covering muscles, blood vessels, and nerves providing support, is called:
- fascia
- hyaline cartilage
- subcutaneous tissue
- the viscera
A: fascia

Q: As one ages, the total amount of water in the body:
- fluctuates from month to month
- gradually decreases
- increases
- stays consistently at 75%
A: gradually decreases

Q: In which of the following is intracellular matrix most abundant?
- bone
- fat
- simple columnar epithelium
- simple squamous epithelium
A: bone

Q: Osseous tissue is:
- also called bone tissue
- classified as skeletal, smooth, and muscle
- classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
- formed from chondrocytes
A: also called bone tissue

Q: Excessive replacement of injured tissue results in a (an):
- adhesion
- gangrenous lesion
- keloid
- neoplasm
A: keloid

Q: Since connective tissue is defined as tissue containing cells separated by some sort of matrix, why could blood be considered connective tissue?
- blood cannot be connective tissue because it is a liquid
- blood cells and plasma combine to form dense tissue similar to connective tissue
- blood cells are separated by plasma, fitting the definition
- blood goes to all parts of the body, connecting them
A: blood cells are separated by plasma, fitting the definition

Q: Osteocytes are to bone as chondrocytes are to:
- cartilage
- fat
- muscle
- nerves
A: cartilage

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous
- types of membranes: epithelial, connective tissue
- type of muscles: skeletal, cardiac, smooth
- types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa
A: types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa

Q: The triangular area of the bladder fromed by the openings to the ureters and urethra is called the:
- detrusor
- meatus
- trigone
- urochromatic opening
A: trigone

Q: Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system:
- causes albuminuria
- causes hematuria
- expands blood volume
- reabsorbs K^+ and eliminates Na^+ in the urine.
A: expands blood volume

Q: What is the meaning of an elevated serum creatinine?
- The kidneys are excreting too much urine
- The kidneys are making too much creatinine
- The kidneys are not filtering creatinine; this is a sign of kidney failure
- Too much creatinine is being reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries
A: The kidneys are not filtering creatinine; this is a sign of kidney failure

Q: The renal artery branches into smaller blood vessels that form the:
- afferent arteriole
- efferent arteriole
- juxtaglomerular apparatus
- renin-angiotensen-aldosterone branch
A: afferent arteriole

Q: The distal convoluted tubule:
- empties its urine into Bowman's capsule
- is the nephron structure that is primarily associated with filtration
- rebsorbs Na^+ in response to aldosterone
- receives urine from the collecting duct
A: rebsorbs Na^+ in response to aldosterone

Q: The term, urochrome, refers to the:
- breakdown of protein
- filtration of glucose within the glomerulus
- urine's specific gravity
- pigment color
A: pigment color

Q: Urine flows from the ascending limb (loop of Henle) into the:
- distal convoluted tubule
- glomeruli
- proximal convoluted tubule
- ureter
A: distal convoluted tubule

Q: A drug is classified as a diuretic.  Most likely the drug:
- activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
- blocks the tubular reabsortpion of Na^+
- causes the release of ADH
- decreases GFR
A: blocks the tubular reabsortpion of Na^+

Q: Aldosterone:
- causes Na^+ and water reabsorption
- causes potassium reabsorption
- causes sodium excretion
- depletes blood volume
A: causes Na^+ and water reabsorption

Q: Which of the following is not "plumbing"?
- glomeruli
- ureters
- urinary bladder
- urethra
A: glomeruli

Q: The kidneys secrete this hormone that stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBC's:
- aldosterone
- converting enzyme
- erythropoietin
- renin
A: erythropoietin

Q: This substance is filtered by the glomerulus and is excreted in the urine; there is minical reabsorption:
- albumin
- creatnine
- glucose
- sodium
A: creatnine

Q: The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) secretes:
- ADH
- aldosterone
- angiotensin
- rennin
A: rennin

Q: The renal excretion of Na^+ is generally accomplished by the excretion of:
- albumin
- bicarbonate
- renin
- water
A: water

Q: The renal medulla forms striped, cone-shaped regions called the renal:
- calyces
- hilus
- nephrons
- pyramids
A: pyramids

Q: Which of the following terms refers to the voluntary expulsion of urine?
- dialysis
- diuresis
- micturition
- polyuria
A: micturition

Q: The urinary bladder:
- causes diuresis in response to ADH deficiency
- causes micturition when the detrusor muscle contracts and theinernal sphincter relaxes
- contains only skeletal muscle
- receives urine from two urethras
A: causes micturition when the detrusor muscle contracts and theinernal sphincter relaxes

Q: ADH works primarily on the:
- afferent arteriole
- collecting duct
- proximal convoluted tubule
- renal pelvis
A: collecting duct

Q: When the arterial blood pressure declines to 70/50 mm Hg:
- ADH secretion diminishes
- aldosterone secretion decreses
- diuresis occurs
- GFR decreases
A: GFR decreases

Q: The calyces receive urine from the:
- collecting ducts
- glomeruli
- peritubular capillaries
- proximal convoluted tubule
A: collecting ducts

