Title: Default for A & P
Course: asd

Q: #1 Juice - Dip pH strip in small amount of juice.  Wait 10 seconds. Compare color of pH paper to chart on pH bottle.
A: 2 acidic / 3 acidic / 4 acidic
Feedback ("2 acidic"): that's right
Feedback ("3 acidic"): good job
Feedback ("4 acidic"): way to go
Feedback (any other answer): sorry, try again

Q: #2 Vinegar - Dip pH strip in small amount of juice.  Wait 10 seconds. Compare color of pH paper to chart on pH bottle.
A: 3 acidic / 2 / 1
Feedback ("3 acidic"): good job
Feedback ("2"): way to go
Feedback ("1"): continue

Q: #3 Detergent Powder.  Add distilled water to powder.  Dip pH paper and compare to chart.
A: 8 / 7 / 9
Feedback ("8"): good job
Feedback ("9"): that's right, keep going
Feedback (any other answer): sorry, try again

Q: #4 Cola - pH strip in small amount of juice.  Wait 10 seconds. Compare color of pH paper to chart on pH bot
A: 4 acidic / 5 acidic
Feedback ("4 acidic"): good job
Feedback ("5 acidic"): that's right, keep going
Feedback (any other answer): sorry, try again

Q: #5 Baking soda - Reconstitute baking soda with a small amount of distilled water.  Wait 10 seconds.  Compare color of pH paper to chart on pH bottle.
A: 8 alkaline / 9
Feedback ("8 alkaline"): good job
Feedback ("9"): good job
Feedback (any other answer): sorry try again

Q: Identify the following type of epithelial tissue:

[Image]
A: cuboidal
Feedback ("cuboidal"): Great job!!!
Feedback (any other answer): try again

Q: Identify the following type of epithelial tissue:

[Image]
A: Columnar / columnar epithelium
Feedback ("Columnar"): Good Job!
Feedback ("columnar epithelium"): excellent

Q: Identify the following type of epithelial tissue:

[Image]
A: squamous / squamous epithelium / sq*
Feedback ("squamous"): great job
Feedback ("squamous epithelium"): that's right

Q: Identify the following type of connective tissue - pay close attention to the concentric circles surrounding the dark areas for clues

[Image]
A: bone
Feedback ("bone"): great job
Feedback (any other answer): try again

Q: Identify the following type of connective tissue:

[Image]
A: blood / red blood cell
Feedback ("blood"): great job
Feedback ("red blood cell"): try again

Q: Identify the following type of connective tissue - it can be found on the ends of long bones at the joints and connects the ribs to the sternum.

[Image]
A: cartilage
Feedback ("cartilage"): great job

Q: Identify the following type of connective tissue - it cushions and insulates the body

[Image]
A: adipose
Feedback ("adipose"): that's great
Feedback (any other answer): try again

Q: Identify the following type of connective tissue which acts like "tissue glue" to  hold organs in place:

[Image]
A: aerolar
Feedback ("aerolar"): good job
Feedback (any other answer): try ag

Q: The study of how the body functions is:
- anatomy
- metabolism
- pathology
- physiology
A: physiology

Q: Place the following in the correct order from simplest level of organization to the most complex:

1.         tissue

2.         system

3.         cell

4.         organism

5.         organ
- 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
- 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
- 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
- 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
A: 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

Q: The basic unit of life is the:
- cell
- tissue
- organ
- organ system
A: cell

Q: Which body system is responsible for ridding the body of waste products and excess water?
- cardiovascular system
- digestive system
- respiratory system
- urinary system
A: urinary system

Q: The system that takes in oxygen and expels carbon dioxide is the:
- circulatory system
- endocrine system
- respiratory system
- thoracic system
A: respiratory system

Q: The tonsils, thymus gland, and the spleen are organs of the:
- circulatory system
- endocrine system
- lymphatic system
- respiratory system
A: lymphatic system

Q: The term describing a state of internal balance is:
- balance
- equilibrium
- homeostasis
- metabolism
A: homeostasis

Q: According to the textbook, a body positioned in the anatomical position would be standing upright with the palms of the hands would be facing:
- away from you
- forward
- in either direction, they are not considered a factor when describing anatomical position
- towards the sky
A: forward

Q: A term that means away from the midline of the body is:
- distal
- lateral
- medial
- proximal
A: lateral

Q: A term that describes the position of the stomach respective to the lungs is:
- anterior
- distal
- inferior
- medial
A: inferior

Q: The lungs, trachea, and larynx are found in the:
- circulatory system
- endocrine system
- lymphatic system
- respiratory system
A: respiratory system

Q: The thigh is to the foot:
- deep
- distal
- inferior
- proximal
A: proximal

Q: The anterior surface of the body is also referred to as the:
- dorsal
- posterior
- ventral
- dorsal and posterior
- posterior and ventral
A: ventral

Q: A horizontal plane that separates the body into superior and inferior portions is called a:
- frontal plane
- midsagittal plane
- sagittal plane
- transverse plane
A: transverse plane

Q: The frontal plane is also called the:
- coronal plane
- cranial plane
- midsagittal plane
- transverse plane
A: coronal plane

Q: Which of the following refers to the groin region?
- axillary
- cranial
- inguinal
- lumbar
A: inguinal

Q: The term, cervical, refers to the:
- head region
- lower region of the spinal column
- middle of the chest
- neck region
A: neck region

Q: Which of the following terms is used in reference to the area in front of the elbow?
- antecubital
- axillary
- brachial
- popliteal
A: antecubital

Q: Which area appears only on the anterior part of the body?
- lumbar
- occipital
- popliteal
- umbilical
A: umbilical

Q: The dorsal cavity is divided into the cavity and the cavity.
- abdominal, pelvic
- cranial, spinal
- thoracic, abdominal
- spinal, thoracic
A: cranial, spinal

Q: The body cavity that contains the lungs is the cavity.
- cranial
- pelvic
- spinal
- thoracic
A: thoracic

Q: The structure that divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity is the:
- diaphragm
- membrane
- ribs
- spine
A: diaphragm

Q: The space between the lungs is referred to as the:
- diaphragm
- mediastinum
- pericardium
- pleural cavity
A: mediastinum

Q: The thoracic cavity is to the abdominopelvic cavity.
- anterior
- distal
- posterior
- superior
A: superior

Q: Which organ is located in the ventral cavity, but not in the thoracic cavity?
- brain
- heart
- liver
- lung
A: liver

Q: Which of the following is descriptive of the location of the reproductive organs?
- dorsal cavity and vertebral cavity
- mediastinum and thoracic cavity
- pleural cavity and mediastinum
- ventral cavity and pelvic cavity
A: ventral cavity and pelvic cavity

Q: Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
- hypogastric
- right hypochondriac
- right iliac
- umbilical
A: right hypochondriac

Q: The iliac region of the abdomen is also called the:
- hypochondriac region
- hypogastric region
- inguinal region
- lumbar region
A: inguinal region

Q: The uppermost medial region of the abdomen is the:
- epidgastric region
- hypochondriac region
- iliac region
- inguinal region
A: epidgastric region

Q: A patient comes into the emergency room complaining of pain “just below the breastbone”.  The healthcare provider taking care of the patient identifies this area as the:
- epigastric region
- hypochondriac region
- lumbar region
- umbilical region
A: epigastric region

Q: In which abdominopelvic region is the gallbladder found?
- left lower quadrant
- left upper quadrant
- right lower quadrant
- right upper quadrant
A: right upper quadrant

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- dorsal cavities: cranial, vertebral
- organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory
- planes: sagittal, frontal, transverse
- ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial
A: ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- cavities: dorsal, ventral
- organs: heart, stomach, lungs, brain
- planes: transverse, sagittal, frontal
- ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral
A: ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral

Q: In anatomic position, the little finger is lateral to the index finger.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: A sagittal plane separates the body into right and left portions.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The stomach is located mainly in the left upper quadrant.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: IKI in the presence of starch, reacts to cause a color change from clear to a blue/black.  Glucose test strips are impregnated with a chemical that will change color when exposed to glucose.  Given this information, what substance do you believe diffused out of the dialysis tubing?
A: glucose
Feedback ("glucose"): that's right
Feedback (any other answer): sorry try again

Q: What substance diffused into the dialysis tubing?
A: IKI / iodine
Feedback ("IKI"): good job
Feedback ("iodine"): good job
Feedback (any other answer): sorry try again

Q: What substance did not diffuse through the membrane?
A: starch
Feedback ("starch"): excellent
Feedback (any other answer): sorry, try again

Q: This type of blood is called the universal recipient:
- A
- AB
- B
- O
A: AB

Q: The most abundant type of leukocyte is the:
- granulocyte
- lymphocyte
- monocyte
- neutrophil
A: neutrophil

Q: Which function is most associated with fibrinogen, prothrombin, and calcium?
- blood cell production
- blood coagulation
- fibrinolysis
- platelet aggregation
A: blood coagulation

Q: Kernicterus is most related to elevated plasma levels of this substance:
- albumin
- bilirubin
- fibrinogen
- iron
A: bilirubin

Q: What does hematocrit measure?
- blood clotting activity
- percentage of blood cells in a sample of blood
- phagocytic acticity
- amount of bilirubin in the blood
A: percentage of blood cells in a sample of blood

Q: Erythroblastosis fetalis is primarily a problem involving:
- agglutination and hemolysis
- inability of the kidneys to secrete erythropoietin
- lack of intrinsic factor
- myelosuppression
A: agglutination and hemolysis

Q: An infection is most often accompanied by:
- anemia
- jaundice
- leukocytosis
- thrombocytopenia
A: leukocytosis

Q: Which of the following best characterizes the effects of hemophilia?
- bleeding
- high fever
- infection
- jaundice
A: bleeding

Q: What does hematocrit measure?
- blood-clotting activity
- percentage of red blood cells in the blood
- phagocytic activity
- the amount of bilirubin in the blood
A: percentage of red blood cells in the blood

Q: Which of the following is least descriptive of blood?
- Oxygenated blood is redder than unoxigenated blood.
- The average adult has 4 to 6 liters of blood.
- The normal pH of blood is 7.35 to 7.45.
- Water is 3 to 5 times more viscous than blood.
A: Water is 3 to 5 times more viscous than blood.

Q: Which of the following is characteristic of the platelet?
- bilirubin
- granulocyte
- O_2 transport
- stickiness
A: stickiness

Q: An immature red blood cell is called a:
- leukocyte
- neutrophil
- megakarocyte
- reticulocyte
A: reticulocyte

Q: The protein that carries oxygen in red blood cells is:
- erythropoietin
- gamma globulin
- hemoglobin
- hemostasis
A: hemoglobin

Q: The liquid portion of the blood is:
- electrolyte fluid
- plasma
- serum
- tissue fluid
A: plasma

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- antigens: A, B, Rh factor
- blood cells: fibrionogens, albumin, globulins
- steps in hemostasis: blood vessel spasm, platelet plug, coagulation
- types of anemia: iron deficiency, pernicious, sickle cell
A: blood cells: fibrionogens, albumin, globulins

Q: Petechiae formation:
- is characteristic of sickle cell anemia
- is due to a deficiency of reticulocytes
- is most often prevented by a diet that is high in vitamin K
- refers to pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin
A: refers to pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin

Q: Which of the following is most related to biconcave disc, hemoglobin, and erythropoietin?
- granulocyte
- "poly"
- red blood cell
- thrombocyte
A: red blood cell

Q: Monocytes and lymphocytes:
- are agranular leukocytes
- are hemostatic
- are thrombocytes
- contain hemoglobin
A: are agranular leukocytes

Q: The cell that gives rise to all blood cells are found in the:
- lymph system
- red bone marrow
- spleen
- yellow bone marrow
A: red bone marrow

Q: During the coagulation process a netlike structure is formed.  What is this structure called?
- albumin
- fibrin
- plasminogen
- prothrombin
A: fibrin

Q: The ABO blood types are named for:
- the antibodies in the person's plasma
- the antibodies in the person's red blood cell
- the antigens in the person's plasma
- the antigens in the person's red blood cell
A: the antigens in the person's red blood cell

Q: Estimation of the percentage of each white blood cell type in a smear is called a:
- complete blood count
- differential white count
- hemotocrit
- red cell count
A: differential white count

Q: Platelets are derived from large bone marrow cells called:
- erythrocytes
- macrophages
- megakarocytes
- thrombocytes
A: megakarocytes

Q: Which of the following is an oxygen-carrying blood cell?
- eosinophil
- erythrocyte
- granulocyte
- thrombocyte
A: erythrocyte

Q: Which of the following causes leukopenia?
- hemolysis
- infection
- Myelosuppression
- petechiae
A: Myelosuppression

Q: Which of the following is most descriptive of the physiologic role of the "poly"?
- bilirubin metabolism
- clot dissolution
- oxygen transport
- phagocytosis
A: phagocytosis

Q: The symbol for sodium is:
- Na
- S
- Sa
- So
A: Na

Q: Which of the following is not paired correctly?
- C – carbon
- F – fluoride
- O – oxygen
- P – potassium
A: P – potassium

Q: Organic chemistry is the study of                       containing substances.
- calcium
- carbon
- iodine
- iron
A: carbon

Q: A subunit of an element is a(n)
- atom
- compound
- mixture
- molecule
A: atom

Q: A negatively-charged particle orbiting the nucleus of an atom is called a(n)
- electron
- neutron
- photon
- proton
A: electron

Q: An atom has 2 protons, 2 neutrons, and 2 electrons; it has an atomic:
- number of 4
- number of 6
- weight mass of 2
- weight mass of 4
A: weight mass of 4

Q: The atomic number of phosphorus is 15.  How many protons does phosphorus have?
- 10
- 12
- 15
- more information is required to answer this question
A: 15

Q: An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron; its isotope has:
- 1 proton and 1 neutron
- 2 electrons and 0 neutrons
- 2 protons and 0 neutrons
- 2 protons and 2 neutrons
A: 1 proton and 1 neutron

Q: A chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons is described as a(n)
- covalent bond
- coordinate bond
- ionic bond
- mixture
A: covalent bond

Q: The element that is combines with oxygen in water is:
- calcium
- carbon
- hydrogen
- iron
A: hydrogen

Q: Which of the following is considered a polar molecule?
- Cl^-
- H2O
- NaCl
- NH4^+
A: H2O

Q: A charged atom or group of atoms is called a(n):
- compound
- electron
- ion
- molecule
A: ion

Q: A cation is a (an):
- electrolyte
- ion that has an atomic weight of 2
- isotope
- positively charged ion
A: positively charged ion

Q: This element has 8 protons in the nucleus and 9 electrons in its orbits.  It is therefore a (an):
- acid
- anion
- cation
- electrolyte
A: anion

Q: Which of the following represents bicarbonate, an anion that is important in acid-base regulation?
- CaCO_3
- HCl
- HCO_-3
- KCl
A: HCO_-3

Q: Which process refers to the dissociation of NaCl into Na^+ and Cl^-?
- covalent bonding
- hydrogen bonding
- ionization
- radioactivity
A: ionization

Q: A unit formed by the union of two or more atoms is a(n)
- compound
- mixture
- molecule
- solute
A: molecule

Q: Which compound is the universal solvent?
- ATP
- carbon dioxide
- oxygen
- water
A: water

Q: Which of the following increase the speed of a chemical reaction, but is itself not used up in the chemical reaction?
- ATP
- a catalyst
- a cation
- an isotope
A: a catalyst

Q: A pH measuring less than 7 is said to be:
- acidic
- basic or alkaline
- metabolic
- neutral
A: acidic

Q: A substance with a pH of 6.8 is:
- has a neutral pH
- is acidic
- is alkaline
- is basic
A: is acidic

Q: Which pH is considered neutral?
- 7.00
- 7.35
- 7.45
- 14.0
A: 7.00

Q: What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45?
- the H^+ of the solution will increase
- the pH will be greater than 7.45
- the pH will be greater than 8.0
- the solution will become more alkaline
A: the H^+ of the solution will increase

Q: Blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45 and therefore:
- has a pH similar to urine and stomach contents
- is acidic
- is alkaline
- is 3 to 4 times more viscous than water
A: is alkaline

Q: The heart pushes blood into the blood vessels as chemical energy and is then converted to this form of energy.
- mechanical
- nuclear
- radiant
- thermal
A: mechanical

Q: The energy transfer molecule, ATP, is composed of:
- a carbohydrate, a protein, and a lipid
- a sugar, a base, and three phosphate groups
- an acid and a base
- water and carbon dioxide
A: a sugar, a base, and three phosphate groups

Q: A mixture in which the components remain evenly distributed is a(n)
- compound
- molecule
- solution
- suspension
A: solution

Q: The dissolving portion of a solution is the:
- liquifier
- solute
- solvent
- suspension
A: solvent

Q: Which of the following best describes a solution in which alcohol is the solvent?
- acid
- alkaline
- aqueous
- tincture
A: tincture

Q: Which compound acts as a lubricant to decrease friction between two moving structures?
- bicarbonate
- carbon dixoide
- sodium chloride
- water
A: water

Q: The chief function for the cell membrane is to:
- control the workings of the entire cell
- synthesize proteins
- determine what substance is allowed to enter or leave the cell
- breakdown intracellular waste and debris
A: determine what substance is allowed to enter or leave the cell

Q: Which of the following is a gel-like substance located inside the cell, but               outside the nucleus?
- cytoplasm
- isotonic saline
- lysosomal enzymes
- nucleoplasm
A: cytoplasm

Q: Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell?
- centriole
- lysosome
- mitochondria
- nucleus
A: nucleus

Q: Small hairlike projections from the cell are called:
- cilia
- flagella
- lashes
- microhairs
A: cilia

Q: The mitochondria is called the power plant of the cell because:
- all DNA is located within the mitochondria
- all protein synthesis occurs within the mitochondria
- all ribosomes are located within the mitochondria
- most of the ATP is produced within the mictochondria
A: most of the ATP is produced within the mictochondria

Q: Which of the following is found on rough endoplasmic reticulum?
- cilia
- DNA
- lysosomes
- ribosomes
A: ribosomes

Q: Lysosomes are filled with:
- cytoplasm
- isotonic saline
- lymphatic fluid
- powerful enzymes
A: powerful enzymes

Q: Which structure puts the finishing touches on and packages the protein from the cell?
- Golgi apparatus
- lysosome
- mictochondria
- nucleus
A: Golgi apparatus

Q: Identify the transport mechanism: a passive process that “pulls” water from an area where there is more water to an area where there is less water.
- an ATP-driven pump
- endocytosis
- filtration
- osmosis
A: osmosis

Q: Identify the transport mechanism: a passive process that uses a carrier molecule to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
- an ATP-driven pump
- facilitated diffusion
- filtration
- osmosis
A: facilitated diffusion

Q: Which of the following best describes the power or driving force for active transport?
- ATP
- H^+
- DNA
- pressure
A: ATP

Q: What is the name of the process in which an intracellular protein containing vesicle fuses with the cell membrane and expels the protein to the outside of the cell?
- endocytosis
- exocytosis
- phagocytosis
- pinocytosis
A: exocytosis

Q: Oxygen moves from the lungs (high concentration) into the blood (low              concentration) by what process?
- diffusion
- endocytosis
- endocytosis
- filtration
A: diffusion

Q: A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane.  Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution while compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution.  The membrane is permeable to water, but not to Na^+ and Cl^-.  Initially,
- Na^+ diffuses from compartment A to compartment B
- Na^+ diffuses from compartment B to compartment A
- water diffuses from compartment A to compartment B
- water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A
A: water diffuses from compartment A to compartment B

Q: If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution such as water, the cell will:
- crenate.
- differentiate.
- shrink.
- swell and burst.
A: swell and burst.

Q: Which of the following best describes 0.9% NaCl solution?
- crenating to red blood cells
- hemolytic to red blood cells
- isotonic
- hypertonic
A: isotonic

Q: Which word means “the bursting of red blood cells”?
- catalyst
- crenation
- endocytosis
- hemolysis
A: hemolysis

Q: The correct order of the stages in mitosis is:
- anaphase, telophase, metaphase, prophase
- prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
- prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase
- telophase, anaphase, prophase, metaphase
A: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Q: Mitosis:
- causes a 50% reduction in chromosomal numbers
- occurs only within sex cells
- occurs only within red blood cells
- produces two genetically identical cells
A: produces two genetically identical cells

Q: Which of the following statements are true concerning the effects of aging on the cell?
- Cell’s ability to repair declines.
- Cells become smaller and their capacity to divide and reproduce decreases.
- Chromosomes in the nucleus undergo such as clumping, shrinkage, and fragmentation.
- (a) Cell’s ability to repair declines. (b) Cells become smaller and their capacity to divide and reproduce decreases. (c) Chromosomes in the nucleus undergo such as clumping, shrinkage, and fragmentation.
- (a) Cell’s ability to repair declines. (c) Chromosomes in the nucleus undergo such as clumping, shrinkage, and fragmentation.
A: (a) Cell’s ability to repair declines. (c) Chromosomes in the nucleus undergo such as clumping, shrinkage, and fragmentation.

Q: An abnormal new growth, usually referring to a tumor, is called (a):
- differentiated cell
- necrosis
- neoplasm
- stem cell
A: neoplasm

Q: Which of the following are building blocks of protein?
- amino acids
- cellulose and glycogen
- glucose, fructose, and galactose
- monosaccharides
A: amino acids

Q: Starch is classified as a (an):
- amino acid
- fatty acid
- lipid
- polysaccharide
A: polysaccharide

Q: Which of the following is not a carbohydrate item?
- glycerol
- glycogen
- monosaccharide
- sucrose, maltose, and lactose
A: glycerol

Q: Which of the following terms is most descriptive of ribose and deoxyribose?
- disaccharides
- lipids
- steroids
- sugars
A: sugars

Q: Glucose is usually broken down in order to:
- make carbon dioxide
- make glycogen
- provide energy (ATP) for the working cells
- use up urea
A: provide energy (ATP) for the working cells

Q: Which of the following is a nitrogen-containing waste product?
- adenosine triphosphate
- carbon dioxide
- glucose
- urea
A: urea

Q: Which of the following is not a carbohydrate item?
- cholesterol
- glycogen
- monosaccharide
- sucrose and fructose
A: cholesterol

Q: In the absence of oxygen, glucose is catabolized to:
- carbon dioxide and water
- fatty acid
- lactic acid
- urea
A: lactic acid

Q: Gluconeogenesis is a process which makes:
- glucose from glycogen
- glucose from protein
- protein from fat
- protein from glucose
A: glucose from protein

Q: An NH_2 group and a COOH group is most characteristic of a (an):
- amino acid
- fatty acid
- ketoacid
- monosaccharide
A: amino acid

Q: DNA
- contains rilose as its sugar
- contains the following bases: cytosine, quanine, aderine, and uracil
- is double stranded and stores the genetic code
- is located within the cytoplasm
A: is double stranded and stores the genetic code

Q: DNA:
- contains ribose as its sugar
- contains the following bases: cytosine, guanine, adenine, and uracil
- is double-stranded and stores the genetic code
- is located within the cytoplasm
A: is double-stranded and stores the genetic code

Q: Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine are:
- amino acids
- bases of DNA
- intermediates of the Krebs cycle
- sugars used to synthesize nucleotides
A: bases of DNA

Q: With which process are both DNA and mRNA involved?
- ATP production
- glycolysis
- transcription
- translation
A: transcription

Q: Which of the following carries the individual amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosome for assembly into a protein?
- cRNA
- hRNA
- mRNA
- tRNA
A: tRNA

Q: mRNA “gets” the genetic code from:
- centrioles
- DNA
- tRNA
- the ribosomes on the ER
A: DNA

Q: With which base can adenine pair?
- cytosine
- guanine
- ribose
- uracil
A: uracil

Q: Identify the type of cell that conducts an action potential or electrical signal.
- astrocyte
- ependymal cell
- glial cell
- neuron
A: neuron

Q: This type of tissue is found in organs that need to stretch (i.e. urinary bladder).
- adipose tissue
- loose connective tissue
- simple squamous epithelium
- transitional epithelium
A: transitional epithelium

Q: Specialized long branching muscle fibers that fit together tightly at junctions to promote rapid conduction of electrical signals are found in?
- blood
- cardiac muscle
- ligaments
- neurons
A: cardiac muscle

Q: In which of the following is intracellular matrix most abundant?
- bone
- fat
- simple columnar epithelium
- simple squamous epithelium
A: bone

Q: Osseous tissue is:
- also called bone tissue
- classified as skeletal, smooth, and muscle
- classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
- formed from chondrocytes
A: also called bone tissue

Q: Excessive replacement of injured tissue results in a (an):
- adhesion
- gangrenous lesion
- keloid
- neoplasm
A: keloid

Q: Since connective tissue is defined as tissue containing cells separated by some sort of matrix, why could blood be considered connective tissue?
- blood cannot be connective tissue because it is a liquid
- blood cells and plasma combine to form dense tissue similar to connective tissue
- blood cells are separated by plasma, fitting the definition
- blood goes to all parts of the body, connecting them
A: blood cells are separated by plasma, fitting the definition

Q: Osteocytes are to bone as chondrocytes are to:
- cartilage
- fat
- muscle
- nerves
A: cartilage

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous
- types of membranes: epithelial, connective tissue
- type of muscles: skeletal, cardiac, smooth
- types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa
A: types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa

Q: Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are types of:
- connective tissue
- epithelial tissue
- muscle tissue
- nervous tissue
A: connective tissue

Q: Stratified means:
- hard
- flat and shiny
- layered
- striped
A: layered

Q: The fibers of a neuron are:
- axon and dendrites
- dendrites and fibrils
- fibrils and ER
- transporters and vesicles
A: axon and dendrites

Q: Collagen and elastic fibers are found in the intracellular matrix of:
- connective tissue
- glandular tissue
- nervous tissue
- squamous epithelial tissue
A: connective tissue

Q: The fibrous tissue that covers cartilage is called:
- epicardium
- epichondrium
- pericardium
- perichondrium
A: perichondrium

Q: A ligament is best described as:
- glandular epithelium
- malignant
- squamous epithelium
- dense fibrous tissue
A: dense fibrous tissue

Q: The pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum are:
- confined to the abdominopelvic cavity
- confined to the thoracic cavity
- mucous membranes
- serous membranes
A: serous membranes

Q: The prefix pseudo means:
- false
- few
- many
- true
A: false

Q: A band of connective tissue connecting two bones is called (a):
- ligament
- periosteum
- serosa
- tendon
A: ligament

Q: The removal of living tissue for microscopic examination is called:
- biopsy
- computerized tomography
- magnetic resonance imaging
- ultrasound
A: biopsy

Q: The type of connective tissue that stores fat is called:
- adipose tissue
- cutaneous tissue
- mucous membrane
- parietal tissue
A: adipose tissue

Q: Which type of tissue is most likely to prevent a kidney from “floating”?
- adipose tissue
- muscle tissue
- simple squamous epithelium
- stratified columnar epithelium
A: adipose tissue

Q: A malignant tumor involving epithelial tissue is called a:
- adenoma
- carcinoma
- lipoma
- sarcoma
A: carcinoma

Q: Which of the following is true of an exocrine gland?
- made of connective tissue
- only secretes sweat
- secretes hormones
- secretes it products to the outside or onto a surface
A: secretes it products to the outside or onto a surface

Q: The cutaneous membrane:
- has a visceral and parietal layer
- has three layers - squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
- is a synovial membrane
- is the skin
A: is the skin

Q: Which word refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales?
- glia
- squamous
- stratified
- striated
A: squamous

Q: Which type of membrane lines the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body?
- meninges
- mucous membrane
- serous membrane
- synovial membrane
A: mucous membrane

Q: Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured?
- connective
- epithelial
- muscle
- nervous
A: epithelial

Q: The endocrine glands secrete:
- digestive juices
- hormones
- mucus
- tears
A: hormones

Q: Which of the following is the culprit in obesity?
- adipose tissue
- glia
- osseous tissue
- squamous epithelium
A: adipose tissue

Q: Which of the following is characterized by cells that are arranged like tiles on a floor?
- fascia
- ligaments
- osseous tissue
- squamous epithelium
A: squamous epithelium