Q: The kidneys are responsible for all of the following except:
- absorption of nitrogenous waste
- regulation of blood pressure
- regulation of electrolyte content
- regulation of red blood cell production
A: absorption of nitrogenous waste

Q: Another word for kidney stones is:
- calculus
- calcyx
- lithocyte
- polycystocyte
A: calculus

Q: What part of the nephron unit filters 180 L of water per day?
- distal convoluted tubule
- glomeruli
- loop of Henli
- peritubular capillaries
A: glomeruli

Q: Pyuria is indicative of:
- deficiency of ADH
- excess secretion of aldosterone
- glomerular damage
- infection
A: infection

Q: The outer renal cortex extends into:
- calyces
- collecting ducts
- pelvis
- renal columns
A: renal columns

Q: The internal and external sphincters are associated with:
- Bowman's capsule
- juxtaglomerular apparatus
- renal pelvis
- urinary bladder
A: urinary bladder

Q: What vascular structure is found between the afferent and efferent arterioles?
- glomerulus
- peritubular capillaries
- renal artery
- renal veins
A: glomerulus

Q: Bowman's capsule is part of the:
- collecting duct
- nephron unit
- renal pelvis
- urinary bladder
A: nephron unit

Q: In the process of secretion, a substance moves from the peritubular capillaries into this structure:
- Bowman's capsule
- calyces
- glomeruli
- tubules
A: tubules

Q: Hyperventilation is most likely to cause:
- a blood pH greater than 7.45
- acidosis
- diuresis
- edema
A: a blood pH greater than 7.45

Q: Which of the following forms the greatest extracellular fluid compartment?
- interstitial
- lymph
- plasma
- transcellular
A: interstitial

Q: Which ion determines pH?
- bicarbonate
- hydrogen
- potassium
- sodium
A: hydrogen

Q: The normal plasma pH averages:
- 7.0
- 7.4
- 8.0
- 8.4
A: 7.4

Q: Hyperkalemia refers to an increase in the blood levels of which ion?
- bicarbonate
- calcium
- hydrogen
- potassium
A: potassium

Q: This is the chief extracellular cation:
- calcium
- chloride
- potassium
- sodium
A: sodium

Q: Which of the following is a buffer pair?
- ADH, ANF
- bicarbonate, phosphate
- PTH, aldosterone
- sodium, potassium
A: bicarbonate, phosphate

Q: More than 99% of this cation is stored in the bones and teeth:
- calcium
- chloride
- hydrogen
- potassium
A: calcium

Q: Poor skin turgor (tenting), is most indicative of:
- acidosis
- cystitis
- dehydration
- edema
A: dehydration

Q: Which of the following is characteristic of acidosis?
- a decrease in the concentration of hydrogen ion in the blood
- pH less than 7.35
- pH of 7.55
- urinary excretion of bicarbonate
A: pH less than 7.35

Q: The primary regulator of water output is (are) the:
- adrenal glands
- hypothalamus
- kidneys
- large and small bowel
A: kidneys

Q: Respiratory rate is most sensitive to the effects of this ion:
- C^-
- H^+
- K^+
- Na
A: H^+

Q: Bicarbonate (HCO_-3) is considered an anion because it:
- carries a negative charge
- contains carbon
- contains hydrogen
- contains oxygen
A: carries a negative charge

Q: In which of the following populations, would you expect to find the highest composition of water weight?
- adult female
- adult male
- infant
- obese person
A: infant

Q: Which group is correct?
- anions: bicarbonate, chloride, phosphate
- cation: NA, K, CI
- lines of defense against acid-base imblance: buffers, lungs, kidneys
- transcellular fluids: aqueous humor, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid
A: cation: NA, K, CI

Q: Accumulation of fluid in the tissues in called:
- ascites
- edema
- effusion
- water intoxication
A: edema

Q: which fluid compartment is located between the cells and is also called the tissue fluid?
- interstitial
- lymph
- plasma
- transcellular
A: interstitial

Q: Which of the following is most likely to occur when output is less than intake?
- dehydration
- edema
- hypovoluemia
- polyuria
A: edema

Q: An example of third spacing is:
- ascites
- interstitial edema
- effusion
- pedaledema
A: ascites

Q: Which of the following is descriptive of normal saline?
- 0.9% sodium chloride
- contains albumin
- distilled water
- highly acidic
A: 0.9% sodium chloride

Q: IKI in the presence of starch, reacts to cause a color change from clear to a blue/black.  Glucose test strips are impregnated with a chemical that will change color when exposed to glucose.  Given this information, what substance do you believe diffused out of the dialysis tubing?
A: glucose
Feedback ("glucose"): that's right
Feedback (any other answer): sorry try again

Q: #1 Juice - Dip pH strip in small amount of juice.  Wait 10 seconds. Compare color of pH paper to chart on pH bottle.
A: 2 acidic / 3 acidic / 4 acidic
Feedback ("2 acidic"): that's right
Feedback ("3 acidic"): good job
Feedback ("4 acidic"): way to go
Feedback (any other answer): sorry, try again