Q: Which of the following is most descriptive of a bed sore?
- decubitus ulcer
- malignant neoplasm
- metastatic
- sarcoma
A: decubitus ulcer

Q: An example of secretion from an exocrine gland is:
- insulin
- lymph
- plasma
- sweat
A: sweat

Q: Death of soft tissues of a body part is called (an):
- adhesion
- cancer
- kelosis
- gangrene
A: gangrene

Q: New cells grow from the deepest layer of the epidermis, the:
- adipose layer
- stratum corneum
- stratum germinativum
- stratum lucidum
A: stratum germinativum

Q: The hypodermis:
- contains the stratum germinativum and stratum corneum
- gives rise to the hair follicle
- is also called the subcutaneous layer
- is the cutaneous membrane
A: is also called the subcutaneous layer

Q: Which of the following lies upon the subcutaneous layer?
- dermis
- epidermis
- stratum corneum
- stratum germinativum
A: dermis

Q: Which of the following structures is avascular?
- dermis
- epidermis
- subcutaneous layer
- underlying muscle
A: epidermis

Q: What is the layer that insulates the body from extreme temperature changes in the external environment?
- dermis epidermis
- epidermis
- stratum germinativum
- subcutaneous
A: subcutaneous

Q: Which of the following makes the skin water resistant?
- carotene
- iron pigments
- keratin
- melanin
A: keratin

Q: Which of the following is associated with tanning?
- apocrine glands
- arrector pili muscles
- melanocytes
- sudoriferous glands
A: melanocytes

Q: Poorly oxygentated blood causes the skin to turn                .  This condition is called                      .
- black and blue; ecchymosis
- blue; cyanosis
- pale; pallor
- yellow; jaundice
A: blue; cyanosis

Q: What is the name of the yellow pigment found in skin?
- carotene
- collagen
- keratin
- vitamin D
A: carotene

Q: Hives are called:
- impetigo
- psoriasis
- urticara
- vitiligo
A: urticara

Q: If the blood vessels of the skin dilate, the person appears:
- cyanotic
- flushed
- jaundiced
- pale and washed out
A: flushed

Q: Body parts that are hairless include the:
- abdomen
- finger and toes
- interior surface of the nose
- palms of hands and soles of feet
A: palms of hands and soles of feet

Q: Hair color is determined by the:
- hair root
- sex hormones estrogen and testosterone
- shape of the hair shaft
- type and amount of melanin
A: type and amount of melanin

Q: What is the result of the contraction of the arrector pili muscles?
- goosebumps
- nail growth
- sweating
- tanning
A: goosebumps

Q: What is the name of the sweat glands usually associated with hair follicles and found in the axillary and genital areas?
- aprocrine
- ceruminous
- ecrine
- sebaceous
A: aprocrine

Q: Both the mammary glands and ceruminous glands:
- are concerned with temperature regulation
- are modified sweat glands
- are sebaceous glands
- secrete earwax
A: are modified sweat glands

Q: Which word is most descriptive of sudoriferous?
- hot
- sweat
- tan
- yellow
A: sweat

Q: What type of gland secretes vernix caseosa in the fetus?
- apocrine
- ecrine
- sebaceous
- sudoriferous
A: sebaceous

Q: Which glands are related to the development of body odor?
- aprocrine
- arrector pili
- eccrine
- sebaceous glands
A: aprocrine

Q: The ecrine glands are responsible for:
- secreting milk
- secreting vernix caseosa
- secreting wax in the outer ear
- sensible perspiration
A: sensible perspiration

Q: Radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation are terms that are concerned with:
- exocrine secretions
- heat loss
- skin color
- sweat glands
A: heat loss

Q: Nonshivering thermogenesis is accomplished by:
- constriction of the dermal blood vessel
- involuntary contraction of he arrector pili muscles
- involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles
- metabolism associated with brown fat
A: metabolism associated with brown fat

Q: Which of the following is a consequence of a congenital absence of ecrine glands?
- acne vulgaris
- inability to regulate body temperature
- jaundice
- vitiligo
A: inability to regulate body temperature

Q: Anticancer drugs often cause hair loss, a condition called:
- alopecia
- hirsutism
- keratinization
- vitiligo
A: alopecia

Q: Ms L, aged 15, suffers from blackheads and pimples on her face and neck.  The most likely diagnosis is:
- acne vulgaris
- atopic dermatitis
- herpes simplex
- lupus erythematosus
A: acne vulgaris

Q: Another name for eczema is:
- acne vulgaris
- atopic dermatitis
- psoriasis
- scleroderma
A: atopic dermatitis

Q: Kevin, age 17, has been complaining of itching between his toes of his right foot.  The area is cracked and has pus filled blisters.  Kevin most likely has (a):
- athlete’s foot
- boil
- cyst
- hives
A: athlete’s foot

Q: Dead burned tissue that forms a thick, inflexible scablike layer is called a (an):
- adhesion
- eschar
- keloid
- psoriatic lesion
A: eschar

Q: As we age, skin wrinkles due to:
- loss of elastic fibers under the skin
- loss of melanin production
- loss of functioning of the sebaceous glands
- ultra-violet radiation
A: loss of elastic fibers under the skin

Q: A term used to describe a bruise is:
- ecchymosis
- jaundice
- melanocyte
- psoriasis
A: ecchymosis

Q: Ceruminous glands:
- are responsible for the summer tan
- are sebaceous glands
- secrete vernix caseosa
- secrete wax in the outer ear
A: secrete wax in the outer ear

Q: Which of the following has the poorest prognosis?
- eczema
- melanoma
- psoriasis
- vitiligo
A: melanoma

Q: A patient is admitted with burns through the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and to the underlying tissues.  Such burns are called:
- deep partial-thickness burns
- full-thickness burns
- second-degree burns
- superficial partial-thickness burns
A: full-thickness burns

Q: The scientific name for itching is:
- impetigo
- pruritis
- scleroderma
- shingles
A: pruritis

Q: An elderly person is more susceptible to cold due to the:
- loss of elasticity
- loss of fat deposits beneath the skin
- loss of functioning of the ceruminous glands
- loss of functioning of the sebaceous glands
A: loss of fat deposits beneath the skin

Q: Which structure would be considered part of the axial skeleton?
- bones of the arms and legs
- pelvic girdle
- shoulder
- vertebrae
A: vertebrae

Q: The number of pairs of each type of rib, true, false, and floating, in order is:
- 5, 3, 2
- 7, 5, 3
- 8, 2, 2
- 7, 3, 2
A: 7, 3, 2

Q: Which word (s) best reflect (s) the function of the epiphyseal discs?
- blood cell information
- longitudinal growth
- phagocytosis
- secretion of synovial fluid
A: longitudinal growth

Q: Which of the following is located at the ends of a long bone?
- diaphysis
- epiphysis
- medullary cavity
- periosteum
A: epiphysis

Q: The adult vertebral column has:
- 26 bones
- 28 bones
- 32 bones
- 33 bones
A: 26 bones

Q: What is the type of projection that articulates with the glenoid cavity?
- crest
- head
- spine
- trochanter
A: head

Q: At which joint do the humorous and ulna meet?
- elbow
- hip
- knee
- wrist
A: elbow

Q: This bone is found in the skull but not in the cranium.
- mandible
- occipital
- parietal
- sphenoid
A: mandible

Q: Mr L fractured his leg in a skateboarding accident.  An x-ray shows that the broken ends of the bone are jammed into each other.  This type of fracture is classified as:
- comminuted
- impacted
- oblique
- spiral
A: impacted

Q: The medial bone of the forearm when in the anatomical position is the:
- humerous
- olecranon
- radius
- ulna
A: ulna

Q: Which of the following bones is found in the shoulder girdle?
- humerous
- scapula
- sternum
- ulna
A: scapula

Q: What is the outer lining of connective tissue that surrounds the diaphysis of a long bone and contains the blood vessels that supply the bone?
- articular cartilage
- endosteum
- periosteum
- osteon
A: periosteum / osteon

Q: This bone is distal to the radius and ulna and proximal to the metacarpals
- carpals
- hallux
- pollux
- tarsals
A: carpals

Q: Which bone is described by the following: leg, shin, and medial malleolus?
- femur
- fibula
- talus
- tibia
A: tibia

Q: Drawing a large arm circle in the air is an example of which type of movement?
- abduction
- adduction
- circumduction
- rotation
A: circumduction

Q: At which joint do the scapula and upper arm bone meet?
- glenohumeral
- humeroulnar
- radiocarpal
- sternoclavicular
A: glenohumeral

Q: Which of the following is a hinge joint?
- anterior fontanel
- coronal suture
- humeroulnar joint
- sternomanubrial
A: humeroulnar joint

Q: The acetabulum:
- is a depression in the scapula
- is located anterior to the symphysis pubis
- is the crest part of the iliac crest
- receives the head of the femur
A: receives the head of the femur

Q: What is the name of the “soft spots” in a baby’s skull?
- fontanels
- sinuses
- sutures
- synovial joints
A: fontanels

Q: A 100-year-old skeleton is found in a farmer’s field.  The forensic expert called in determines that the person was a female because:
- the chest cavity was wider and deeper than would be found in a male
- the femur was heavier and longer than would be found in a male
- the pelvis was broad and shallow, not funnel-shaped
- the ribs included one more pair than would be found in a male
A: the pelvis was broad and shallow, not funnel-shaped

Q: The common name for the sternum is the:
- breast bone
- costal cartilage
- gladiolus
- mandible
A: breast bone

Q: Cancellous refers to a (an):
- cartilaginous bone
- irregular bone
- osteon
- spongy bone
A: spongy bone

Q: Bone store a number of minerals; the most important are:
- calcium and phosphorus
- iron and magnesium
- potassium and carbon
- sodium and chloride
A: calcium and phosphorus

Q: A degenerative joint disease that primarily occurs in weight-bearing joints is:
- osteoarthritis
- osteoporosis
- rheumatoid arthritis
- rickets
A: osteoarthritis

Q: The zygomatic bone:
- articulates with the mandible
- holds the upper teeth
- is a cranial bone
- is called the cheekbone
A: is called the cheekbone

Q: A foramen is a (an):
- curvature
- joints
- opening
- short bone
A: opening

Q: The patella is an example of which type of bone?
- flat
- long
- short
- sesamoid
A: sesamoid

Q: The humerus:
- articulates with the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint
- is a bone of the axial skeleton
- is distal to the radius and ulna
- is located in the upper arm
A: is located in the upper arm

Q: How many phalanges are found in each hand?
- 10
- 12
- 14
- 16
A: 14

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- bones of he lower extremities: femur, tibia, fibula
- bones of the vertebral column: atlas, axis, coxal bone
- sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal
- spinal curvatures: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral
A: bones of the vertebral column: atlas, axis, coxal bone

Q: The hard palate (palatine process) is an extension of the:
- mandible
- maxilla
- sphenoid
- zygomatic
A: maxilla

Q: The bone of the lower jaw is the:
- maxilla
- mandible
- mediastinum
- menubrium
A: mandible

Q: The anatomical name for the thigh bone is the:
- femur
- fibula
- humerus
- tibia
A: femur

Q: In an infant, red bone marrow is found:
- at the epiphyseal disc
- in the medullary cavity
- only in irregular bones such as carpals
- within the blood vessels locate in the Haversiae canal
A: in the medullary cavity

Q: The section of the spinal column that forms tailbone is the:
- cervical region
- lumbar region
- sacrum
- thoracic region
A: sacrum

Q: The greater and lesser trochanters are located on this bone.
- coccyx
- femur
- fibula
- tibia
A: femur

Q: Which of the following refers to an exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine (hunchback)?
- kyphosis
- lordosis
- rickets
- scoliosis
A: kyphosis

Q: The _____________ curve develops about 3 to 4 months after birth as infants start to hold up their head.
- cervical
- lumbar
- sacral
- thoracic
A: cervical

Q: What is the term that refers to the replacement of cartilage by bone?
- myelosuppression
- ossification
- osteomalacia
- osteoporosis
A: ossification

Q: A U-shaped located in the upper neck that anchors the tongue is the:
- ethmoid bone
- hyoid bone
- palatine bone
- vomer
A: hyoid bone

Q: A malleolus is found on the:
- radius and ulna
- scapula
- tibia and fibula
- vertebrae
A: tibia and fibula

Q: Broken bone protrudes through the skin in a(an):
- closed fracture
- comminuted fracture
- compound fracture
- transverse fracture
A: comminuted fracture / compound fracture

Q: The olecranon is:
- a bone of the instep of the foot
- a space between the vertebrae
- the lowest portion of the os coxae
- the part of the ulna that forms the elbow
A: the part of the ulna that forms the elbow

Q: The clavicle is more commonly called the:
- breast bone
- collarbone
- hip bone
- shoulder bone
A: collarbone

Q: The coxal bone is the:
- auditory ossicles
- hip bone
- girdle
- tail bone
A: hip bone

Q: The small, fluid-filled sacs located between the joint and tendons are called:
- bursae
- cysts
- periostea
- synoviae
A: bursae

Q: An oxygen-carrying protein found in muscle fiber is:
- creatnine phosphate
- glycogen
- hemoglobin
- myoglobin
A: myoglobin

Q: An oxygen-carrying protein found in muscle fiber is:
- creatine phosphate
- glycogen
- hemoglobin
- myoglobin
A: myoglobin

Q: Where is calcium stored in a relaxed skeletal muscle?
- fascicle
- neuromuscular junction
- sarcoplasmic reticulum
- T-tubule
A: sarcoplasmic reticulum

Q: The two filaments that form crossbridges are:
- actin and myosin
- actin and troponin
- tropomyosin and myosin
- troponin and tropomyosin
A: actin and myosin

Q: Joey has had his leg in a non-weight bearing cast for 8 weeks.  When the cast is removed the leg appears smaller than the uninjured leg.  What term best describes this condition?
- contractures
- disuse atrophy
- hypertrophy
- muscular dystrophy
A: disuse atrophy

Q: The large triangular muscle across the back of the neck and shoulders is the:
- aponeurosis
- deltoid
- quadriceps
- trapezius
A: trapezius

Q: Which muscles are located between the ribs and help move the rib case during breathing?
- diaphragm
- intercostals muscles
- serratus anterior
- sternocleidomastoid
A: intercostals muscles

Q: With regard to skeletal muscle contraction, which event comes first?
- activation to the N_m receptor within the neuromuscular junction
- crossbridge formation between the actin and myosin
- release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
- release of neurotransmitter (Ach) from the somatic motor neuron
A: release of neurotransmitter (Ach) from the somatic motor neuron

Q: During strenuous exercise, muscle fatigue is caused by the production of _______ when there is no _______ present in the muscle fibers.
- carbon dioxide, glucose
- lactic acid, glucose
- lactic acid, oxygen
- oxygen, lactic acid
A: lactic acid, oxygen

Q: This muscle lies along the anterior surface of the humerus and acts synergistically with the brachialis and brachioradialis to flex the arm at the elbow?
- biceps brachii
- deltoid
- latissimus dorsi
- triceps brachii
A: biceps brachii

Q: Overused muscles:
- atrophy
- develop contractures
- experience series of twitches
- hypertrophy
A: hypertrophy

Q: The less movable attachment of a muscle to bone is called its:
- inclusion
- insertion
- origin
- root
A: origin

Q: The orbicularis oris muscle
- closes the eye
- flexes the head
- is the smiling muscle
- surrounds the mouth
A: surrounds the mouth

Q: This group of muscles help rotate the arm at the shoulder joint:
- hamstrings
- muscles of mastication
- quadriceps femoris group
- rotator cuff muscles
A: rotator cuff muscles

Q: The rectus femoris, vastus lateris, vastus medialism and vastus intermedius:
- are antagonistic to each other
- are muscles of the quadriceps femoris
- are muscle of the hamstrings
- flex the leg at the knee
A: are muscles of the quadriceps femoris

Q: Which of the following increases the force of contraction of a whole muscle?
- contracture
- ossification
- recruitment
- twitch
A: recruitment

Q: The muscle that packs the greatest punch for a boxer and is referred to as the “boxer’s muscle” is the:
- biceps brachii
- biceps femoris
- deltoid
- triceps brachii
A: triceps brachii

Q: An adjective describing muscle fibers running in a straight line is:
- longus
- oblique
- rectus
- trapezius
A: rectus

Q: After age 40, muscle mass:
- decreases
- increases
- is replaced by dense fibrous connective tissue
- muscle mass does not change
A: decreases

Q: This muscle attaches to the cranial aponeurosis and wrinkles the forehead.
- buccinator
- frontalis
- orbicularis oculi
- playsma
A: frontalis

Q: A bundle of muscle fibers is called a(an):
- epimysium
- fascia
- fascicle
- sheath
A: fascicle

Q: This group of muscles is located on the posterior thigh.
- hamstrings
- muscles of mastication
- quadriceps
- rotator cuff muscles
A: hamstrings

Q: This muscle is located on the posterior area of the body.
- latissimus dorsi
- pectoralis major
- quadriceps femoris
- sternocleidomastoid
A: latissimus dorsi

Q: This muscle separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities and is also called the chief breathing muscle.
- diaphragm
- intercostals muscle
- serratus anterior
- sternocleidomastoid
A: diaphragm

Q: Muscles can attach directly to the bone via a flat, sheetlike fascia called:
- aponeurosis
- ligament
- sacromere
- tendon
A: aponeurosis

Q: Muscles of mastication include the:
- buccinators, masseter, and temporalis
- masseter, frontalis, and orbicularis oris
- orbicularis oris, masseter, and sternocleidomastoid
- zygomatic, buccinator, and temporalis
A: buccinators, masseter, and temporalis / orbicularis oris, masseter, and sternocleidomastoid

Q: Which of the following is responsible for muscle relaxation?
- Acetylcholinesterase in the neuromuscular junction is depleted.
- Calcium floods the area of the sarcomere, allowing for interaction of actine and myosin.
- Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
- The sarcomere runs out of ATP.
A: Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Q: The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is called:
- acetylcholine
- actin
- ATP
- myosin
A: acetylcholine

Q: The cheek muscle used in whistling is the:
- buccinators
- masseter
- orbicularis oculi
- orbicularis oris
A: buccinators

Q: The specialized membranes that promote rapid conduction of electrical signal between cardiac muscle cells are called:
- crossbridges
- intercalated disks
- sarcomeres
- striations
A: intercalated disks

Q: A muscle that raises a body part is a(an):
- adductor
- flexor
- levator
- superioris
A: levator

Q: This muscle is located in the upper chest and anterior neck region; contraction of this flexes one’s head as if in prayer.
- diaphragm
- pectoralis major
- sternocleidomastoid
- trapezius
A: sternocleidomastoid

Q: The gastrocnemius is commonly called the:
- muscles of mastication
- swimmer’s muscle
- toe dancer’s muscle
- trumpeter’s muscle
A: toe dancer’s muscle

Q: The levator palpebrae superioris:
- allows one to whistle
- purses the lips
- raises the eyelids
- wiggles the nose
A: raises the eyelids

Q: The scientific name for wryneck is:
- fibromyositis
- myalgia
- myositis
- torticollis
A: torticollis

Q: A single muscle is generally responsible for most of the movement, this "chief muscle" is called the:
- antagonist
- aponeurosis
- prime mover
- synergist
A: prime mover

Q: After age 40, muscle mass:
- decreases
- increases
- is replaced by dense/fibrous connective tissue
- muscle mass does not change according to age
A: decreases

Q: The entire muscle is encased within a tough connective sheath called:
- fascia
- fascicles
- fulcrum
- myoglobin
A: fascia

Q: Which muscle is located in the lower extremities?
- latissimus dorsi
- pectoralis major
- rotator cuff muscles
- sartorius
A: sartorius

Q: Carpal tunnel syndrome involves the tendons of the:
- fingers
- toes
- torso
- upper arm
A: fingers

Q: Which of the following muscles is described as striated and involuntary?
- aponeurosis
- cardiac
- skeletal
- smooth
A: cardiac

Q: Which of the following is a series of contractile units that make up each myofibril; each unit extends from Z line to Z line?
- fascicle
- sarcomere
- sarcoplasmic reticulum
- synapse
A: sarcomere

Q: The rectus, transverse, internal oblique and the external oblique refer to:
- abdominal muscles
- breathing muscles
- muscles that are located on the back and work synergistically with the latissimus dorsi
- smooth muscles
A: abdominal muscles

Q: What is the name of the space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of a second neuron?
- cell body
- node of Ranvier
- synapse
- vesicle
A: synapse

Q: The postcentral gyrus:
- contains the primary motor cortex
- is located in the parietal lobe
- is the primary visual cortex
- performs the “executive” functions
A: is located in the parietal lobe

Q: Which of the following structures is most associated with “wake up”?
- Broca’s area
- cerebellum
- reticular formation
- thalamus
A: reticular formation

Q: Which of the following symptoms is suggestive of Alzheimer disease?
- impaired balance
- intellectual impairment
- limb rigidity
- tremor
A: intellectual impairment

Q: The temporal lobe:
- contains the primary auditory cortex
- is a brain stem structure
- is a cerebellar structure
- is a large mass of white matter that joins the right and left cerebral hemisphere
A: contains the primary auditory cortex

Q: Motor neurons carry impulses from:
- away from the brain
- toward the brain
- toward and away from the brain
- all of the above
A: away from the brain

Q: Which of the following structures brings information toward the cell body?
- axons
- axon terminals
- dendrites
- nodes of Ranvier nodes of Ranvier
A: dendrites

Q: Vital centers that regulate breathing and the heartbeat are located in the:
- cerebellum
- hypothalamus
- medulla oblongata
- pons
A: medulla oblongata

Q: What makes white matter “white”?
- cell bodies
- myelin sheath
- neurotransmitters
- synaspes
A: myelin sheath

Q: Frontal eye fields:
- allow the person to interpret visual information
- determination the color of the eyes
- perform a motor role regarding the eyes
- receive sensory information from the optic nerve
A: perform a motor role regarding the eyes

Q: The neurotransmitters, such as acetylocholine (Ach), are stored within the:
- axon terminals
- cell body
- postsynaptic receptors
- tips of the dendrites
A: axon terminals

Q: A cervical pap smear indicates well differentiated cells.  You would intepret this statement as:
- a normal cellular appearance
- evidence of cancer
- evidence of edema
- evidence of necrosis
A: a normal cellular appearance
Feedback: Select one of the following

Q: The term apoptosis refers to:
- cell growth
- cell organization
- cell division
- cell death
A: cell death
Feedback: select all that apply

Q: Gluconeogenesis:
- causes hypoglycemia
- increases blood cholesterol
- increases blood gluocse
- increases urea synthesis
A: increases blood gluocse
Feedback: Select all that apply

Q: Cell growth that becomes uncontrolled and disorganized:
- becomes a tumor.
- may be malignant.
- may be benign.
- is considered a normal finding.
A: becomes a tumor.; may be malignant.; may be benign.
Feedback: Select all that apply

Q: A decrease in the size of the cells, leading to a wasting away of tissues and organs is:
- Atrophy
- Dysplasia
- Necrosis
- Hyperplasia
A: Atrophy
Feedback: Select one

Q: Mitosis
- causes a 50% reduction in chromosome number
- occurs only within sex cells
- occurs only with red blood ells
- produces two genetically identical cells
A: produces two genetically identical cells

Q: A cervical Pap smear indicates well differentiated cells.  You would interpret this statement as:
- a normal cellular appearance
- evidence of cancer
- evidence of edema
- evidence of necrosis
A: a normal cellular appearance

Q: Dense fibrous, connective tissue covering muscles, blood vessels, and nerves providing support, is called:
- fascia
- hyaline cartilage
- subcutaneous tissue
- the viscera
A: fascia

Q: As one ages, the total amount of water in the body:
- fluctuates from month to month
- gradually decreases
- increases
- stays consistently at 75%
A: gradually decreases

Q: In an effort to cool the body down, the blood vessels dilate resulting in flushing and the:
- arector pili muscles contract
- sebaceous glands secrete sebrum
- skeleton muscles contract vigoriously involuntary, causing shivering
- sweat glands are activated
A: sweat glands are activated

Q: What substance is produced by the skin and is necessary for absorption of calcium from the digestive tract?
- carotene
- collagen
- keratin
- vitamin D
A: vitamin D

Q: Rectal temperature is:
- a measurement of core temperature
- a measure of shell temperature
- higer in the early morning than in late afternoon
- lower than oral and axillary temperature
A: a measurement of core temperature

Q: The corpus collusum:
- connects the medulla oblongata and the spinal cord
- connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres
- is a band of gray matter that lines the ventricles
- is the point at which all motor fibers decussate
A: connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres

Q: The myelin sheath is formed by specialized cells within the peripheral nervous system called:
- ependymal cells
- glial cells
- oligodendrocytes
- Schwann cells
A: Schwann cells

Q: Parkinson’s disease:
- is a demyelinating disease
- is caused by a deficiency of dopamine within the basal nuclei
- is caused by a slow cerebral bleeding episode
- refers to any increase in intracranial pressure
A: is caused by a deficiency of dopamine within the basal nuclei

Q: The repolarizing phase of the action potential:
- is due to the movement of potassium (K^+) out of the cell
- is due to the movement of sodium (Na^+) into the cell
- is due to the Na^+/K^+ pump located in the membrane
- means that the inside of the cell is becoming more positive
A: is due to the movement of potassium (K^+) out of the cell

Q: What is the name of the enzyme that destroys acetylcholine?
- Ach
- acetylcholinesterase
- dopamine
- norepinephrine
A: acetylcholinesterase

Q: The lobe of the cerebrum located on the posterior aspect and over the cerebellum is the:
- frontal lobe
- lateral lobe
- occipital lobe
- temporal lobe
A: occipital lobe

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- divisions of the nervous system: central nervous system, peripheral nervous system
- electrical events: depolarization, repolarization, action potential
- lobes of the cerebrum: frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal
- parts of the brain stem: cerebrum, pons, medulla oblongata
A: parts of the brain stem: cerebrum, pons, medulla oblongata

Q: What is the name of the motor speech area located in the frontal lobe?
- Broca’s area
- the brain stem
- the diencephalons
- the pons
A: Broca’s area

Q: The visual area of the cortex is in the:
- frontal lobe
- occipital lobe
- parietal lobe
- temporal lobe
A: occipital lobe

Q: Endorphins are:
- energy sources much like ATP
- natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of well-being
- secreted by the choriod plexus and circulated within the subarachnoid space
- waste products generated by depolarizing neurons
A: natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of well-being

Q: The layers of the meninges, beginning with the outermost, are the:
- dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater
- dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid
- pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater
- pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid
A: dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

Q: The frontal, temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes form the:
- brain stem
- cerebellum
- cerebrum
- reticular formation
A: cerebrum

Q: The surface of the cerebrum is folded into elevations that resemble speed bumps; these speed bumps are called:
- convolutions, or gyri
- fissures
- foreman
- sulci
A: convolutions, or gyri

Q: The astrocytes:
- are concentrated within the choroids plexus
- secrete cerebrospinal fluid
- secrete myelin
- support and protect the neurons and help to form the blood brain barrier
A: support and protect the neurons and help to form the blood brain barrier

Q: A nerve containing only efferent fibers is a (an):
- mixed nerve
- motor nerve
- nerve tact
- sensory nerve
A: motor nerve

Q: Cerebrospinal fluid circulates freely in the:
- arachnoid space
- pia mater
- subarachnoid space
- subdural space
A: subarachnoid space

Q: This structure is part of the diencephalons; it regulates the anterior pituitary gland, water balance, appetite, body temperature, and the autonomic nervous system.
- cerebellum
- hypothalamus
- medulla oblongata
- pons
A: hypothalamus

Q: The midbrain and the medulla oblongata are connected via the:
- cerebrum
- corpus collosum
- dura mater
- pons
A: pons

Q: The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are referred to as the:
- brain stem
- diencephalons
- emotional brain
- limbic system
A: brain stem