Q: What substance diffused into the dialysis tubing?
A: IKI / iodine
Feedback ("IKI"): good job
Feedback ("iodine"): good job
Feedback (any other answer): sorry try again

Q: #2 Vinegar - Dip pH strip in small amount of juice.  Wait 10 seconds. Compare color of pH paper to chart on pH bottle.
A: 3 acidic
Feedback ("3 acidic"): good job
Feedback (any other answer): sorry try again

Q: What substance did not diffuse through the membrane?
A: starch
Feedback ("starch"): excellent
Feedback (any other answer): sorry, try again

Q: #3 Detergent Powder.  Add distilled water to powder.  Dip pH paper and compare to chart.
A: 8 / 7 / 9
Feedback ("8"): good job
Feedback ("9"): that's right, keep going
Feedback (any other answer): sorry, try again

Q: #4 Cola - pH strip in small amount of juice.  Wait 10 seconds. Compare color of pH paper to chart on pH bot
A: 4 acidic / 5 acidic
Feedback ("4 acidic"): good job
Feedback ("5 acidic"): that's right, keep going
Feedback (any other answer): sorry, try again

Q: #5 Baking soda - Reconstitute baking soda with a small amount of distilled water.  Wait 10 seconds.  Compare color of pH paper to chart on pH bottle.
A: 8 alkaline / 9
Feedback ("8 alkaline"): good job
Feedback ("9"): good job
Feedback (any other answer): sorry try again

Q: [Image]
A: * squamous
Feedback ("* squamous"): Great job!!!
Feedback (any other answer): try again

Q: [Image]
A: Cuboidal
Feedback ("Cuboidal"): Good Job!
Feedback (any other answer): Try again!

Q: [Image]
A: columnar
Feedback ("columnar"): great job
Feedback (any other answer): try again

Q: [Image]
A: bone
Feedback ("bone"): great job
Feedback (any other answer): try again

Q: [Image]
A: blood
Feedback ("blood"): great job
Feedback (any other answer): try again

Q: [Image]
A: * cartilage
Feedback ("* cartilage"): great job

Q: [Image]
A: adipose
Feedback ("adipose"): that's great
Feedback (any other answer): try again

Q: [Image]
A: aerolar
Feedback ("aerolar"): good job
Feedback (any other answer): try ag

Q: In anatomic position, the little finger is lateral to the index finger.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: A sagittal plane separates the body into right and left portions.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The stomach is located mainly in the left upper quadrant.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Blood pressure is:
- caused by the alternating expansion and recoil of the artery
- the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute
- the number of times the heat beats per minute
- the force the blood exerts against the walls of the blood vessels
A: the force the blood exerts against the walls of the blood vessels

Q: Which of the following pressures would be considered abnormal?
- 2 year old with 95/65
- teenager with 116/72
- senior citizen with 12/80
- 40 year female with 140/90
A: 40 year female with 140/90

Q: The flow of blood can be heard with a stethoscope.  These sounds are called:
- Korotkoff sounds
- Kussmaul's tones
- murmurs
- vascular audiotones
A: Korotkoff sounds

Q: The process of ingesting pathogens and other foreign substances is called:
- chemotaxis
- Kupfer action
- macrophagitis
- phagocytosis
A: phagocytosis

Q: The ingual lymph nodes:
- are located in the groin
- are part of the hepatic portal circulation
- cleanse lymph from the lower extremities and extremities genaltalia.
- line the entrance of the spleen
A: are located in the groin

Q: These structures are located near the opening of the nasal cavity in the upper throat and are also called adenoids:
- lingual tonsils
- palatine tonsils
- pharyngeal tonsils
- thymus glands
A: pharyngeal tonsils

Q: The longest vein in the body that is located in the lower extremity is the:
- jugular
- saphenous
- subclavian
- vena cava
A: saphenous

Q: The azygous vein drains blood from the:
- brain
- chest wall
- liver
- sinuses
A: chest wall

Q: What is the fetal structure that connects the umbilical vein wtih inferior vena cava?
- ductus arteriosus
- ductus venosus
- foramen ovale
- placenta
A: ductus venosus

Q: If plasma osmolarity increases, as in dehydration of the infusion of mannitol (a sugar solution):
- filtration rate increases.
- fluid is forced out of the capillary into the interstitium
- fluid is "pulled" into the capillary from the interstitium
- plasma proteins diffuse out of the capillary into the interstitium
A: fluid is "pulled" into the capillary from the interstitium

Q: T cell lymphocytes are involved in:
- antibody-mediated immunity
- cell-mediated immunity
- humoral immunity
- immunoglobulin immunity
A: cell-mediated immunity

Q: In reference to a normally expanded lung, the:
- intrapleural pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure
- intrapleural, intrapulmonic, and atmospheric pressures are equal
- intrapulmonic pressure is greater than intrapleural pressure
- intrapulmonic pressure is less than intrapleural pressure
A: intrapulmonic pressure is greater than intrapleural pressure