Q: Cerebrospinal fluids is formed by a vascular network referred to as the:
- aqueduct of Sylvius
- arachnoid villi
- choroid plexus
- cranial venous sinus
A: choroid plexus

Q: What function is related to the area just anterior to the central sulcus?
- Broca’s area
- primary motor area
- somatosensory area
- visual cortex
A: primary motor area

Q: Abnormal electrical activity in the brain that results in seizures is a disorder called:
- aphasia
- cerebral palsy
- epilepsy
- Parkinson disease
A: epilepsy

Q: What term describes the hopping of the action potential along the axon from one node (of Ranvier) to the next?
- depolarization
- myelination
- repolarization
- salutatory conduction
A: salutatory conduction

Q: Difficulty in forming words would indicate an injury to the:
- auditory association area
- Broca area
- primary sensory cortex
- Wernicke area
A: Broca area

Q: The nodes of Ranvier:
- are located along the postsynaptic membrane
- increase the speed of the action potential
- store Ach in tiny vessels
- synthesize the neurotransmitter acetylcholine
A: increase the speed of the action potential

Q: The autonomic nervous system and the pituitary gland are controlled by the:
- cerebellum
- cerebrum
- hypothalamus
- reticular formation
A: hypothalamus

Q: There are four major areas of the brain: the cerebrum, diencephalons, brain stem, and the:
- cerebellum
- hypothalamus
- limbic system
- medulla oblongata
A: cerebellum

Q: The emetic center:
- is located in the cerebellum
- allows one to ignore repetitive background information
- functions only in emotional states
- receives information from the chemoreceptor trigger zone
A: receives information from the chemoreceptor trigger zone

Q: Death of a cell is referred to as:
- atrophy
- dysplasia
- necrosis
- stasis
A: necrosis

Q: Which of the following is most likely to happen with the activation of plasminogen?
- jaundice develops
- red blood cells agglutinate
- the blood clot dissolves
- the blood clots, or coagulates
A: the blood clot dissolves

Q: An antithrombin agent:
- causes jaundice
- fights infection
- prevents blood coagulation
- stimulates the synthesis of hemoglobin
A: prevents blood coagulation

Q: Leukocytosis and leukopenia are:
- abnormal numbers of white blood cells
- decreased number of white blood cells
- increased numbers of white blood cells
- the result of myelosuppression
A: abnormal numbers of white blood cells

Q: The plasma proteins consist of:
- albumin
- bilirubin
- eosinophil
- leukocyte
A: albumin

Q: At the end of the 120 days, the red blood cell:
- becomes known as a "poly"
- becomes known as a reticulocyte
- is converted to fibrin
- is removed from the circulation and broken down
A: is removed from the circulation and broken down

Q: Heme contains:
- albumin
- erythropoiethin
- iron
- plasma
A: iron

Q: Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are:
- granulocytes
- heparin-secreting
- lymphocytes
- phagocytic
A: granulocytes

Q: Rapid breakdown of this blood cell causes jaundice:
- granulocyte
- lymphocyte
- platelet
- red blood cell
A: red blood cell

Q: What is the name of the condition that is caused by a diet that is deficient in iron?
- anemia
- jaundice
- kernicterus
- leukopenia
A: anemia

Q: Which of the following is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin?
- hypoxemia
- infection
- low blood volume
- low plasma pH (acidosis)
A: hypoxemia

Q: White blood cells are called:
- erythrocytes
- leukocytes
- platelets
- thrombocytes
A: leukocytes

Q: Functions for blood include:
- delivers oxgen to the lungs from every cell in the body; transports hormones throughout the body
- transports nutrients throughout the body; picks up waste and delivers to organs for elimination
- delivers waste materials to the tissues; transports hormones throughout the body
- transports oxygen to the lungs; transports nutrients throughout the body
A: transports nutrients throughout the body; picks up waste and delivers to organs for elimination

Q: A band cell is an immature:
- eosinophil
- lymphocyte
- monocyte
- neutrophil
A: neutrophil

Q: The element needed for the formation of hemoglobin is:
- carbon
- iron
- potassium
- sodium
A: iron

Q: One function of blood is protection.  How does blood protect the body?
- It carries oxygen and carbon dioxide in the red cells.
- The blood really only protects the internal organs by bringing them oxygen.
- The leukocytes and plasma defend against pathogens.
- The red cells and plasma proteins act as buffers to regulate pH.
A: The leukocytes and plasma defend against pathogens.

Q: This cell is the “parent” cell of the three types of blood cells produced in the bone marrow.
- erythrocyte
- leukocyte
- megakarocyte
- stem cell
A: stem cell

Q: Why may a person who has had a gastrectomy develop pernicious anemia?
- A major source of erythropoietin has been removed.
- Impaired bone marrow activity.
- Inability to absorb vitamin B_12
- The lack of gastric hydrochloric acid causes myelosuppression.
A: Inability to absorb vitamin B_12

Q: The term used to describe th epercentage of red blood cells pertotal blood volume is:
- hematocrit
- hemoccult
- hemodynamics
- hemoglobin
A: hematocrit

Q: Which of the following is related to the white blood cell?
- bilirubin
- hemoglobin
- oxygen transport
- phagocytosis
A: phagocytosis

Q: The word icterus refers to:
- bleeding
- fever
- infection
- jaundice
A: jaundice

Q: Which of the following is descriptive of a neutrophil?
- oxygen carrier
- phagocyte
- plasma protein
- platelet
A: phagocyte

Q: Which of the following is caused by an overdose of heparin or warfarin sodium?
- bleeding
- infection
- jaundice
- thrombosis
A: bleeding

Q: Which of the following is least descriptive of the olfactory nerve?
- cranial nerve I
- concerned with the sense of smell
- moves the tongue
- sensory
A: moves the tongue

Q: What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow?
- limbic system
- parasympathetic nervous system
- sympathetic nervous system
- vagal discharge
A: sympathetic nervous system

Q: Which of the following is the correct pathway for a reflex arc?
- effector organ, integrating center, sensory neuron, motor neuron, receptor
- effector organ, sensory neuron, intergrating center, receptor, motor neuron
- receptor, motor neuron, intergrating center, sensory neuron, effector organ
- receptor, sensory neuron, intergrating center, motor neuron, effector organ
A: receptor, sensory neuron, intergrating center, motor neuron, effector organ

Q: Sensory nerve fibers from the periphery travel to the spinal cord through the:
- dorsal root
- spinal root
- ventral root
- vertebral root
A: dorsal root

Q: An infant’s spinal cord extends:
- the full length of the spinal cavity
- to the level of the 1st lumbar vertebrae
- to the level of the 5th lumbar vertebrae
- to the sacrum
A: the full length of the spinal cavity

Q: A hammer strikes the Achilles tendon to elicit this stretch reflex.
- ankle-jerk reflex
- Babinski reflex
- Baroreceptor reflex
- patellar tendon reflex
A: ankle-jerk reflex

Q: An intramuscular injection into the buttocks is given in the upper outer quadrant in an attempt to avoid injuring this nerve.
- common peroneal
- femoral
- phrenic
- sciatic
A: sciatic

Q: The number of pair of spinal nerves is:
- 5
- 7
- 12
- 31
A: 31

Q: Damage to the common peroneal nerve causes:
- crutch palsey
- deafness
- footdrop
- inability to breathe
A: footdrop

Q: Tic douloureux or trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by:
- diminished vision
- hearing loss
- hemiplegia
- intense facial pain
A: intense facial pain

Q: Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves:
- are somatic motor neurons
- include the phrenic, sciatic, and brachial nerves
- innervate the viscera
- supply voluntary skeletal muscles
A: innervate the viscera

Q: Ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils reflect pressure on this nerve.
- facial
- oculomotor
- optic
- vagus
A: oculomotor

Q: Patient J is complaining of pain accompanied by blister-like lesions located around her waist.  Patient J is most likely experiencing:
- chicken pox
- measels
- shingles
- sciaticus
A: shingles

Q: The first cranial nerve is responsible for:
- balance
- hearing
- smell
- swallowing
A: smell

Q: The area of skin innervated by a spinal nerve is called a:
- dermatone
- gyrus
- plexus
- tract
A: dermatone

Q: Motor fibers from the cervical plexus branch off to form which of the following nerve responsible for contraction of the diaphragm?
- diaphragmatic
- musculocutaneous
- phrenic
- pudendal
A: phrenic

Q: Which reflex is concerned with the regulation of blood pressure?
- Achilles tendon reflex
- Babinski reflex
- baroreceptor reflex
- patellar reflex
A: baroreceptor reflex

Q: In order to achieve spinal anesthesia, an anesthetic agent is injected into the:
- central canal
- dorsal root ganglia
- lateral ventricle
- subarachnoid space
A: subarachnoid space

Q: A spinal cord injury at the level of C2 causes:
- hemiplegia and blindness
- paraplegia and deafness
- quadriplegia and an inability to breathe
- ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils
A: quadriplegia and an inability to breathe

Q: The oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens are cranial nerves that:
- interpret sensory information from the optic nerve
- innervate the extrinsic eye muscles (move the eyeball)
- innervate the levator palpebrae superioris (life the eyelid)
- innervate the muscles of mastication
A: innervate the extrinsic eye muscles (move the eyeball)

Q: The tracts of the spinal cord that carry impulses away from the brain are the:
- ascending, or motor tracts
- ascending, or sensory tracts
- descending, or motor tracts
- descending, or sensory tracts
A: descending, or motor tracts

Q: Which of the following is an effect of parasympathic discharge?
- dilation of the pupil of the eye
- increased blood pressure
- slowed heart rate
- stronger contraction of the heart
A: slowed heart rate

Q: Damage to this nerve causes blindness:
- cranial nerve I
- cranial nerve II
- crania nerve III
- cranial nerve VIII
A: cranial nerve II

Q: Which of the following is true of the spinothalamic tract?
- descending tract
- pyramidal tract
- sensory for touch, pressure, and pain
- stimulates the skeletal muscles
A: sensory for touch, pressure, and pain

Q: Which reflex is stimulated by stroking the sole of the foot with a sharp object?
- Babinski reflex
- baroreceptor reflex
- gag reflex
- patellar reflex
A: Babinski reflex

Q: Which of the following is the major motor tract?
- cauda equina
- pyramidal
- spinothalamic
- spinocerebellar
A: pyramidal

Q: This fifth cranial nerve is a mixed nerve that detects sensations from the scalp, face, and teeth.
- facial
- olfactory
- trigeminal
- vestibular
A: trigeminal

Q: The gag reflex is mediated by this nerve.
- cranial nerve VIII
- glossopharyngeal nerve
- oculomotor nerve
- optic nerve
A: glossopharyngeal nerve

Q: Vasomotor tone is:
- a vagally induced peripheral vasodilation
- a vascoconstrictor effect caused by background firing of the sympathetic nerves
- caused by parasympathomimetic drugs
- caused by sympatholytic drugs
A: a vascoconstrictor effect caused by background firing of the sympathetic nerves

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- cranial nerves: vagus, facial, median cubital, oculomotor
- nerve damage: crutch palsy, wristdrop, footdrop, Bell’s palsy
- reflexes: baroreceptor, withdrawal, pupillary, patellar, gag
- spinal nerves: phrenic, axillary, pudenal
A: cranial nerves: vagus, facial, median cubital, oculomotor

Q: Which of the following is most related to the sympathetic nervous system?
- “bradying down”
- craniosacral outflow
- “feed and breed”
- “fight and flight”
A: “fight and flight”

Q: A spinal cord injury involving only the lumbar region would cause:
- hemiplegia
- paraplegia
- quadriplegia and an inability to breathe
- ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils
A: paraplegia

Q: The pyramidal tract:
- is a sensory tract
- is also called the corticospinal tract
- is also called the spinothalamic tract
- originates in the pyramidal cells of the medulla oblongata and carries information to the parietal lobe
A: is also called the corticospinal tract

Q: In order to evaluate this cranial nerve, the person is asked to stick out the tongue, and the nurse notes any deviation in the position of the protruded tongue.
- facial
- hypoglossal
- olfactory
- trigeminal
A: hypoglossal

Q: Which of the following is not an effector organ for the autonomic nerves?
- cardiac muscle
- glands
- skeletal muscle
- visceral smooth muscle
A: skeletal muscle

Q: The number of pairs of cranial nerves is:
- 5
- 7
- 12
- 31
A: 12

Q: The 10th cranial nerve, the                    , "wanders" outside the head area and innervates the heart and gastrointestinal systems.
- olfactory
- spinal accessory
- trigeminal
- vagus
A: vagus

Q: A "dilated and fixed" pupil is indicative of pressure on which cranial nerve?
- cranial nerve II
- cranial nerve III
- olfactory nerve
- vestibulocochlea
A: cranial nerve III

Q: Which of the following is most related to the sense of hearing?
- first cranial nerve
- organ of Corti
- semicircular canals
- vestibular nerve
A: organ of Corti

Q: The colored part of the eye that contains the intrinsic eye muscles; the circular muscle and the radial muscles is the:
- iris
- macula lutea
- retina
- suspensory ligaments
A: iris

Q: A cataract is a:
- bulging optic disc
- cloudy lens
- retinal detachment
- scarred cornea
A: cloudy lens

Q: Which of the following equipment is used to elicit the photopuillary reflex?
- bell
- hammer
- penlight
- Snellen chart
A: penlight

Q: Myopia, farsightedness, and astigmastism are:
- conditions of elevated intraocular pressure
- errors of refraction
- infections of the eye
- types of strabismus
A: errors of refraction

Q: This structure is attached to the lens, causing its shape to be changed:
- cornea
- iris
- retina
- suspensory ligament
A: suspensory ligament

Q: An area of heavy concentration of cones providing the most acute vision is the:
- cornea
- fovea centralis
- rods
- optic disk
A: fovea centralis

Q: The receptors for hearing are located in this part of the ear:
- cochlea
- eardrum
- semicircular canals
- utricle and saccule
A: cochlea

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- error of refraction: myopia, farsightedness, astigmatism, presbyopia
- ossicles: malleus, incus, stapes
- special senses: hearing, sight, smell, taste, balance, pain, pressure
- structures of the inner ear: semicircular canals, vestibule, cochlea
A: special senses: hearing, sight, smell, taste, balance, pain, pressure

Q: What is the name of the tube that connects the pharynx and middle ear?
- cochlea
- eustachian
- oval window
- vestibule
A: eustachian

Q: The superior rectus muscle:
- causes miosis
- causes mydriasis
- moves the eyeball
- regulates accommodation
A: moves the eyeball

Q: The gustatory sensation is most related to the:
- eighth cranial nerve
- organ of Corti
- rods and cones
- taste buds
A: taste buds

Q: Lysozyme, an enzyme that helps in destroying pathogens, is found in:
- aqueous humor
- endolymph
- tears
- vitreous humor
A: tears

Q: The ossicle adjacent to the oval window is the:
- hammer
- incus
- malleus
- stapes
A: stapes

Q: What is the function of the vestibule and the semicircular canals?
- balance
- hearing
- smell
- touch and pressure
A: balance

Q: The point at which fibers of the optic nerve crisscross is called the:
- fovea centralis
- macula lutea
- optic chiasm
- optic disc
A: optic chiasm

Q: Cones:
- are concentrated in the optic disc
- are concerned with night vision
- are located in the occipital lobe
- detect red, green, and blue colors
A: detect red, green, and blue colors

Q: Receptors in muscles, tendons, and joints that help judge the position of the body are called
- chemoreceptors
- free nerve endings
- proprioceptors
- tactile corpuscles
A: proprioceptors

Q: Which of the following is most related to the stapes?
- cerumen
- middle ear ossicle
- organ of Corti
- semicircular canal
A: middle ear ossicle

Q: Contraction of the radial muscles of the iris causes:
- both eyeballs to deviate medially
- both eyeballs to gaze skyward
- mydriasis
- pinpoint pupils
A: mydriasis

Q: Sound waves travel through the:
- inner ear
- middle ear
- outer ear
- vestibule
A: outer ear

Q: Which of the following is most related to refraction?
- lens
- light
- retina
- rods and cones
A: lens

Q: The conjunctiva:
- contains blood vessels that nourish the retina
- covers the cornea
- is a mucous membrane
- secretes aqueous humor
A: is a mucous membrane

Q: Which of the following is a special sense?
- pressure
- proprioception
- taste
- touch
A: taste

Q: Rods and cones are called:
- glial cells
- receptors
- refracting structures
- visual reflexes
A: receptors

Q: Which of the following describes the basis for referred pain (e.g the pain of a heart attack radiates to the left shoulder and arm)?
- myocardial enzymes from the injured heart muscle diffuse into the shoulder region.
- Nociceptors are found only in the axillary region
- The same blood vessels that supply the myocardium also supply the shoulder and arm.
- The same nerves that carry sensory information from the heart also carry sensory information from the shoulder.
A: The same nerves that carry sensory information from the heart also carry sensory information from the shoulder.

Q: This gel-like substance gently pushes against the choroid and maintains the shape of the eyeball:
- aqueous humor
- lacrimal secretions
- perilymph
- vitreous humor
A: vitreous humor

Q: Sweets can be tasted best on what portion of your tongue?
- along the lateral portion
- at the back
- at the tip
- on the anterior sides
A: at the tip

Q: What is the condition caused by impaired damage of aqueous humor through the canal of Schlemm that increases intraocular pressure?
- cataracts
- conjunctivitis
- glaucoma
- strabismus
A: glaucoma

Q: Photoreceptors detect:
- acid
- heat
- light
- tissue distortion
A: light

Q: This layer of the eyeball supplies blood to the retina:
- choroid
- iris
- rods and cones
- sclera
A: choroid

Q: What is another name for the tympanic membrane?
- eardrum
- organ of Corti
- oval window
- stirrup
A: eardrum

Q: This structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear:
- pinna
- oval window
- round window
- tympanic membrane
A: tympanic membrane

Q: Which of the following is located in the posterior cavity of the eyeball?
- ciliary muscle
- cornea
- lens
- vitreous humor
A: vitreous humor

Q: Tactile receptors are:
- activated by touch and pressure
- located behind the lens in the vitreous humor
- located within the semicircular canal
- nociceptors
A: activated by touch and pressure

Q: Otitis media is more common in children than adults due to:
- fixation of stapes
- increase in the amount of ear wax production
- length and position of the eustachian tube
- length and position of the tympanic membrane
A: length and position of the eustachian tube

Q: A condition characterized by vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss is:
- macular degeneration
- meniere’s disease
- motion sickness
- otosclerosis
A: meniere’s disease

Q: A receptor may gradually stop responding to a continued mild stimulus.  This process is called:
- adaptation
- displacement
- projection
- regression
A: adaptation

Q: The sense that works most closely with the sense of smell is the sense of;
- pressure
- taste
- temperature
- touch
A: taste

Q: The accessory structure of the eye that functions to help trap foreign particles is the:
- conjunctiva
- cornea
- eyelashes
- sclera
A: eyelashes

Q: Identify the following bone:

[Image]
A: frontal

Q: Which of the following is most descriptive of ATP?
- It is a radioactive isotope of phosphate.
- It is a buffer, removing H^+ from solution.
- It is an energy transfer molecue.
- It ionizes to H^+, thereby lowering pH.
A: It is an energy transfer molecue.

Q: 96% of the body weight is made up of:
- carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen
- calcium, carbon, oxygen, and potassium
- hydrogen, oxygen, chorine, sodium
- iron, sodium, calcium, and fluorine
A: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

Q: In which of the following is intracellular matrix most abundant?
- bone
- fat
- simple columnar epithelium
- simple squamous epithelim
A: bone

Q: In which of the following is intracellular matrix most abundant?
- bone
- fat
- simple columnar epithelium
- stratified squamous epithelium
A: bone

Q: Osseous tissue is:
- also called bone tissue
- classifed as skeletal, smooth, and muscle
- classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
- formed from chrondrocytes
A: also called bone tissue

Q: Osteocytes are to bone as chrondrocytes are to:
- cartilage
- fat
- muscle
- nerves
A: cartilage

Q: Which of the following membrane forms the outer lining of the lungs?
- meninges
- parietal pleura
- visceral peritoneum
- visceral pleura
A: visceral pleura

Q: Which group is incorrect?
- types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous
- types of membranes: epithelial, connective tissue
- types of muscles: skeletal, cardiac, smooth
- types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa
A: types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa

Q: Identify the following connective tissue which serves to adhere the skin to the muscles:

[Image]
A: areolar

Q: So far you have identified several types of epithelial and connective tissue - the following picture is an example of the third type of tissue in the body - what is it?

[Image]
A: muscle
Feedback ("muscle"): you're exactly right - muscle tissue is the third classification of tissue

Q: What is the fourth type of tissue?
A: nervous / nerve
Feedback ("nervous"): good job
Feedback ("nerve"): that's right
Feedback (any other answer): sorry, try again

Q: What is the name for the sweat glands associated with hair follicles and are found in the axillary and genital areas?
- apocrine
- ceruminous
- eccrine
- sebaceous
A: apocrine

Q: A condition in which the skin loses it pigmentation in certain areas is called:
A: vitiligo

Q: To determine the extent of a burn injury the:
A: rules of nine is used

Q: A condition in which the skin loses it pigmentation in certain areas is called:
- impetigo
- urticara
- verucca
- vitaligo
A: vitaligo

Q: To determine extent of a burn injury the:
- burn is measured in cubic centimeters and then averaged using a Rubrik's cube
- burn is scored on a scale of 1 to 5 with 5 being the most severe
- depth of the burn is measured with a caliper and then averaged
- rule of nines is used
A: rule of nines is used

Q: The precentral gyrus:
- contains the medulla oblongata
- is called the vital center
- is located in the parietal lobe
- is the primary motor area
A: is the primary motor area

Q: Constriction of the pupil in response to light is called the:
- PERRLA reaction
- photopupillary reflex
- pupillary consensus relfex
- pupillary mydriatric response
A: photopupillary reflex

Q: Aqueous humor provides nourishment for the:
- conjunctiva
- cornea
- lens
- posterior chamber
A: cornea

Q: Senses                 with age.
- become more sensitive
- diminish
- improve
- stay the same
A: diminish

Q: A sensation begins with (a):
- conduction
- interpretation by the brain
- receptor reaction
- stimulus
A: stimulus

Q: Olfactory receptors are said to be:
- chemoreceptors
- free nerve endings
- responsive to variations in temperature
- tactile activated
A: chemoreceptors

Q: Stimulation of the rods by light causes breakdown of a chemical substanced called:
- endolymph
- lysozyme
- retin A
- rhodopsin
A: rhodopsin

Q: The normal range for hemoglobin in women is:
- 8 to 14
- 12 to 16
- 15 to 17
- 38 to 48
A: 12 to 16

Q: What is necessary to active prothrombin into thrombin?
- calcium
- factor VIII
- heparin
- vitamin K
A: calcium

Q: Which statement does not correctly describe the positioning of the heart within the chest cavity?
- The apex of the heart is located at the level of the fifth intercostal space.
- The base of the heart is located at the level of the second rib.
- The heart is located within the mediastinum.
- One third of the heart is located to the left of the midline of the sternum and the other two thirds are located to the right.
A: One third of the heart is located to the left of the midline of the sternum and the other two thirds are located to the right.

Q: The hardest working cardiac chamber with the thickest myocardium is said to be the:
- left atrium
- left ventricle
- right atrium
- right ventricle
A: left ventricle

Q: The right side of the heart pumps blood through the:
- coronary circuit
- pulmonary circuit
- systemic circuit
- venous circuit
A: pulmonary circuit

Q: This layer of the heart allows it to function as a pump:
- endocardium
- epicardium
- myocardium
- pericardium
A: myocardium

Q: Which layer of the heart has actin and myosin?
- endocardium
- epicardium
- myocardium
- pericardium
A: myocardium

Q: The only structure listed below that carries unoxygenated blood is the:
- aorta
- left ventricle
- pulmonary artery
- pulmonary veins
A: pulmonary artery

Q: The mitral and bicuspid valves:
- are both located on the right side of the heart
- are semilunar valves
- are the same valves
- have three cusps
A: are the same valves

Q: The valve the prevents blood from re-entering the left ventricle is the:
- aortic valve
- mitral valve
- pulmonic valve
- tricuspid valve
A: aortic valve

Q: This structure connects the cusps of the AV vales to the ventricles:
- chordae tendinae
- intercalated discs
- purkinje fibers
- papillary muscles
A: chordae tendinae

Q: A murmur is:
- an abnormal heart sound
- an arrhythmia
- a left to right shunt
- a sign of an impending myocardial infarction
A: an abnormal heart sound

Q: What event causes the pulmonic valve to open?
- an increase of pressure within the right ventricle
- contraction of the chordae tendinae
- firing of the SA node
- stimulation of the parasympathetic system
A: an increase of pressure within the right ventricle

Q: The second heart sound, "dupp", is largely caused by the:
- closure of the atrioventricular valves
- closure of the semilunar valves
- opening of the atrioventricular valves
- opening of the semilunar valves
A: closure of the semilunar valves

Q: The aorta receives blood from the:
- left ventricle
- pulmonary artery
- pulmonary veins
- right ventricle
A: left ventricle

Q: Blood flows from the right atrium through this atrioventricular valve to the right ventricle:
- bicuspid
- mitral
- pulmonic
- tricuspid
A: tricuspid

Q: Complete the sequence: Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery to the:
- coronary arteries
- pulmonary capillaries
- pulmonary veins
- vena cava
A: pulmonary capillaries

Q: The coronary sinus:
- drains into the superior vena cava
- empties blood into the right atrium
- supplies blood the head
- supplies blood to the heart
A: empties blood into the right atrium

Q: The normal pacemaker of the heart is the:
- atriventiricular node
- bundle of HIS
- Purkinje fibers
- sinoatrial node
A: sinoatrial node

Q: The pacemaker of the heart is located in the upper wall of the:
- left atrium
- left ventricle
- right atrium
- right ventricle
A: right atrium

Q: These conducting fibers rapidly spread the electrical signal throughout the ventricular myocardium:
- AV node
- bundle of His
- Purkinje fibers
- SA node
A: Purkinje fibers

Q: Referring the to ECG, the "P wave" represents:
- atrial depolarization
- atrial repolarization
- ventricular depolarization
- ventricular repolarization
A: atrial depolarization

Q: As a result of ventricular contraction:
- blood flows back into the atria
- blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta
- AV valves open
- semilunar valves close
A: blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta

Q: Relaxation of the myocardium is called:
- depolarization
- diastole
- repolarization
- systole
A: diastole

Q: During atrial systole, the:
- AV valves are closed
- semilunar valves are open
- ventricles are in systole
- ventricles are relaxed
A: ventricles are relaxed

Q: Sympathetic stimulation to the heart:
- causes bradycardia
- decreases cardiac output
- decreases stroke volume
- increases heart rate
A: increases heart rate

Q: Vagal stimulation on the heart:
- causes tachycardia
- increases the amount of blood that flows into the heart from the vena cava
- decreases stroke volume
- slows the heart rate
A: slows the heart rate

Q: What term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute?
- cardiac output
- ejection fraction
- heart rate
- stroke volume
A: cardiac output

Q: The normal adult heart rate is:
- 40 to 80 beats per/minute
- 60 to 100 beats/minute
- 50 to 110 beats/minute
- 70 to 120 beats/minute
A: 60 to 100 beats/minute

Q: The amount of blood pumped out of the ventricles per beat is called:
- cardiac output
- ejection fraction
- heart rate
- stroke volume
A: stroke volume

Q: An ejection fraction of 30% is:
- characteristic of a healthy person engaged in aerobic exercise
- charactistic of a weakened, failing heart
- normal
- indicative of the amount of hemoglobin in the blood in the left ventricle
A: charactistic of a weakened, failing heart

Q: Under what conditions is blood most likely to flow "backwards" (i.e. from the left ventricle back into the left atrium)?
- an insufficient mitral valve
- left ventricular hypertrophy
- pulmonary artery hypertension
- pulmonary edem
A: an insufficient mitral valve

Q: Most of the symptoms of left-side heart failure are:
- confined to the lower extremities as in pedal edema
- cured by an antibiotic
- relieved by morphine
- respiratory in nature (i.e. dyspnea, orthopnea)
A: respiratory in nature (i.e. dyspnea, orthopnea)

Q: The term refers to a heart rate of few than 60 beats per minute:
- bradycardia
- hypoarrhythmia
- heart block
- tachycardia
A: bradycardia

Q: Mr. L suffered a myocardial  infarction that incapacitated his sinoatrial node.  His atrioventricular node is now acting as pacemaker.  How will his heartbeat differ from normal?
- it will be faster than normal
- it will be irregular
- it will be slower than normal
- there will be many premature beats
A: it will be slower than normal

Q: Inflammation of the pericardial membranes is called pericarditis and is characterized by pain and a sound called a:
- friction rub
- murmur
- gallop
- pericardial thump
A: friction rub

Q: The epicardium is also called the:
- parietal pericardium
- visceral pericardium
- fibrous pericardium
- pacemaker of the heart
A: visceral pericardium

Q: The function of the pulmonary circuit is to pump blood:
- to all the organs of the body
- through the lungs
- to the myocardium
- throughout the portal vein system
A: through the lungs

Q: The heart itself receives it blood by the:
- blood coursing throughout the chambers
- coronary arteries
- coronary sinus
- coronary veins
A: coronary arteries

Q: Angina pectoris refers to:
- chest pain
- profuse sweating
- swelling of the lower extremities
- loack of blood supply to the tissues
A: chest pain

Q: What term is used for "heart attack"?
- endocardial angina pectoris
- pericarditis
- myocardial infarction
- cardiac tampanode
A: myocardial infarction

Q: Which of the following statements is true considering the effects of aging on the heart?
- heart muscles gains elasticity
- heart valves become thicker and more rigid
- number of pacemaker cells increase leading to tachycardia frequently
- increase ability to use oxygen
A: heart valves become thicker and more rigid

Q: Three mechanism aid in returning venous blood to the heart.  They are:
- contraction of the skeletal muscles
- breathing
- vasodilation
- a, c
- a, b
A: a, b

Q: To conserve heat, blood vessels:
- constrict
- dilate
- spasm as needed
- have no role in regulating body temperature
A: constrict

Q: Initiating Valsalva maneuver will:
- decrease the heart rate
- increase the heart rate
- initially increase the heart rate then decrease
- have no effect on the heart rate at all
A: decrease the heart rate

Q: Patients in heart failure retain water which results in increasing amounts of fluid filtered into the interstitium.  The term used for large amounts of fluid in the interstitium is:
- edema
- hyperfluidity
- effusion
- hypovolemia
A: edema

Q: Edema formation is a problem for older persons due to:
- a decrease in permeability of the capillary membrane
- an increase in permeability of the capillary membrane
- an increase in hydrostatic pressure
- a decrease in hydrostatic pressure
A: an increase in permeability of the capillary membrane

Q: The large lymphatic vessel that drains all of the body except the upper right portion is the:
- lymphatic aorta
- lymphatic vena cava
- right lymphatic duct
- thoracic duct
A: thoracic duct

Q: Auto immune diseases develop in response to self-attack by the T-cells.  Which of the following disease(s) is (are) considered to be an auto immune disease?
- anaphylaxis
- AIDS
- non-Hodgkins
- Hashimoto thyroiditis
A: Hashimoto thyroiditis

Q: HIV is considered a (an)
- allergic response
- autoimmune disease
- immunodeficiency disease
- malignant lymphoma
A: immunodeficiency disease

Q: Older adults are more prone to develop autoimmune disorders due to:
- an increase in T-cell and B cell function
- an increased response to fever
- an increase level of circulating autoantibodies
- the use of steroids
A: an increase level of circulating autoantibodies

Q: The right lymphatic duct and the thoractic duct empty into the:
- inferior vena cava
- jugular vein
- portal vein
- subclavian veins
A: subclavian veins

Q: What prevents the back flow of lymph?
- constriction of the muscle within the lymph vessel
- viscosity of the lymphatic fluid itself
- pressure within the lymphatic vessel
- valves
A: valves

Q: Lymphoid tissue reaches its peak development:
- at birth
- prior to first birth
- at puberty
- in late adulthood
A: at puberty

Q: How many deciduous teeth would a 5 year old have that has not yet lost any teeth?
- 18
- 20
- 26
- 32
A: 20

Q: Which organ would be considered an accessory organ to the digestive tract?
- esophagus
- liver
- pharynx
- rectum
A: liver

Q: Expulsion of feces is called:
- defecation
- deglutition
- emusification
- flatulication
A: defecation

Q: The innermost layer of the digestive tract is the:
- mucosa
- muscle layer
- serosa
- submucosa
A: mucosa

Q: Food moves from one segment with the digestive tract to the next by:
- mastication
- osmosis
- peristalsis
- selective absorption
A: peristalsis

Q: The bulk of a tooth consists of bonelike material called:
- cementum
- dentin
- enamel
- pulp
A: dentin

Q: A condition resulting in protrusion of the stomach into the thoracic cavity is:
- a hiatal hernia
- gastric propulsion
- Peyer's pouch
- pyloric stenosis
A: a hiatal hernia

Q: The common bile duct is formed by the union of the:
- cystic duct and hepatic duct
- duodenum and pylorus
- pancreatic duct and hepatic duct
- ileum and cecum
A: cystic duct and hepatic duct

Q: The presence of chyme in the duodenum stimulates the release of this hormone:
- amylase
- bile
- cholecystokinin
- hydrochloric acid
A: cholecystokinin

Q: This sphincter helps regulate the delivery of bile into the duodenum:
- ileocecal valve
- lower esophageal sphincter
- pyloric sphincter
- sphincter of Oddi
A: sphincter of Oddi

Q: The building blocks of protein are:
- amino acids
- disaccharides
- fatty acids and glycerol
- monosaccharides
A: amino acids

Q: Which statement is false regarding basal metabolic rates?
- An angry person would have a higher BMR than a peaceful person.
- A smaller animal has a higher BMR than a larger animal.
- Men have a higher BMR than women.
- An older person would have a higher BMR than a teen.
A: An older person would have a higher BMR than a teen.

Q: A condition in which one has stones in their gallbladder is called:
- cholangiogram
- cholecystitis
- choldochosis
- cholelithiasis
A: cholelithiasis

Q: As one ages the risk for aspiration increases.  This is due to:
- decrease in production of saliva
- loss of teeth
- slowing of peristalsis
- weakened gag reflex
A: weakened gag reflex

Q: Food particles and small objects are more frequently aspirated into the:
- base of the lung
- right bronchus
- left bronchus
- hilus
A: right bronchus

Q: In order for lung expansion to occur the:
- intrapleural pressure has to be negative
- intrapleural pressure has to be positive
- atmospheric pressure has to be lower than intrapleural pressure
- intrapulmonic pressure has to be equal to atmospheric pressure
A: intrapleural pressure has to be negative

Q: The larger percentage of carbon dioxide is carried from the metaboizing cells to the lungs:
- dissolved in the plasma
- combined with hemoglobin to form carbaminohemoglobin
- converted to HCO3 (biocarbonate)
- in its orginal state
A: converted to HCO3 (biocarbonate)

Q: The bony projections on the lateral wall of the nasal cavity are called:
- conchae
- paranasal ossicle
- paranasal projection
- carina
A: conchae

Q: The medical term for "voice box" is:
- larynx
- pharynx
- trachea
- bronch
A: larynx

Q: The loudess of one's voice is determined by the:
- force with which all moves past the vocal cords
- tension exerted on the muscles of the true vocal cords
- placement of the vocal cord within the false vocal cords
- length of the vocal cord
A: force with which all moves past the vocal cords

Q: Blisters on the outer surface of the lungs are called:
- blebs
- cysts
- rales
- rhonchi
A: blebs

Q: Older adults are at a greater risk for respiratory infections due to:
- a decrease in ciliary activity of mucous membrane
- decrease in number of alveoli
- development of a barrel chest
- an increase in PO2 levels
A: a decrease in ciliary activity of mucous membrane

Q: Which is the energy responsible for body temperature?
- chemical
- mechanical
- radiant
- thermal
A: thermal

Q: Senses                 with age:
- become more sensitive
- diminish
- stay the same
- improve
A: diminish

Q: To conserve heat, blood vessels:
- constrict
- dilate
- spasm
- the vlood vessels have no role in regulating temperature
A: constrict

Q: Lymph is composed primarily of:
- H2O, electrolytes, and protein
- NS, carbohydrates, and isotopes
- plasma, hemoglobin, and O2
- albumin, lactose, and leukocytes
A: H2O, electrolytes, and protein

Q: The millions of tiny fingerlike projections in the lining of the small intestine are:
- duct
- lacteals
- rugae
- villi
A: villi

Q: The hepatic fixture extends from the ascending colon to the:
- cecum
- descending colon
- sigmoid colon
- transverse colon
A: transverse colon

Q: Stones in the gallbladder is called:
- cholecystitis
- cholelithiasis
- cholangiogram
- choledachosis
A: cholelithiasis

Q: As one ages the risk for aspiration increases.  This is due to:
- decrease in production of saliva
- loss of teeth
- slowing of peristalies
- weakened gag reflex
A: weakened gag reflex

Q: Which of the following would be considered a simple sugar?
- cellulose
- glucose
- glycerol
- starch
A: glucose

Q: The testes begin their development within the abdominal cavity but normally descend into the scrotum during the last 2 months.  Failure to descend is called:
- cryptorchidism
- phimosis
- priapism
- prostatic hypertrophy
A: cryptorchidism

Q: The primary reproductive organs secrete hormones and produce the:
- gametes
- gonads
- nutrients for the ova and sperm
- nourishment for the zygote
A: gametes

Q: Undescended testes leads to:
- erectile dysfunction
- infertility
- hypertrophy of the inguinal canal
- priapism
A: infertility

Q: The formation of sperm is called:
- spermatocytosis
- spermatogenesis
- spermatogonia
- spermatodynia
A: spermatogenesis

Q: As the vas deferens ascends up into the inguinal canal it becomes part of the:
- epididymis
- seminal vesicle
- spermatic cord
- urethra
A: spermatic cord

Q: The seminal vesicles secrete a thick, yellowish material rich in fructose, vitamin C, and prostaglandins.  These substances nourish and activate the sperm whereas the secretions from the bulbourethral glands (Cowper's) serve:
- as a lubricant
- to assist the sperm in fertilizing the ovum
- to increase sperm motility
- to neutralize the acidic vaginal environment
A: as a lubricant

Q: The epididymis is responsible for:
- activation of sperm
- maturation of sperm
- production of sperm
- secretion of testosterone
A: maturation of sperm

Q: The upper dome - shaped region of the uterus is the:
- cervix
- fornix
- fundus
- body
A: fundus

Q: The uterus is held in place by the:
- broad ligament
- fallopian tubes
- infundibulum
- peroneal ligament
A: broad ligament

Q: Ovulation occurs on day 14th in response to a surge of:
- estrogen
- follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
- luteinizing hormone (LH)
- progesterone
A: luteinizing hormone (LH)

Q: After ovulation occurs, the follicular cells develop into a glandular structure called the                          which begins top secrete large amounts of progesterone.
- corpus albicans
- corpus luteum
- graafian follicle
- oocyte
A: corpus luteum

Q: Repair and growth of the endometrial lining occurs within the:
- luteal phase
- menstrual phase
- proliferative phase
- secretory phase
A: proliferative phase

Q: Left untreated, sexually transmitted diseases lead to:
- endometriosis
- menarche
- ovarian cysts
- sterility
A: sterility

Q: Men produce sperm:
- only from puberty to their 40's
- throughout their life span
- until testicular function declines
- variable from individual to individual
A: throughout their life span

Q: Fertilization normally occurs in the:
- endometrial lining
- fallopian tube
- ovary
- uterus
A: fallopian tube

Q: The basis for pregnancy tests is:
- estrogen
- human choronic gonadtropin (hCG)
- luteinzing hormone
- progesterone
A: human choronic gonadtropin (hCG)

Q: Loss of an enbryo or fetus during the gestational period occurring naturally with no artificial interference is called a (an)                             abortion.
- elective
- induced
- spontaneous
- therapeutic
A: spontaneous

Q: The rate of metabolism                            during pregnancy.
- decreases
- increases
- spikes at week 20 then decelerates
- stays the same
A: increases

Q: Stretching of the uterine and vaginal tissue in the late stage of pregnancy stimulates the release of                                leading to an increase in contractions and for that reason is given to induce labor.
- estrogen
- luteinizing hormone
- oxytocin
- progesterone
A: oxytocin

Q: The first stool produced by a newborn is soft and dark green and is called:
- colostrum
- lactate
- lanugo
- meconium
A: meconium

Q: The only excretory organ primarily responsible for regulating volume and composition of body fluids is the:
- kidneys
- lungs
- skin
- sweat glands
A: kidneys

Q: The darker, triangular structure located deep within the kidneys is the renal:
- cortex
- column
- hilus
- medulla
A: medulla

Q: The lower ends of the renal pyramids extend into the renal pelvis in cup-like structures called the:
- calyces
- calculi
- corteals
- columns
A: calyces

Q: Urine is formed by three processes, they are, in the correct order:
- absorption, filtration, secretion
- absorption, secretion, filtration
- filtration, absorption, secretion
- filtration, secretion, absorption
A: filtration, absorption, secretion

Q: What is considered to be the functional unit of the kidney?
- Bowman's capsule
- nephron
- renal pyramid
- trigone
A: nephron

Q: What happens in the glomerulus?
- Renin is secreted to aid in the regulation of blood volume and blood pressure.
- Sodium is reabsorbed.
- The juxtagolumerular apparatus cells release aldosterone.
- Water and substances such as Na, K, Cl, and glucose are filtered into Bowman's capsule.
A: Water and substances such as Na, K, Cl, and glucose are filtered into Bowman's capsule.

Q: Which of the following substances should not be found in the glomerular filtrate under normal situations?
- albumin
- potassium
- sodium
- water
A: albumin

Q: Renin activates:
- ADH
- aldosterone
- angiotensin II
- angiotensinogen
A: angiotensinogen

Q: Most tubular reabsorption takes place:
- across the glomerular membrane
- across the proximal convoluted tubule
- in response to ADH
- in response to aldosterone
A: across the proximal convoluted tubule

Q: Creatnine is a:
- renal enzyme that activates angiotensinogen
- renal hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex that stimulates the reabsorption of sodium
- renal hormone that stimulates red blood cell production by the bone marrow
- waste product that is filtered and is not reabsorbed
A: waste product that is filtered and is not reabsorbed

Q: Natriuresis refers to the renal excretion of:
- bicarbonate
- potassium
- sodium
- water
A: sodium

Q: The juxtaglomerular apparatus is located near the:
- afferent arteriole
- collecting duct
- renal pelvis
- ureter
A: afferent arteriole

Q: Under normal conditions which substance would be found in the urine?
- albumin
- bilirubin
- glucose
- urea
A: urea

Q: Which of the following words best describes the function of the urinary bladder?
- buffering of H^+
- filtration
- reabsorption
- storage
A: storage

Q: What happens to the glomerular filtration rate if the blood pressure declines to 70/40 (shock levels)?
- decreases
- drops initially, then restablizes
- increases
- stays the same
A: decreases

Q: What is the earliest consequence of a decreased glomerular filtration rate?
- albuminuria
- gluosuria
- oliguria
- urinary retention
A: oliguria

Q: The bladder muscle is the:
- detrusor
- leveator ani
- inferior pubic ramus
- coccygeus
A: detrusor

Q: The male urethra is                        inches long; whereas the female urethra is                      .
- 1.5, 8
- 4, 6
- 6, 4
- 8, 1.5
A: 8, 1.5

Q: The urinary meatus is part of the:
- collecting duct
- ureter
- urethra
- urinary bladder
A: urethra

Q: Cystitis refers to inflammation of the:
- kidneys
- meatus
- renal pelvis
- urinary bladder
A: urinary bladder

Q: With regards to reabsorption, which strucutre plays the most important role?
- glomerulus
- peritubular capillaries
- renal pelvis
- urinary bladder
A: peritubular capillaries

Q: As one ages, the urge to void occurs more frequently, this is due to:
- a decrease in the glomerular filtration rate
- a decrease in the number of nephrons
- shrinkage of the urinary bladder
- weakening of the external sphincter
A: shrinkage of the urinary bladder

Q: The primary regulator of water intake is (are) the:
- hypothalamus
- medulla oblongata
- pituitary gland
- pons
A: hypothalamus

Q: Most body water is located within which space?
- interstitial
- intracellular
- intravascular
- transcellular
A: intracellular

Q: Water and chloride usually follow the movement of which cation?
- albumin
- bicarbonate
- potassium
- sodium
A: sodium

Q: Kaliuresis refers to the urinary loss of:
- albumin
- potassium
- sodium
- water
A: potassium

Q: Which of the following anions buffers H^+?
- Ca
- HCO_3
- K
- Na
A: HCO_3

Q: Which of the following is most likely to develop in a patient who hypoventilates because of a chronic respiratory disease, such as emphysema?
- a decrease in the plasma concentration of hydrogen ions
- acidosis
- an increase in plasma pH
- Cheyne-Stokes respirations
A: acidosis

Q: Patient X has just been admitted to the hospital, unresponsive, with a pH of 7.25.  According to family members, patient X has taken an excess amount of salicylate (aspirin) products.  She is most likely experiencing:
- metabolic acidosis
- metabolic alkalosis
- respiratory acidosis
- respiratory alkalosis
A: respiratory acidosis

Q: Which of the following is most likely to develop in an anxious hyperventilating patient?
- a decrease in plasma pH
- alkalosis
- ketoacidosis
- respiratory acidosis
A: alkalosis

Q: Vomiting of stomach contents could lead to:
- alkalosis
- hyperkalemia
- hypernatremia and blood volume expansion
- hypocalcemic tetany
A: alkalosis

Q: Hypocalcemia is most like to:
- be caused by excess parathyroid hormone activity
- be treated with IV potassium
- cause blood volume expansion (hypervolemia)
- cause tetany
A: cause tetany

Q: The determination of daily weights is used to monitor:
- concentration of plasma proteins
- fluid balance
- pH
- serum K^+
A: fluid balance

Q: A change in pH from 7.40 to 7.25:
- is indicative of alkalosis
- is indicative of an expanded blood volume
- is within normal limits
- represents an increase in the amount of H^+ ions in the blood
A: represents an increase in the amount of H^+ ions in the blood

Q: The reason older person become more prone to dehydration is that:
- the tubules come more effecient in secretion
- the tubules become more responsive to ADH increasing water reabsorption
- there is a decrease in the thirst mechanism
- there is an excess concentration of solutes leading to a decrease in urination
A: there is a decrease in the thirst mechanism

Q: Fluid shifts occur when there is a change in:
- atmospheric pressure
- hemodynamic pressure
- hydrostatic pressure
- oncotic pressure
A: oncotic pressure

Q: The primary regulator of water intake is (are) the:
- hypothalamus
- pituitary gland
- medulla oblongata
- pons
A: hypothalamus

Q: Which of the following is most likely to develop in a patient who hypoventilates because of a chronic respiratory disease, such as emphysema?
- a decrease in the plasma concentratino of hydrogen ion
- acidosis
- an increase in plasma pH
- Cheyne-Stokes respirations
A: acidosis

Q: Patient X has just been admitted to the hospital, unresponsive, with a pH of 7.25.  According to family members she has taken an excess amount of salicylate (aspirin) products.  She is most likely experiencing:
- metabolic acidosis
- metaboic alkalosis
- respiratory acidosis
- respiratory alkalosis
A: respiratory acidosis

Q: Most body water is located within which space?
- Interstitial
- Intravascular
- Intracellular
- Transcellular
A: Intracellular

Q: Water and chloride usually follow the movement of which cation?
- Bicarbonate
- Sodium
- Potassium
- Albumin
A: Sodium

Q: Kaliuresis refers to the urinary loss of
- water.
- albumin.
- potassium.
- sodium.
A: potassium.

Q: Which of the following anions buffers H^+?
- Ca^2+
- HCO^_3^-
- Na^+
- K^+
A: HCO^_3^-

Q: Which of the following is most likely to develop in an anxious hyperventilating patient?
- Respiratory acidosis
- Alkalosis
- A decrease in plasma pH
- Ketoacidosis
A: Alkalosis

Q: Which condition is caused by vomiting stomach contents?
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypernatremia and blood volume expansion
- Hypocalcemic tetany
- Alkalosis
A: Alkalosis

Q: Hypocalcemia is most likely to:
- cause blood volume expansion (hypervolemia).
- be treated with IV potassium.
- cause tetany.
- be caused by excess parathyroid hormone activity.
A: cause tetany.

Q: The determination of daily weights is used to monitor:
- serum K^+.
- fluid balance.
- concentration of plasma protein.
- pH.
A: fluid balance.

Q: A change of pH from 7.40 to 7.25
- is indicative of expanded blood volume.
- is indicative of alkalosis.
- reflects an increase in the amount of H^+ in the blood.
- is within normal limits.
A: reflects an increase in the amount of H^+ in the blood.

Q: The reason older persons become more prone to dehydration is that :
- the tubules become more responsive to ADH increasing water reabsorption.
- there is an excess concentration of solutes leading to a decrease in urination.
- there is a decrease in the thirst mechanism.
- the tubules become more efficient in secretion.
A: there is a decrease in the thirst mechanism.

Q: Fluids shifts occur where there is changes in:
- on cotic pressure
- hydrostatic pressure.
- atmospheric pressure
- hemodynamic pressures
A: on cotic pressure

Q: The first part of the small intestine is the:
- duodenum
- ileum
- jejunum
- sigmoid
A: duodenum

Q: The appendix is attached to this structure:
- cecum
- jejunum
- pylorus
- sigmoid
A: cecum

Q: The structure surrounding the first part of the male's urethra just below the urinary bladder is the:
- ductus deferens
- epididymis
- prostate gland
- seminal vesicle
A: prostate gland

Q: Small, fringelike extensions on the distal ends of the fallopian tubes are called:
- fimbriae
- ostium
- oviducts
- stroma
A: fimbriae

Q: The triangular area of the bladder formed by the openings to the ureters and urethra is called the:
- detrusor
- meatus
- trigone
- urochromatic opening
A: trigone

Q: Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system:
- causes albuminuria
- causes hematuria
- expands blood volume
- reabsorbs K^+ and eliminates Na^+ in the urine
A: expands blood volume

Q: Respiratory rate is most sensitive to the effects of this ion:
- Cl^-
- H^+
- K^+
- Na^+
A: H^+

Q: Insulin:
- is released by the pancreas in response to low blood glucose levels
- is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans
- is secreted by the liver
- raises blood glucose
A: is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans

Q: The common bile duct empties its contents into the:
- base of the esophagus
- cecum
- duodenum
- stomach
A: duodenum

Q: With age there is a decrease in metabolic rate.  This decrease is due to a decrease in:
- growth hormone
- insulin
- steroidal hormones
- thyroid hormones
A: thyroid hormones

Q: T_3, T_4, and calcitonin are:
- secreted by the parathyroid glands
- secreted by the thryoid gland
- secreted in response to declining levels of calcium
- steroids
A: secreted by the thryoid gland

Q: Steroids:
- are secreated by the adrenal medulla
- are secreted by the pancreas
- include the glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids, and androgens
- stimulate the membranes of the target cells to produce the second chemical messenger, cAMP
A: include the glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids, and androgens

Q: Enlargement of the thyroid gland:
- causes Addisonian crises
- causes hypocalcemia tetany
- is called a goiter
- makes a person appear cushingoid
A: is called a goiter

Q: Calcitonin and parathyroid hormones:
- are both secreted by the parathyroid glands
- control plasma levels of calcium
- decrease plasma levels of calcium
- increase plasma levels of calcium
A: control plasma levels of calcium

Q: Oxytocin:
- is a gonadotropin
- is a mineralcorticoid
- is a neurohypophyseal hormone that stimulates the uterine muscles to contract, thereby assisting in labor
- stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb Na^+, thereby expanding blood volume
A: is a neurohypophyseal hormone that stimulates the uterine muscles to contract, thereby assisting in labor

Q: Which of the following is most likely to cause the secretion of calcitonin?
- dehydration
- elevated plasma calcium levels
- hypocalcemia
- hyperglycemia
A: elevated plasma calcium levels

Q: Ketoacidosis is most related to:
- adrenocortical insufficiency
- Cushing's syndrome
- excess fatty acid catabolism
- hyperglycemia
A: hyperglycemia

Q: Bronzing:
- always accompanies hypergylcemia
- is a consequence of ADH insufficiency
- is characteristic of chronic adrenal cortical insufficiency
- is the most prominent symptom of Cushing's syndrome
A: is a consequence of ADH insufficiency

Q: What mineral is required for synthesis of T_3 and T_4?
- calcium
- iodine
- iron
- magnesium
A: iodine

Q: A common type of hyperthyroidism is:
- Cretinism
- Cushing's syndrome
- Graves Disease
- Myxedema
A: Graves Disease

Q: The hyperthyroid patient may be characterized by arrhythmias and:
- a buffalo hump
- exophthalmia
- hirsutism
- tetany
A: exophthalmia

Q: The hormone interacts with a receptor like:
- a lock and key
- a nut and bolt
- pieces of a puzzle
- ying and yang
A: a lock and key

Q: The two types of receptors are:
- DNA, RNA
- enzymes, amino acids
- lipids and carbohydrates
- proteins and steroids
A: proteins and steroids

Q: Dip pH strip into a small amount of juice.  Compare color of pH paper to chart on bottle.  Is it acidic or alkaline?
- acidic
- alkaline
A: acidic

Q: #2 Vinegar - Dip pH in small amount of vinegar.  Wait 20 seconds and compare color of pH to chart on bottle.  Is it acidic or alkaline?
- acidic
- alkaline
A: acidic

Q: #3 Laundry detergent - Reconstitute a small amount of laundry detergent with the distilled water.  Dip pH paper into the liquid.  Wait 20 seconds and then compare color on pH paper to chart on bottle.  Is it acidic or alkaline?
- acidic
- alkaline
A: alkaline

Q: #4 Cola - Dip pH paper in small amount of cola.  Wait 20 seconds and compare color on pH paper to chart on bottle.  Is it acidic or alkaline?
- acidic
- alkaline
A: acidic

Q: #5 baking soda - reconstitute small amount of baking soda with distilled water.  Wait 20 seconds and compare color of pH to chart on bottle.   Is it acidic or alkaline?
- acidic
- alkaline
A: alkaline

Q: If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution such as water, the cell will:
- crenate
- differentiate
- shrink
- swell and burst
A: swell and burst

Q: A decrease in the size of a cell, leading to wasting away of tissues and organs is known as:
- atrophy
- dysplasia
- hyperplasia
- necrosis
A: atrophy

Q: The chief function for the cell membrane is to:
- control the workings of the entire cell
- determine what substances is allowed to enter or leave the cell
- breakdown intracellular waste and debris
- synthesize proteins
A: determine what substances is allowed to enter or leave the cell

Q: Identify the transport mechanism: a passive process that uses a carrier molecule to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
- an ATP-drive pump
- facilitated diffusion
- filtration
- osmosis
A: facilitated diffusion

Q: Which of the following best describes the power or driving force for active transport?
- ATP
- DNA
- H^+
- pressure
A: ATP

Q: Which of the following is a gel-like substance located inside the cell, but outside the nucleus?
- cytoplasm
- isotonic saline
- lysosomal enzymes
- nucleoplasm
A: cytoplasm

Q: The term, apoptosis refers to:
- cell death
- cell division
- cell organization
- cell growth
A: cell death

Q: Which of the following are building blocks of protein?
- amino acids
- cellulose and glycogen
- glucose, fructose, and sucrose
- monosaccharides
A: amino acids

Q: Which of the following is not carbohydrate item?
- cholesterol
- glycogen
- monosaccharide
- sucrose and fructose
A: cholesterol

Q: A NH_2 group and a COOH group is most characteristic of a (an):
- amino acid
- fatty acid
- ketoacid
- monosaccharide
A: amino acid